Muscle spasms can feel like a stitch in the side or be agonizingly painful. You may see a twitch under your skin and it may feel hard to the touch. Spasms are involuntary.
What is paravertebral muscle spam ?
When the muscles in the lower back tighten or tense up, it is known as a back spasm.
The severity of the illness ranges from sporadic spasms that cause minor discomfort or pain to chronic spams that cause excruciating back pain to the point where the patient is rendered immobile
how are they treated ?
1.Stretch the affected area.
2.Apply heat or ice. Put an ice pack together or apply a heating pad, or take a nice warm bath.
3.Massage the affected area with your hands or a massage roller. Some experts believe that a daily vitamin B12 complex can help.
The muscles contract and it takes treatment and time for them to relax. They are very common, especially in older adults and athletes.
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endurance athletes achieve higher cardiac outputs through large increases in which variable of the cardiac output formula?
Through significant increases in the cardiac output formula's stroke volume component, endurance athletes obtain larger cardiac outputs.
Cardiovascular output (CO), also known as heart output, is the amount of blood pumped by the heart's two ventricles per unit of time (usually measured per minute). The sum of the stroke volume (SV), or the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle every beat, and the heart rate (HR), or beats per minute (bpm), is what is known as cardiac output. Typical notation for cardiac output values is L/min. With a heart rate of 70 beats per minute and a weight of 70 kg, a healthy person's average cardiac output at rest is about 5 L/min; the stroke volume would be about 70 mL.
Cardiac output is a crucial factor in determining how well the heart can meet the body's requirements for the maintenance of proper tissue perfusion because it is related to the volume of blood delivered to various sections of the body. The prolonged transport of oxygen to body tissues by systemic circulation of oxygenated blood at an acceptable pressure from the left ventricle of the heart via the aorta and arteries is necessary for the sustained supply of oxygen to the tissues.
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How should you handle Valerie's comment about Dr. Buckwalter being "gruff" and "unsympathetic"?
Valerie's comment about Dr. Buckwalter being "gruff" and "unsympathetic" should be handled by telling her to tell him about the type of feelings she has towards him and try to understand his perspective.
What is Feelings?This is referred to as an emotional state or reaction towards an individual and there are various types such as happy, sad etc.
In this scenario, we were told that Valerie thinks Dr. Buckwalter is "gruff" and "unsympathetic" and should be handled by telling her to him about how she feels towards him and know his perspective so as to ensure resolution of the issue.
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the nurse is caring for a client in active labor who has had a fetal blood sampling to check for fetal hypoxia. the nurse determines that the fetus has acidosis when the ph is:
When the PH is 7.15 or less than that confirms that foetus has acidosis
This in turn relies on adequate maternal blood gas concentrations, uterine blood supply, placental transfer and fetal gas transport. Disruption of any of these can cause fetal hypoxia, which, despite compensatory mechanisms, may lead to acidosis.
Metabolic acidosis occurs when the foetus receives inadequate oxygen to maintain normal metabolism, which forces a switch to anaerobic metabolism. This results in the formation of lactic acid and, when the buffering capacity of the tissues is exhausted, a decrease in pH.
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which components of donated blood would a nurse at a community blood drive explain can be separated for individual use?
The components of donated blood that can be separated for individual use are :
Plasma.Albumin.Cryoprecipitate.55% of the total volume of your blood is made up of the liquid substance called plasma. Plasma must circulate throughout the circulatory system in order to help your body heal from wounds, deliver nutrients, eliminate waste, and prevent infection.
The protein albumin is produced by your liver. Albumin enters your bloodstream and aids in preventing fluid from seeping into other tissues from your blood vessels. Albumin also transports vitamins, enzymes, and hormones throughout the body.
Cryo, also known as cryoprecipitate antihemophilic factor, is a component of plasma, the liquid component of our blood. The protein clotting factors, which are abundant in cryo, can aid to slow or stop bleeding and so minimize blood loss.
