A client has been admitted to the hospital unit with a diagnosis of marasmus. The nurse understands that this diagnosis is most likely secondary to a chronic disease.
Marasmus is a malnutrition disorder where the the body becomes deficient in protein-energy. This results in the lack of normal required calories of the body. Besides protein, marasmus is also caused due to deficiency of other food components like carbs, fats, etc.
Chronic disease is the one which lasts for at least three months and even longer than that. With time chronic disease become worse. Chronic disease can be treated but have no permanent cure.
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Why can’t a healthy lifestyle and a medical history with no major incidents be enough to guarantee low health care costs going forward?.
People who are poor and less educated have more health issues and die younger than those who are affluent and more educated.
According to compelling evidence from around the world and these disparities persist even in prosperous nations like Canada.
It is essential to comprehend and address the root causes of poor health in order to have a significant impact on health equity and patient-centered care.
However, while dealing with their patients' intricate and interrelated health and social problems, doctors frequently feel helpless and irritated.
Many people avoid talking about social issues, preferring to concentrate on receiving medical care and receiving lifestyle advice.
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a multipara woman at a birthing center is becoming very discouraged that her labor is taking so long. she is confused when her nurse-midwife indicates she has developed dystocia and needs to be transferred to a more advanced facility. what is the best response from the nurse to answer the woman's questions?
The best response from the nurse to answer the woman's questions is that Your blood pressure is getting too high and needs treatment we can't provide here. We need to consult with a surgeon in case a cesarean delivery is necessary.
Women with gestational high blood pressure may also have a substantially better frequency of SDB than do healthful ladies with clear-cut pregnancies of comparable gestational age.
Your blood strain is getting too excessive and desires remedy we can not offer here. We want to visit a doctor in case a cesarean shipping is necessary. Your hard exertions desires remedy we can not offer here. We do not have the medicine you want.
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What are global effects of steroids ?
Explanation:
(1). Blurred vision.
(2). Increased appetite
(3). Weight gain.
(4). Changes in mood
(5). Easy bruising
which of the following represents a primary concern with the b-a-b design? group of answer choices the lack of initial baseline makes it difficult to assess effectiveness. the participant ends the study without treatment. participant mortality is commonly an issue. history effects can make it difficult to assess effectiveness.
A major concern with the b-a-b design is that the lack of an initial baseline makes efficacy assessment difficult.
What are B-A-B and A-B-A-B Design in treatments?The B-A-B design is used in situations where interventions or treatments that are already underway are being investigated. A-B1-A-B2-A-Bn designs are useful when the researcher's goal is to examine the effects of different levels of a particular independent variable.ABAB study designs (also called withdrawal or reversal designs) are used to determine whether interventions are effective in changing participants' behavior. This design has his four phases labeled A1, B1, A2, and B2. Each phase involves repeated measures of participant behavior.What makes you consider designing a bab?The reason for using the B-A-B design instead of the A-B-A-B design is that this design is the "lightest" and generally the strongest within-subject design for demonstrating functional relationships.
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victims caught in a fire have inhaled toxic smoke from furnishings and plastics that have released cyanide in the burning process. what precaution/side effects should you be aware of when administering cyanide antidotes?
one side effect is, Methemoglobin levels can rise in response to cyanide antidotes, which reduce blood oxygenation.
People who have been exposed to cyanide and are unconscious or have a strong suspicion of having been poisoned by it should receive cyanide antidotes as soon as possible. Since all of the cyanide antidotes that are currently approved by the FDA are IV infusions, they should only be administered by healthcare professionals whose scope of practice includes administering IV medications.
Most of the time, cyanide antidotes combine with cyanide to make a less harmful product that is easy to get out of the body. Antidotes containing cyanide have also been shown to reduce oxygen demand by dilation of the blood vessels.
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the c in the abcs of safer sex stands for . a. clean b. concern c. care d. conscientious e. condoms
Answer: Use a Condom
Explanation: Abstinence, be faithful, use a condom, also known as the ABC strategy
a client with bipolar disorder has been ordered a medication that is classified as an anticonvulsant. which drug does the nurse know falls within this class of medications?
