5. How far can a car travel in 14 hours while going at a speed of 75 miles per hour?

Answer:

Correct answer: Ic₂ = 48 mA = 48 · 10⁻³ A

Explanation:

U₁ = 12 V DC first battery voltage

Ic₁ = 24 mA = 24 · 10⁻³ A Intensity of current with the first battery

U₂ = 24 V DC second battery voltage

Ic₂ = ? Intensity of current with the second battery

The formula that applies to a simple electric circuit under the Ohm's law is:

R = U / Ic

where R is the total resistance in the electrical circuit and it is constant.

R = U₁ / Ic₁ = U₂ / Ic₂ ⇒ U₁ / Ic₁ = U₂ / Ic₂ ⇒ Ic₂ = (U₂ · Ic₁) / U₁

Ic₂ = (24 · 24) / 12 = 48 mA

Ic₂ = 48 mA = 48 · 10⁻³ A

grujan50

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The coefficient is needed in front of NaNO3 to balance the equation is 2.

When in a chemical reaction, both the product elements or compounds should have number of moles equal to that of the elements or compounds of reactants.

In the given chemical reaction equation,

Na2S + Zn(NO3)2 → ZnS + _NaNO3

Number of moles of S is 1 on both the product and reactant side. Zn has 1 mole on both side. NO3 has 2 mole and Na has 2 mole on reactant side. So to balance the equation, Na and NO3 both must have 2 moles on product side.

Thus, the coefficient is needed in front of NaNO3 to balance the equation is 2.

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Answer:

C. The poster provides an emotional picture of a young, innocent girl with a slightly worried expression to make protective feelings.

Explanation:

The girl looks quite worried in the poster. Attached is the image:

Answer:

1125 J

Explanation:

W=F x s

= 75 x 15

=1125

Answer:

its 20 n because of the temeture

Explanation:

because

Neon lamps located near a powerful radio station are seen to glow faintly at night because radio waves may generate a potential difference in the neon gas.

A neon lamp is a lamp containing neon gas as well as other types of gases and two electrodes.

In a neon lamp, the electricity is generated by striping negative electrons from neon atoms, which ionize these atoms.

The radio waves can also ionize atoms in the neon lamp by generating a potential difference in the neon particles of the lamp, thereby glowing faintly at night.

In conclusion, neon signs located near a powerful radio station are seen to glow faintly at night because radio waves may generate a potential difference in the neon gas.

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Answer:

it’s going to be times 3

Explanation:

so the answer would be three times which means it will change by a factor of 3.

I’m sorry I wrote it wrong the first time.

Answer:

The acceleration of an object as produced by a net force is directly proportional to the magnitude of the net force, in the same direction as the net force, and inversely proportional to the mass of the object

Explanation:

it's newton's second law

Answer:

An object is in motion when its distance from another object is changing. A reference point is a place or object used for comparison to determine if something is in motion. An object is in motion if it changes position relative to a reference point.

option C is your CORRECT answer

Answer:

3.74 x 10^12  electrons

Explanation:

.6 x 10^-6 C *  1/( 1.60218 x 10^-19)   e /C

  = 3.74  x 10^12   electrons

Answer:

B. 2270 kg

Explanation:

We know that :

We are given :

Finding mass

Answer:

1. The faster the coil rotates the faster will it cut the magnetic field and the bigger will be the output voltage.

2. You could increase the output voltage of a generator by rotating it faster, increasing the number of turns on the coil or using stronger magnets,

Explanation:

Hopefully this helps if not im terribly sorry

During a race, a sprinter accelerated 1.8 m/s 2 in 2.5 seconds. The sprint increase with this amount of acceleration by 4.5 m/s.

Acceleration is the time rate of change of velocity.

Acceleration a = velocity v / time t

1.8 = v/2.5

v = 4.5 m/s

The sprint increase with this amount of acceleration by 4.5 m/s.

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rxcuobudbbgvd CT I ng a ubjnr. hbgvw

From the calculation, we can see that the electrostatic force on the material is 1200 N.

The electrostatic force is described by Coulumb's law. According to the law;

F = Kq1q2/r^2

Where;

q1 = -4 * 10^-3 C

q2 = -3 * 10^-3 C

r = 3 m

K = 9 * 10^9

Hence

F = 9 * 10^9 * -4 * 10^-3 C * -3 * 10^-3 C/(3)^2

F = 1200 N

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Answer:

Because it is the standard operational range for measuring the body temperature of a living individual.

Explanation:

When making a measuring equipment like a thermometer, you attempt to keep the reading range (Span) as small as possible so that the reading is as accurate as feasible. Because sensors are often rated in percent of span (in this example, span = 45 C–32 C = 13 degrees Celsius), One percent of 13 equals 0.13 degrees Celsius, thus if your sensor has a usual accuracy of 1%, your temperature reading is accurate to roughly 0.1 degrees Celsius.