The cryo contains the following blood clotting proteins:
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a patient diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (ocd) paces up and down the corridor counting every floor tile. how should the nurse address the patient's behavior?
An Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) patient paces up and down the corridor, counting every floor tile. The nurse's best course of action would be to let the patient pace and count until he or she felt more at ease.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a common, chronic, and long-term disorder in which a person experiences uncontrollable, recurring thoughts ("obsessions") and/or behaviors ("compulsions") that he or she feels compelled to repeat.
You can try to ignore or stop your obsessions, but doing so will only make your distress and anxiety worse. Finally, you feel compelled to engage in compulsive behavior in order to alleviate your stress. Despite efforts to ignore or eliminate bothersome thoughts or urges, they return. This results in more ritualistic behavior — the OCD vicious cycle.
OCD frequently revolves around specific themes, such as an excessive fear of being contaminated by germs. To alleviate your contamination fears, you may wash your hands obsessively until they are sore and chapped.
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the clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant and notes that the primary health care provider has documented a diagnosis of suspected hirschsprung's disease. the nurse reviews the assessment findings documented in the record, knowing that which sign most likely led the mother to seek health care for the infant?
Foul-smelling ribbon-like stools likely led the mother to seek health care for the infant.
What does foul-smelling stool mean?
Bad-smelling stools might be a sign of an intestinal parasite, a bacterial infection, or a viral infection. These ailments may manifest after swallowing tainted food or drink (which can also happen when swimming).
Why do stools look like ribbons?
Constipation is more likely if you eat a diet low in fibre or water. As a result, the stool may become less substantial, reduce in size, and seem stringy. Thin, stringy stools are frequently passed as a result of obstructions that form in the colon as a result of chronic constipation.
Hence Foul-smelling ribbon-like stools is a correct answer.
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what is the best technique for monitoring the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (hdfn)?
Infant testing is the best method/technique for observing/monitoring the severity of hemolytic sickness of the fetus and new child (hdfn).
The maximum essential serologic take a look at for the prognosis of HDFN is the DAT with Ig G reagent. A tremendous DAT suggests sensitization of fetal crimson cells and is in itself now no longer diagnostic of HDFN. The DAT effects ought to be interpreted withinside the scientific context. This lets in steps to be taken earlier than signs develop. Most of those ailments are very rare, however may be handled if stuck early. The varieties of new child screening exams which are carried out range from nation to nation.
The direct antiglobulin take a look at (DAT) is an essential device for identity of haemolytic sickness of the new child (HDN) due to erythrocyte immunization. Although this take a look at has been used for decades, correct insights into its diagnostic homes and most suitable use withinside the prognosis of HDN are limited. We aimed to benefit extra perception into the diagnostic homes of the DAT for HDN through evaluating it with erythrocyte eluate screening.
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In the anthropological study of political systems, social control maintains social norms (cultural standards) and regulates conflict. which of the following is not a form of social control? a. hegemony
b. shame
c. making subordinates believe they will eventually gain power
d. exogamy
e. gossip
Exogamy is not a form of social control.
What is Exogamy ?Exogamy, or getting married outside of one's social circle, is a social norm. Exogamy's breadth and extent, as well as the laws and enforcement practices that maintain it, are all defined by the organization. Dual exogamy is one type of exogamy in which two Exogamy, or getting married outside of one's social circle, is a social norm. Exogamy's breadth and extent, as well as the laws and enforcement practices that maintain it, are all defined by the organization. Dual exogamy is a type of exogamy in which two groups continuously intermarry. Exogamy is considered as a synthesis of two related factors in social science: biological and cultural. Biological exogamy is the union of unrelated human beings, which is prohibited under various incest laws.The opposite of endogamy, which is marriage within a social group, is cultural exogamy, which is getting married outside of a particular cultural group.Learn more about Exogamy refer :
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a client has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is awaiting cytology results of a biopsy. during client education, the nurse discusses the possible types of breast malignancies. which is the most common type?