A client with bipolar disorder has been ordered a medication that is classified as an anticonvulsant and the drug which the nurse know falls within this class of medications is Carbamazepine.
Carbamazepine, sold below the brand name Tegretol among others, is a medication used primarily within the treatment of brain disease and neuropathic pain. It's used as a connected treatment in psychosis in conjunction with alternative medications and as a second-line agent in emotional disorder.
People with bipolar disorder experience each episodes of severe depression and episodes of mania – overwhelming joy, excitement or happiness, vast energy, a reduced want for sleep, and reduced inhibitions. The experience of bipolar disorder is unambiguously personal. No 2 folks have precisely the same experience.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has just had a modified radical mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. she's in her 30s and has two young children. although she's worried about her future, she seems to be adjusting well to her diagnosis. what should the nurse do to support her coping?
The nurse should refer the patient to the American Cancer Society Reach for recovery or other support programs to support her coping.
What is radical mastectomy?
A radical mastectomy is a surgical procedure used to treat breast cancer that involves the removal of the breast, the chest muscle underneath, and the axillary lymph nodes.
The American Cancer Society (ACS) is a nonprofit organization with a national mission to end cancer. The American Society for the Control of Cancer was established on May 22, 1913, in New York City by 10 doctors and five business people (ASCC).
In 1944, the current name was chosen. When the organization was first established, using the word "cancer" in public was frowned upon. Information about this condition was shrouded in a culture of fear and denial.
Over 75,000 people died every year due to cancer in United states. their main aim was to create awareness among the people about the cancer.
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a woman who gave birth to her infant 1 week ago calls the clinic to report pain with urination and increased frequency. what response should the nurse prioritize?
A swollen, sensitive area on the chest may be a sign of mastitis, which needs medical attention.
What is the main objective of nursing care during pregnancy?Prenatal nurses monitor the health of both the mother and the foetus, provide emotional support, and inform expectant mothers and their families about the physical and mental changes that take place throughout pregnancy, the development of the foetus, labour and delivery, and postpartum care.
Which activity is essential for a pregnant woman's health?While pregnant, it's crucial to consume enough fluids, especially water. You can stay hydrated and avoid common issues like constipation by consuming enough water each day. A woman's blood volume significantly increases during pregnancy.
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the nurse educator recognizes that teaching is effective when students correctly identify what as elements of triglycerides
When students correctly identify glycerol and three fatty acids as components of triglycerides, the nurse educator knows that their lesson was effective.
When three fatty acids' carboxyl groups (COOH-) and the three hydroxyl groups (OH-) of a single glycerol molecule interact to form ester bonds, a triglyceride is created. A triglyceride is referred to as "simple" if all of its fatty acids are the same. The "mixed" triglycerides, which contain two or three different types of fatty acids, are the more prevalent types.
The primary components of body fat in humans, other vertebrates, and vegetable fat are triglycerides. They are a significant part of human skin oils and are also present in the blood to allow the bidirectional transference of adipose fat and blood glucose from the liver. Triglycerides come in numerous varieties. In one classification, saturated and unsaturated varieties are the main focus. Unsaturated fats have one or more C=C groups while saturated fats do not have any C=C groups. Due to their lower melting point than their saturated cousins, unsaturated fats are frequently liquid at room temperature.
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ariboflavinosis primarily affects the mouth, skin, and red blood cells causing inflammation of the throat, mouth, and tongue; cracking of the tissue around the mouth; and red, scaly skin. this is caused by a deficiency of .
Cracking of the tissue around the mouth; and red, scaly skin. this is caused by a deficiency of vitamin B2.
A yellow, water-soluble chemical molecule called riboflavin, sometimes referred to as vitamin B2, is present in egg whites and whey, the liquid portion of milk. It is produced by the great majority of bacteria, fungus, and green plants and is an essential part of animal diets. The color of whey and egg white comes from riboflavin, which was first synthesized in 1935 and isolated in pure form in 1933. Blisters on the skin, smoothness of the tongue, and mouth ulcers are all symptoms of riboflavin deficiency. Thiamine deficiency is the root cause of beriberi. Heart dysfunction is one of the most prevalent clinical traits.