Your precision would be 0.2 degrees Celsius if you doubled the span. The reading accuracy is now becoming unsatisfactory. Readability is another advantage of analog and mercury clinical thermometers. The markings for 0.1 deg C would be ten times closer together if a mercury thermometer had ten times the range (span). There is a limit to the device's readability.

Hi there!

We can begin by deriving the magnetic field strength for a circular loop at its center.

Using Biot-Savart's Law:
[tex]dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi }\frac{idl \times \^r}{r^2}[/tex]

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (Tm/A)

dl = Differential length element

r = radius (m)

We can rather use 'ds' to represent a differential arc length since we are finding the magnetic field for a circular loop.

We must begin by dealing with the cross-product. Luckily, this derivation is simple since the radius vector is ALWAYS perpendicular to the path of integration along the loop's circumference. (ONLY if we are finding the field for the direct center.) Thus, since sin(90) = 1, we can get rid of the cross-product.

Therefore:

[tex]dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi }\frac{ids}{r^2}[/tex]

Now, we can integrate with respect to ds.

[tex]= \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi }\int\limits^{2\pi r}_0 {\frac{i}{r^2}} \, ds\\\\ = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi }{\frac{i * 2\pi r}{r^2}} \, ds[/tex]

Simplify:

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_0 i_{circle}}{2r}\\[/tex]

Now, for a straight conductor (assuming of infinite length), we know the magnetic field strength equation to be:

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_0 i_{rod}}{2\pi r}[/tex]

Set the two equal.

[tex]\frac{\mu_0 i_{circle}}{2r}= \frac{\mu_0 i_{rod}}{2\pi r}[/tex]

Cancel out '2', μ₀, and 'r':
[tex]i_{circle}}= \frac{ i_{rod}}{\pi }[/tex]

Plug in the given values and solve.

[tex]40\pi = i_{rod}\\\\i_{rod} = \boxed{125.663 A}[/tex]

Answer:

The smart car hit with the greater force

Explanation:

Despite the trailers weight, the smart car moves with more speed and momentum than that of the trailer...

I don't even understand what I'm typing

Both will exert equal and opposite force on each other.

When a tractor-trailer and a smart car collide head-on, we can determine the relative forces experienced by each vehicle using Newton's second law of motion.

According to this law, the force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum.

Let's consider the tractor-trailer as object 1 with mass [tex]\(M_1\)[/tex] and velocity [tex]\(V_1\)[/tex], and the smart car as object 2 with mass [tex]\(M_2\)[/tex] and velocity [tex]\(V_2\)[/tex].

The force exerted on object 1 due to object 2 [tex](\(F_{12}\))[/tex] can be calculated as:

[tex]\[F_{12} = M_1 \cdot \frac{{dV_1}}{{dt}}\][/tex]

Similarly, the force exerted on object 2 due to object 1 [tex](\(F_{21}\))[/tex] can be calculated as:

[tex]\[F_{21} = M_2 \cdot \frac{{dV_2}}{{dt}}\][/tex]

Since the collision is head-on, the direction of the forces will be opposite for the two objects.

To determine which object experiences a greater force, we need to compare the magnitudes of [tex]\(F_{12}\) and \(F_{21}\)[/tex] = 0 by Newton's third law.

Thus, both will exert equal and opposite force on each other.

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Answer:

c

Explanation:

X-ray tube is an evacuated electron tube that creates X rays by accelerating electrons to a high velocity and causing them to collide with a target, the anode plate, using a high-voltage field.

(a) The acceleration of the system is determined as 1.58 m/s².

(b) The relative weight of P is pounds is determined as 0.14 lb.

The acceleration of the system is calculated as follows;

W - T = m₂a --- (1)

T = m₁a ----(2)

μmgsinθ - m₁a = m₂a

(0.3 x 3 x 9.8 x sin40) - (0.4 + 0.2)a = 3a

5.67 - 0.6a = 3a

5.67 = 3.6a

a = 5.67/3.6

a = 1.58 m/s²

W = ma

W = 0.4 x 1.58

W = 0.632 N = 0.14 lb

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Internal energy is directly proportional to temperature

Answer:

12.65 Meters / Second (m/s)

Explanation:

the problem is really easy to solve, we begin by stating the kinetic energy formula which is:

KE = (1/2)(mass)(velocity)^2

We equate 1200 J to the formula, substitute the mass, and solve for velocity either using a CAS, app, or by hand

1200J = (0.5)(15kg)v^2

v = 12.65 m/s

Hello There!!