Ductal cancer is the most common type of breast cancer. The milk duct lining inside your breast is where this kind of cancer develops. Breast milk is produced in lobules and transported via ducts to the nipple.
Following a breast cancer diagnosis, your doctor will examine the pathology report and the outcomes of any imaging tests to determine the precise characteristics of your tumor.
Your medical team assesses your breast cancer type using a tissue sample from your breast biopsy or utilizing the tumor if you've already had surgery. Your doctor can choose the best course of treatment for you with the help of this information.
The behavior of your breast cancer and the best therapies depend on the type of tissue from which it develops.
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a nurse is caring for an infant born with polycythemia. which intervention is most appropriate when caring for this infant?
metabolic disorder is the most appropriate when caring for this infant.
In the epidemiologic context of maternal obesity and type 2 diabetes (T2D), they incidence of gestational of the diabetes has been significantly increased in the last decades. Infants of the diabetic mothers are prone of the to various neonatal adverse outcomes, total including metabolic and hematologic disorders, and respiratory distress, cardiac disorders and neurological impairment due to perinatal asphyxia and birth traumas, me among others. Macrosomia is the most of the constant consequence of diabetes and its severity is mainly influenced by the maternal blood glucose level. Neonatal of the hypoglycemia is the Maine metabolic disorder that's why should be prevented as soon as possible after birth. The severity of macrosomia and the maternal healthy and the condition have a strong impact on their frequency and the severity of adverse neonatal of the outcomes. Pregestational T2D and maternal obesity significantly increase their risk of perinatal death and birth defects. The high of incidence of maternal hyperglycemia in the developing countries, associated with the scarcity of maternal and neonatal of health care, seriously increase the burden of neonatal complications in these countries.
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americans contributed which advances to medical science in the nineteenth century?
Contribution of Americans to medical sciences are - William Morton's use of ether as an anesthetic. Oliver Wendell Holmes's discovery that disease could be transmitted from person to person.
In 1846, American dentist and physician William Thomas Green Morton performed the first open demonstration of the use of inhaled ether as a surgical anesthetic. Holmes promoted the divisive theory that doctors' unwashed hands were to blame for the transmitted puerperal fever from patient to patient.
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pepto-bismol, an over-the-counter medication used for upset stomach and diarrhea, contains 525 mg of bismuth subsalicylate in each 15-ml tablespoon. what is the weight/volume percent concentration of bismuth subsalicylate?
Bismuth subsalicylate molecules have a weight ratio of 58% bismuth and 42% salicylate.
What is medication?Medication is defined as any drug molecules that can help to prevent diseases. Medicine is the another word for medication. Medications are very important for prevention of chronic illness. Medicine are helpful for the prevention of long term problem like blood pressure , sugar etc.
The weight percent of bismuth subsalicylate is for bismuth 58 % with volume of approx 58 ml and for salicylate 42% with volume of 42 ml .
Thus, bismuth subsalicylate molecules have a weight ratio of 58% bismuth and 42% salicylate.
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a client has a large, deep duodenal ulcer diagnosed by endoscopy. which sign or symptom indicative of a complication should the nurse look for during the client's postprocedure assessment?
The most common symptoms of this type of ulcer usually include constant pain in the stomach, nausea and frequent urge to vomit, which worsen after meals or when you go a long time without eating.
What is a duodenal ulcer?A duodenal ulcer is a small sore that arises in the duodenum, which is the first part of the intestine that connects directly to the stomach. The ulcer usually develops in people who have been infected with the bacteria H. pylori, which strips the lining of the stomach of its protection and causes inflammation of the lining of the duodenum.
What is the ulcer treatment?Treatment for gastric ulcer is done with the use of medicines that reduce stomach acidity, such as antacids or acidity inhibitors, such as
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the nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma. why would it be important to assess this client for fractures?