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the nurse has instructed the client to use a peak flow meter. the nurse evaluates client learning as satisfactory when the client
The nurse has instructed the client to use a peak flow meter and she evaluates client learning as satisfactory when the client exhales hard and fast with a single blow.
To use a peak flow meter, the client stands. Then the client takes a deep breath and exhales onerous and quick with one blow. The client repeats this double and records a "personal best" in an respiratory disease diary.
A peak flow meter is a hand-held device that measures however well air moves out of your lungs. throughout a respiratory disease episode, your airways typically slim. A peak flow meter will live this narrowing hours, even days, before you've got any respiratory disease symptoms.
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the experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (lpn/vn) under the supervision of the registered nurse (rn) team leader is providing nursing care for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus. which tasks are appropriate for the rn to delegate to the lpn/vn? select all that apply.
Auscultate breath sounds , Administer prescribed aerosolized medications tasks are the appropriate for the RN to delegate to the LPN/VN.
Complete in-depth admission assessment is other task added to it.
Infections of the respiratory tract are frequently brought on by respiratory syncytial virus, also known as human respiratory syncytial virus and human orthopneumovirus. It is a single-stranded, negative-sense RNA virus.
RSV, also known as the respiratory syncytial virus, is a common respiratory virus that often causes mild, cold-like symptoms. RSV can be serious, especially for young children and elderly individuals, although the majority of people recover within a week or two. Of children under the age of one, RSV is the most frequent cause of bronchiolitis (inflammation of the tiny airways in the lung) and pneumonia (lung infection) in the United States.
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which two antibiotics should not be prescribed with oral contraceptives, as they can abolish the contraceptive's effects?
You do not normally need to use additional contraception if you're taking antibiotics other than rifampicin and rifabutin.
Rifampin, rifapentine, and rifabutin are examples of rifamycins. Rifampin is the most frequently used of them, either as the first line of treatment (in conjunction with other medications) for the management of mycobacterial diseases, including tuberculosis, or for the treatment of specific invasive staphylococcal infections (as part of combination therapy).
There has been concern that the fact that rifabutin has a longer half-life than rifampin—35 hours as opposed to 3.5 hours—may be the cause of acquired rifamycin resistance in HIV-positive patients receiving intermittent treatment for tuberculosis with a regimen comprising rifabutin.
Conclusion Rifabutin is an effective substitute for rifampicin in the treatment of active TB/HIV co-infection within our study population, and it does not seem to result in rifamycin resistance following successful therapy.
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milk, cheese, meat, and bread are all rich sources of multiple choice question. calcium. vitamin d. phosphorus. fluoride.
Milk, cheese, meat, and bread are all rich sources of Phosphorus
Phosphorus is a mineral that evidently takes place in lots of foods and is likewise available as a supplement. It plays a couple of roles within the body. it's far a key detail of bones, teeth, and cell membranes. It helps to spark off enzymes, and continues blood pH within an everyday range. Phosphorus regulates the ordinary characteristic of nerves and muscle groups, consisting of the coronary heart, and is likewise a building block of our genes, as it makes up DNA, RNA, and ATP, the body’s essential supply of energy.
The kidneys, bones, and intestines tightly regulate phosphorus stages in the body. If the weight-reduction plan lacks phosphorus or too little phosphorus is absorbed, numerous things show up to hold its shops and try to maintain regular tiers: the kidneys excrete much less phosphorus in urine, the digestive tract will become extra efficient at absorbing phosphorus, and the bones launch its stores of phosphorus into the blood. The other movements arise in these organs if the body has adequate phosphorus stores.
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a nurse is reviewing the dietary intake of a client prescribed a potassium-sparing diuretic. the client tells the nurse that they had a banana, yogurt, and bran cereal for breakfast and a turkey sandwich with a glass of milk for lunch. the intake of which food would be a cause for concern?
From the mentioned food banana would be a cause for concern.
Drugs that induce diuresis without inducing potassium loss in the urine are referred to as potassium-sparing diuretics. They are frequently used as an adjuvant in the treatment of cirrhosis, congestive heart failure, and hypertension.
The main hyperaldosteronism can also be treated with the steroidal aldosterone antagonists. A steroidal aldosterone antagonist called spirolactone is also used to treat female hirsutism and acne brought on by PCOS or other factors.