=> Let The Answer be "x"

________________________________

=> He don't have a child so he is not a father

________________________________

=> Kinematics is a part of science not history.

__________________________________

Hope this helps :D

Answer:

i just wrote this much hope it will help u little

Explanation:

kinematics is the branch of physical which deals with the study of motion as the function of time.Frank reuleaux is known as the father of kinematics.the word *kinematics" comes from a greek word "kinesis" meaning motion.

[tex]\Large{\green}\fcolorbox{blue}{cyan}{\bf{\underline{\red{\color{red}Answer}}}}[/tex]

2300 N upward

Explanation:

The force by weight of balloon = 1000 N

The atmospheric force experienced by balloon = 3300 N

While weight of balloon is attracted by gravity so the force of weight will act downward

And the atmospheric force gives upward lifting force to the balloon

Net force = atmospheric force - weight of balloon

= 3300 - 1000

= 2300 N

As the atmospheric force is more dominating the balloon will goes upward with 2300 N force

If we keep increasing the ramp angle, the angle that the object starts to move downward is 26.6°

To find the ramp angle, we need to know the forces acting on the mass on the ramp.

Since the mass will just start to move, the force acting on the mass in the horizontal direction is the horizontal component of its weight in that direct. So, F = mgsinθ. where θ = ramp angle

The force acting on the mass in the vertical direction is the vertical component of its weight, F' = mgcosθ where θ = ramp angle

For the mass to just start to move downwards, the horizontal component of its weight must equal the static frictional force, f on it.

F = f

Since f = μN where

So, F = f

mgsinθ = μmgcosθ

Dividing through by mgcosθ, we have

mgsinθ/mgcosθ = μmgcosθ/mgcosθ

sinθ/cosθ = μ

μ = tanθ

So, the angle at which the object starts to move downward is

θ = tan⁻¹μ

Since μ = 0.5

θ = tan⁻¹0.5

θ = 26.57°

θ ≅ 26.6°

So, the angle at which the object starts to move downward is 26.6°.

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Answer:

The answer is C. Seismic waves.

Explanation:

Answer:

Speed of A + B = 1 m/s

Explanation:

The speed of B = 0    because the distance does not change with time .

The speed of A =   1 m/s   ( the slope of the line)

Hi there!

We can use Ampère's Law to derive an expression for the magnetic field strength produced by an infinitely long current-carrying wire:

[tex]\oint B \cdot dl = \mu_0 I_{encl}[/tex]

B = Magnetic Field Strength (T)
dl = Differential length along path

μ₀ = Permeability of Free Space (Tm/A)

I = Enclosed current (A)

The integral is a cross product, so the cosine of the angle between the magnetic field and the path of integration is used. However, for a straight current-carrying wire, the path is ALWAYS parallel to the magnetic field, so since cos(180) = 1, we can disregard the cross product.

Additionally, the path of integration is equivalent to:

[tex]l = 2\pi r[/tex]

[tex]B \cdot l = \mu_0 I_{encl}\\\\B * 2\pi r = \mu_0 I_{encl}\\\\B = \frac{\mu_0 I_{encl}}{2\pi r }[/tex]

Rearrange to solve for enclosed current:

[tex]I_{encl} = \frac{2\pi rB}{\mu_0} = \frac{2\pi (0.02)(0.0037)}{(4\pi *10^{-7})} = \boxed{370 A}[/tex]

Hi there!

Recall Faraday's Law:
[tex]\epsilon = N\frac{d\Phi_B}{dt}[/tex]

ε = Emf (V)
N = Number of loops

ΦB = Magnetic Flux (Wb)
t = time (s)

Since the magnetic field is constant, we can take this out of the time derivative:
[tex]\frac{d\Phi_B}{dt} = B * \frac{dA}{dt}[/tex]

Therefore:
[tex]\epsilon = N B \frac{dA}{dt}[/tex]

We can express 'A', the area in which the magnetic field passes as:

[tex]A = Acos(\omega t)[/tex]

Taking the time derivative:

[tex]\frac{dA}{dt} = A\omega sin(\omega t)[/tex]

ω = angular speed of coil (rad/sec)

Now, combine with the above expression:

[tex]\epsilon = NBA\omega sin(\omega t)[/tex]

The maximum output will occur when the loop's area vector is PERPENDICULAR to the field, so sin(ωt) = 1.

Therefore:
[tex]\epsilon = NBA\omega \\\\[/tex]

Rearrange to solve for ω:

[tex]\omega = \frac{\epsilon}{NBA}\\\\\omega = \frac{24}{(200 * (.10^2) * 0.25} = \boxed{48 \frac{rad}{sec}}[/tex]