It would be important to assess this client for fractures as Osteoclasts break down bone cells so pathologic fractures occur.
What is osteoclast?The cells known as osteoclasts mediate bone loss in pathologic situations by increasing their resorptive activity and degrading bone to start normal bone rebuilding. They originate from myeloid/monocyte lineage progenitors that circulate in the circulation after developing in the bone marrow. Under the control of osteoblastic cells in the bone marrow, these osteoclast precursors (OCPs) are drawn to areas on bone surfaces that are intended for resorption and merge with one another to create the multinucleated cells that resorb calcified matrixes. In addition to bone resorption, OCPs and osteoclasts have been found to serve different purposes in and around bone in recent investigations.For instance, they control immune responses, secrete cytokines that can affect their own functions and those of other cells in inflammatory and malignant processes that affect bone, and control the differentiation of osteoblast precursors and the movement of hematopoietic stem cells from the bone marrow to the bloodstream. we examine these results that identify new functions for osteoclasts and OCPs in the developing field of osteoimmunology and in typical pathologic circumstances where bone resorption is elevated.The abnormal plasma cells proliferate in the bone marrow, where they release osteoclast-activating factor. This in turn causes osteoclasts to break down bone cells, resulting in increased blood calcium and pathologic fractures. The plasma cells also form single or multiple osteolytic (bone-destroying) tumors that produce a 'punched-out' or 'honeycombed' appearance in bones such as the spine, ribs, skull, pelvis, femurs, clavicles, and scapulae. Weakened vertebrae lead to compression of the spine accompanied by significant pain.To learn more about osteoclasts, refer to
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the nurse is caring for an older adult with streptococcal pneumonia. which precautions will the nurse begin?
The nurse should begin airborne and contact precautions as they are appropriate.
What are airborne and contact precautions?Airborne and contact precautions are described as steps that any healthcare facility visitors and staff need to follow when going into or leaving a patient's room.
These airborne and contact precautions are very important as they help stop germs from spreading so other people don't get sick. Airborne and contact precautions are for patients who have germs that can spread: through the air and contact from any surface.
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a client presents with otalgia and yellow-green discharge from the external ear canal. which question should the nurse ask to determine the cause of this problem?
A client presents with otalgia and yellow-green discharge from the external ear canal. which question should the nurse ask to determine the cause of this problem Place arms around the client without touching. (This is the balance test).
Otalgia is defined as ear pain. separate and wonderful kinds of otalgia exist. pain that originates within the ear is number one otalgia; pain that originates out of doors the ear is referred otalgia. [1, 2] normal resources of primary otalgia are external otitis, otitis media, mastoiditis, and auricular infections.
The primary causes of otalgia are frequently benign and present as trustworthy cases to the experienced GP. contamination, trauma, foreign bodies and impacted cerumen are the common situations usually identified on otoscopy.
Issues of the external auditory canal which can motive ache consist of cerumen impaction, foreign our bodies, and, most usually, infection of the canal. Otitis externa (typically called swimmer's ear) is as a result of bacterial infections (ninety%) and fungal infections (10%).
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A patient has completed 4 weeks of treatment with epoetin alfa. Which of the following assessment findings would most strongly indicate that treatment has been effective?
a)Capillary refill in the patient's nail beds is less than or equal to 3 seconds
b)The patient white blood cell level is within reference ranges
c)The patient's hemoglobin level is 11 g/dL
d)The patient maintains an oxygen saturation of 92% on room air
Using the theories of epoetin alfa, we got that the the assessment findings which most strongly indicate that treatment has been effective is c)The patient's hemoglobin level is 11 g/dL.
Epoetin alfa is used to treat the anemia caused by chemotherapy in adults and children at least 5 years old.
Epoetin alfa is also used to treat the anemia caused by chronic kidney disease in adults and children at least 1 month old.