By themselves, these class of medications may cause hyperkalemia, or potassium levels that are higher than normal, increasing the risk of potentially catastrophic arrhythmias. Up to 50% of people on a particular nephrotoxin, triamterene, may develop crystalluria or urine casts.
Spironolactone binds non-selective estrogen and progesterone receptors, which can result in gynecomastia, irregular menstruation, impotence, and decreased libido.
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the means of prescribing a very small rate of enteral nutrition with the goal to minimize villous atrophy is known as:
Prescribing a very small rate of enteral nutrition with the goal to minimize villous atrophy is known as Trophic nutrition
What is Trophic nutrition?Trophic feeding is widely understood to be a little amount of balanced enteral nutrition that is insufficient to meet the patient's dietary demands but results in some favorable gastrointestinal or systemic benefits. Most neonatal nurseries consider feeding volumes of 10–12 cc/Kg/d or 1 cc/h to be trophic.Trophic feeds are characterized as having low breast feed quantities (10–15 mL/kg/day). Start trophic feeding ideally 24 hours after birth. Extremely preterm, extremely low birth weight (ELBW), or growth-restricted infants should be handled with caution. Consider formula milk if by 24-48 hours no mother or donor milk is present.Trophic feeding is the practice of administering little amounts of enteral meals to a preterm newborn in order to promote the development of their undeveloped gastrointestinal tract. This essay examines the randomized controlled trials.
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the hba1c result for a diabetic patient is 6.0%. what conclusion can be made regarding this patient's carbohydrate management?
The HbA1c result for a diabetic patient is 6.0%. This indicates the person is controlling his carbohydrate diet. The diabetic person's HbA1c is generally above 6.5%.
What is diabetes?In diabetes mellitus, the pancreas either cannot produce insulin or the insulin that is produced does not work on cell receptors. Insulin is secreted by beta cells in the islets of Langerhans. It regulates the sugar level in the blood. When insulin binds to the receptors of cells, cells store the glucose in the blood as glycogen. HbA1c is the blood glucose test of 2-3 months. The level of this diabetic person is 6.0% . He is on a low-carbohydrate diet. Normally when HbA1c levels goes above 6.5%, the person considered as diabetic.
Hence, the diabetic person is managing his carbohydrates.
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which role would the nurse associate with selection of interventions during the planning step of the nursing process?
Creating a customized nursing care plan role would the nurse associate with a selection of interventions during the planning step of the nursing process.
Care plans allow nurses to give patients their complete and undivided attention, enabling them to deliver patient-centered, evidence-based care. Care plans help hospitals satisfy documentation requirements for insurers and governing bodies, ensure continuity of care between nurse shifts, and foster inter-professional collaboration by ensuring that all personnel are on the same page.
The likelihood is that your nurses are too busy to make care plans for each patient, even if your hospital mandates them. They might only offer care for a short while before being overburdened with useless paperwork, depending on the unit.
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which actions would the nurse perform when analyzing abg values for a patient suspected of having an acid base imbalance
The actions that the nurse should perform when analyzing ABG values for a patient suspected of having an acid-base imbalance include examining O₂ status, evaluating the pH, assessing the PaCO₂ and HCO₃, monitoring the potassium and determining compensation (all options are correct).
What is acid-base imbalance?The medical term acid-base imbalance makes reference to all problems in the homeostatic function of the body system due to the loss of the balanced pH condition, which should be around 7.3 in normal situations.
Acid-base balance is not controlled in diseases such as metabolic acidosis which may be due to the body is not controlling normal gas levels such as oxygen and carbon dioxide, which are well known to affect the pH in the body
Therefore, with this data, we can see that acid-base balance is associated with homeostatic function and its value should be controlled to maintain a normal equilibrium in the body (i.e. pH value must be around 7.3).
Complete question:
Which actions would the nurse perform when analyzing ABG values for a patient suspected of having an acid-base imbalance? Select all that apply.
A. Examining O2 status
B. Evaluating the pH
C. Assessing the PaCO2 and HCO3
D. Monitoring the potassium
E. Determining compensation
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what is a potential contamination source that could result in foodborne illness at an outdoor, temporary serving location?