Epoetin alfa is also used to treat the anemia in adults taking zidovudine to treat HIV (human immunodeficiency virus).
Epoetin alfa is also used to reduce need for red blood cell transfusions in adults having certain types of surgery.
Hence, if A patient has completed 4 weeks of treatment with epoetin alfa, the assessment findings which would most strongly indicate that treatment has been effective is option c)The patient's hemoglobin level is 11 g/dL.
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yolanda has been diagnosed several times in the last year with cystitis. she asks the practitioner if there is anything she can do to prevent future episodes of cystitis. what is the best response to her question?
The best response to her question is Always clean from the front to the back of the perineum.
The medical term for bladder inflammation is cystitis. Irritation is the point at which a piece of your body is enlarged and hot. It might also hurt. The majority of the time, cystitis is brought on by a bacterial infection. A urinary tract infection (UTI) is the term for this.
After having a bowel movement, wipe the front and back of the perineum to stop bacteria from spreading to the urethra and vagina.
Other ways to prevent it are:
Drink a lot of water and other liquids: On the days of treatment, it is especially important to drink a lot of fluids after chemotherapy or radiation therapy.frequently urinate: Don't put off going to the bathroom if you get the urge to urinate.Wash the area around the genitalia gently: Do this every day, but do not wash too vigorously or with harsh soaps.Spray deodorants and other hygiene products should not be used in the genital area.Know more about cystitis here: https://brainly.com/question/13158065
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The region of the brain that encloses the third ventricle and immediately rostral to the brainstem, and includes the thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus is the.
The region of the brain that encloses the third ventricle and immediately rostral to the brainstem, and includes the thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus is the diencephalon.
Thalamus is an oval structure within the middle of your brain. It's called a relay station of all incoming motor (movement) and sensory data — hearing, taste, sight and bit (but not smell) — from your body to your brain.
The epithalamus is a posterior (dorsal) phase of the betweenbrain. The epithalamus includes the habenular nuclei and their interconnecting fibers, the habenular commissure, the stria medullaris and therefore the epiphysis cerebri. Epithalamus. medial facet of a brain divided within the median mesial plane.
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when collecting a urine sample from the port of the client's catheter drainage tubing, the nurse inserts the syringe into the aspiration port, slowly aspirates enough urine for the specimen, and removes the syringe. what would be the nurse's next step?
When collecting a urine sample from the port of the client's catheter drainage tubing, the nurse inserts the syringe into the aspiration port, slowly aspirates enough urine for the specimen, and removes the syringe, the nurse's next step would be to unclamp drainage tubing.
Clamping the indwelling urinary catheter earlier than elimination turned into first endorsed with the aid of using Ross in 1936. The clamping technique is meant to bolster the bladder detrusor muscle, enhance muscle tone and sensation of the bladder, and stimulate ordinary filling and emptying of the bladder is recommended that indwelling urinary catheters have to be clamped intermittently to fill the bladder and repair bladder characteristic earlier than elimination.
However, indwelling urinary catheter clamping confirmed no impact on bladder reconditioning in step with a few scientific studies.
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a patient with a traumatic head injury has been brought into the emergency department (ed) by air life. an intracranial pressure(icp) monitor has been placed. opening pressure was 15 but 30 minutes later the ed nurse notices it is now 30. the ed nurse notifies the provider and he orders an arterial blood gas and asks to be notified of the patient's carbon dioxide (co2) level. the co2 is 48. the provider orders to increase the patient's respiratory rate on the ventilator. how does the ed nurse interpret hyperventilation and the direct effect on icp's?
Inducing hypomania via hyperventilation reduces the partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), which incites vasoconstriction in the cerebral resistance arterioles. This constriction decrease cerebral blood flow, which reduces cerebral blood volume and, ultimately, decreases the patient's ICP.
What is ICP?