Dirt floor in the food prep area can be a potential contamination source that could result in foodborne illness at an outdoor, temporary serving location.
What is food borne illness?Consuming foods or beverages that have been tainted with harmful bacteria can lead to foodborne illness. Since foods can become contaminated with a wide variety of disease-causing microorganisms or pathogens, there are also a wide variety of food-borne illnesses to choose from.
The majority of diseases that are spread by food are infections that can be caused by a wide variety of bacteria, viruses, and parasites. Other illnesses are poisonings that are brought on by dangerous toxins or substances that have been found in tainted food.
It is important to know that many foodborne infections can also be acquired by recreational or drinking water, through contact with animals or the environment in which they live, or through the transmission from person to person.
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a client has undergone abdominal surgery for the treatment of cancer and is recovering with a hemovac drain in place. when caring for this device, which interventions should the nurse perform? select all that apply.
The interventions should the nurse perform is :
If analgesia is required, provide it before changing the dressing over the drain.After draining the drain, wipe the exit with a gauze pad.After the drain has been emptied and recompressed, secure it to the client's gown with a safety pin.How long does abdominal tumor surgery take?If the surgeon needs to create a significant incision (a cut) to remove your stomach, it can take 4 to 5 hours. Alternately, a procedure known as laparoscopic gastrectomy involves multiple tiny incisions. Although it takes less time, it isn't as popular.You will first get anaesthetic so you may doze off throughout the surgery. A surgeon will make an incision in your abdomen after you are unconscious. Your stomach may be partially or completely removed with this procedure, along with some adjacent tissue like your lymph nodes. To ensure that the cancer hasn't spread, the nodes will be tested. Your doctor needs to get rid of as much cancer as they can.The surgeon will choose the best method for reconstructing your digestive tract based on the type of procedure you are having.Learn more about Abdominal tumor surgery refer :
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a nurse is caring for a client scheduled to receive external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larnyx. during a pretreatment exam the nurse explains to the client that the most likely side effect would be
If a nurse is caring for a client scheduled to receive external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx, then during a pretreatment exam the nurse explains to the client that the most likely side effect would be dysphagia.
What is dysphagia's medical condition?Dysphagia medical condition refers to a health problem in the larynx which involves swallowing difficulty, which may be caused by injury in the muscles and or nerves required during the process of swallowing.
In consequence, a type of cancer that may produce abnormalities in the larynx may be associated with this health problem, ie. involved in dysphagia.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that dysphagia medical condition is a problem associated with the larynx that may be caused by cancer and or other health problems and therefore it is required to make a delicate observation of this organ.
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which additional assessments should be conducted on an 18 year old woman who was confused when found on the bathroom floor and her urinalysis tested for flunitrazepam? uizlet
Sleep-inducing medication flunitrazepam should be reviewed by a psychiatrist if the dosage wasn't high.
A sleep medicine called flunitrazepam works by slowing down the neural system, which induces sleep shortly after ingestion. Only severe, incapacitating sleeplessness or situations when the patient is in extreme discomfort are treated with it as a short-term treatment.
With this information, we may assume that flunitrazepam had a sleep-inducing effect on the patient.
Outside of the US, flunitrazepam is also sold under several brand names and as generic medications. Rohypnol has sedative-hypnotic, anti-anxiety, and muscle-relaxing properties like other benzodiazepines.
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he student nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (fhr) and has determined that the fetal back is located toward the client's left side, the small parts toward the right side, and there is a vertex (occiput) presentation. the nurse should initially begin auscultation of the fetal heart rate in the mother's:
The nurse should initially begin auscultation of the fetal heart rate in the mother's: left lower quadrant.
What is a normal fetal rate?
Normal foetal heart rates fall between 110 and 160 beats per minute. Possible ranges include 5 to 25 beats per minute. The foetus' heart rate may change as it responds to events inside your uterus. If your baby's foetal heart rate is erratic, he or she could not be getting enough oxygen or might be having other problems.
What is left lower quadrant?
Your abdomen's left lower quadrant (LLQ) is a region (abdomen). Divide the region between your bottom ribs and your pubic hair into four parts as you look down at your abdomen. Your LLQ is the quarter on your left side just below your umbilicus.