Pressure inside your skull can increase thanks to a brain injury or another medical issue. Increased intracranial pressure, or ICP, may be a risky condition that can cause headaches. The pressure might worsen existing brain or medulla spinals injuries.
Therefore, Inducing hypomania via hyperventilation reduces the partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), which incites vasoconstriction in the cerebral resistance arterioles. This constriction decrease cerebral blood flow, which reduces cerebral blood volume and, ultimately, decreases the patient's ICP.
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which of the following are typical roles of the registered dietitian in the treatment of anorexia nervosa? multiple select question. helping the patient to reduce the amount of food consumed during a binge. providing accurate nutrition information. teaching the patient to respond to natural hunger and satiety cues. diagnosing depression or anxiety disorders.
Teaching the patient to respond to natural hunger and satiety cues, and providing accurate nutrition information.
These are typical roles of the registered dietitian in the treatment of anorexia nervosa.
The eating disorder anorexia nervosa sometimes referred to as just "anorexia," is characterized by low weight, dietary restriction, body image disturbance, anxiety about gaining weight, and an intense desire to be thin. The Greek words anorexia and orexis, which together mean "a loss of appetite," are the root words for the phrase.
The adjective Nervosa denotes the functional and non-organic aspects of the condition. Gull first used the term "anorexia nervosa" in 1873, although despite its literal translation, the need to eat is often present, and the patients find comfort in their pathological control of it.
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on a routine visit to the physician, a client with chronic arterial occlusive disease reports that he's stopped smoking after 34 years. to relieve symptoms of intermittent claudication, a condition associated with chronic arterial occlusive disease, which additional measure should the nurse recommend?
To relieve symptoms of intermittent claudication, a condition associated with chronic arterial occlusive disease, the additional measure which the nurse should recommend is taking daily walks.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional which specializes in the taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved thereby reducing the risks of complications.
Claudication refers to the leg cramp pain that occurs during exercise and is as a result of insufficient blood flow in the legs therefore starving the cells of oxygen.
The additional measure which the nurse should recommend is taking daily walks which relieves symptoms of intermittent claudication due to the increase in blood flow to that part of the body.
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a nursing student is assigned to administer an intramuscular iron injection to a client. the coassigned nurse asks the student about the technique for administration of this medication. the student indicates understanding of the administration procedure by identifying what as the correct injection site and method?
The Student answered to nurse to Insert needle at an 45o angle to the skin. Pinch up on SQ tissue to prevent injecting into muscle.
What is Intramuscular Injection ?
Intramuscular injections are a regular procedure in Today's era. They are used to transport medications and vaccinations. This is how many medications and practically all injectable vaccinations are given.When alternative routes of administration are not suitable, intramuscular injections are employed. Among them are: orally (swallowed the stomach) (swallowed into the stomach)intravascular (injected into vein) (injected into the veinssubcutaneous (injected into the fatty tissue right beneath the layer of skin) (injected into the fatty tissue just under the layer of skin)Because some medications are irritating to veins or because a suitable vein cannot be discovered, intramuscular injection may be used instead of intravenous administration.Therefore, Insert needle at an 45o angle to the skin while giving intramuscular iron injection
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the nurse is caring for a patient with ascites due to cirrhosis of the liver. what position does the nurse understand will activate the renin-angiotensin aldosterone and sympathetic nervous system and decrease responsiveness to diuretic therapy?
The nurse would be aware that this will increase sympathetic nervous system activity and impair responsiveness to diuretic medication while in an upright position.
The sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system are both activated when a patient has ascites and is standing up (Porth & Matfin, 2009). Due to this, sodium excretion, renal glomerular filtration, and the responsiveness to loop diuretics are all lowered.
When your abdomen fills with too much fluid, you get ascites (belly). Cirrhosis, or liver scarring, is a common complication of this illness. The stomach, colon, liver, and kidneys are all enclosed in a tissue layer called the peritoneum.
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a 40-year-old client (he/him/his) is admitted to the emergency department after sustaining a flash burn to his face. the client initially denies difficulty breathing and is receiving 100% oxygen via face mask. upon reassessment, the nurse notes that the client's voice has changed and he is reporting difficulty swallowing. what is the most appropriate nursing action?
The primary nursing movement for an affected person arriving in distress at the emergency department is continual, to begin with, priority assessments inclusive of critical signs.
Nurse triage is needed in some of the conditions, together with inside the emergency department. The nurse has to investigate which patron is at the very best chance of being in a lifestyles-threatening state of affairs. the first consumer who ought to be assessed is the one who has a state of affairs that threatens the airway, respiratory, or movement.
Emergency departments number one purpose is to be prepared to address rising, existence-threatening situations. at the same time as they're there for non-life threatening problems, they ought to stay organized and operate as if an emergency exists.
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a nurse is considering enrolling in an e-learning continuing education course and is trying to decide whether or not the course would be appropriate for him. the nurse completes a self-evaluation and identifies characteristics that would indicate that the course would be appropriate. which characteristic has the nurse identified? select all that apply.
The nurse identified characteristics of self motivation,open to share experiences and ability to ask for help .
What is characteristic?
characteristic are the distinguished features or quality of something.
E-learning programs that provide self-motivation, a forum for exchanging of experiences, and the capability to ask for assistance are the ideal qualities that will motivate a person to select that is the particular course. E-learimh programs that encourage self-motivation, allowed students to seek assistance when needed, and provide a forum for sharing the experiences are examples of student-centered pedagogy that allow students to the analyze and apply the knowledge to issues that are similar to those they will face in the real world. Such a online courses emphasize learning that is driven by a process of inquiry initiated by the students themselves, in contrast to traditional lectures, which often entail an instructor imparting to the knowledge. Therefore these characteristics are the nurse identified.
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true or false? the majority of health care executives believes that health care reform will positively impact finances.
Healthcare service providers are compensated by third parties for services provided. Frequently, the patient is found. Among the confusion about insurance and payment concerns.
What executives believes that health care reform?The fragmented healthcare system, which multiplies administrative costs (tracking patient expenses and billing to multiple insurers), the influence that healthcare providers have over patients.
The three main causes of rising healthcare prices are the for-profit basis of the healthcare sector.
Therefore, reduced health care expense rise while maintaining high standards for treatment and putting patients first.
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true or false? simulated experiences in nursing education should contain the peda elements to provide important opportunities for students to hone critical thinking and clinical skills in a safe and supportive environment.
It is true that simulated experiences in nursing education should contain the PEDA elements to provide important opportunities for students to hone critical thinking and clinical skills in a safe and supportive environment.
A simulation imitates the operation of world processes or systems with the utilization of models. Simulated experiences means that student learning that involves interaction with face to face or virtual academic learning programs, computer-generated or [other] lifelike models of clinical nursing things.
Nursing education consists of the theoretical and sensible coaching provided to nurses with the aim to arrange them for his or her duties as medical aid professionals. Courses resulting in autonomous registration as a nurse generally last four years. Nurse education additionally provides post-qualification courses in specialist subjects at intervals nursing.
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general hospital has purchased an application that includes the following functions: order entry, identification of drug interactions, medical label printing, and administrative reports such as drug usage. this type of application is known as a(n)
The general hospital has purchased an application that includes the following features: order entry, drug interaction detection, medical label printing, and administrative reports such as drug usage. A Pharmacy application is the name given to this type of application.
A pharmacy application includes an integrated system for entering various medicine orders. This application is also useful in determining which drugs and doses should be used and prescribed by doctors for treatment. For patients, proper labeling and pricing are checked. The pharmacy application provides various administrative reports to hospital management in order to improve productivity and planning in order to provide better quality services to patients. In addition, general Hospital wishes to provide accurate drug usage and other functions for which pharmacy application is appropriate.
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