Hence left lower quadrant is a correct answer.
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a client with dementia who prefers to stay in his room has been brought to the dayroom. after 10 minutes, the client becomes agitated and retreats to his room again. the nurse decides to assess the conditions in the dayroom. which is most likely the occurrence that is disturbing to this client?
The nurse decides to assess the conditions in the dayroom as a result of a patient with dementia being agitated therefore the most likely occurrence that is disturbing to this client is a relaxation tape is playing in one corner of the room, and a television airing a special on crime is playing in the opposite corner and is denoted as option B.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who takes care of the sick and ensures that adequate recovery is achieved so as to reduce the risk of complications.
Two contrasting conditions such as a relaxation tape being played in one corner of the room, and a television airing a special on crime being played in the opposite corner will affect someone who has issues remembering or difficulties in thinking.
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The options are;
a) There are three staff members and one health care provider (HCP) in the nurse's station working on charting.
b) A relaxation tape is playing in one corner of the room, and a television airing a special on crime is playing in the opposite corner.
c) A housekeeping staff member is washing off the countertops in the kitchen, which is on the far side of the dayroom.
d) There is only one other client in the dayroom; the rest are in a group session in another room.
a patient who lives with a family member who has tuberculosis (tb) is concerned about contracting tb. based on the recommendation by the centers for disease control and prevention (cdc), which prophylactic regimen would the nurse anticipate for this patient?
Isoniazid Prophylaxis Therapy (IPT) is the recommendation of prophylactic regimen by the centers for disease control and prevention (CDC) concerning about contracting TB.
The counseled period of Isoniazid Prophylaxis Therapy (IPT) varies from half dozen to twelve months of continuous medical aid (9). Twelve months of medical aid is suggested for persons with HIV infection and persons with stable abnormal chest radiographs per past T.B..
Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacteria referred to as tubercle bacillus. The bacterium typically attack the lungs, however TB bacterium will attack any a part of the body like the urinary organ, spine, and brain. Not everybody infected with TB bacterium becomes sick.
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Self-diagnosis and treatment with nonprescription medication for the common cold is an example of?
Self-diagnosis and treatment with nonprescription medication for the common cold are examples of secondary prevention of communicable diseases.
The act of diagnosing or identifying one's own medical conditions is known as self-diagnosis. Medical dictionaries, books, online resources, personal experiences, or recognizing the symptoms or medical signs of a condition a family member had in the past may be helpful.
Self-diagnosis or medical diagnosis and treatment of communicable diseases with over-the-counter or physician-prescribed medications are examples of secondary preventive measures for individuals.
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(Complete question)
Self-diagnosis and treatment with nonprescription medication for the common cold is an example of:
a. primary prevention of noncommunicable diseases.
b. primary prevention of communicable diseases.
c. secondary prevention of noncommunicable diseases.
d. secondary prevention of communicable diseases.
a 64-year-old patient presents to a clinic with a 1 week history of lower back and left leg pain. the pain is worsened by sitting and limits the patient's activities. pe reveals paravertrebal muscle spasm, diminished sensation along the medial aspect of the left foot and a diminished left patellar reflex. what is the most likely diagnosis?
Muscle spasms can feel like a stitch in the side or be agonizingly painful. You may see a twitch under your skin and it may feel hard to the touch. Spasms are involuntary.
What is paravertebral muscle spam ?
When the muscles in the lower back tighten or tense up, it is known as a back spasm.
The severity of the illness ranges from sporadic spasms that cause minor discomfort or pain to chronic spams that cause excruciating back pain to the point where the patient is rendered immobile
how are they treated ?
1.Stretch the affected area.
2.Apply heat or ice. Put an ice pack together or apply a heating pad, or take a nice warm bath.
3.Massage the affected area with your hands or a massage roller. Some experts believe that a daily vitamin B12 complex can help.
The muscles contract and it takes treatment and time for them to relax. They are very common, especially in older adults and athletes.
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the nurse is admitting a client with traumatic injuries who also has class iii obesity. when planning this client's care, the nurse should address the client's heightened risk of what nursing diagnoses related to obesity? select all that apply.
Impaired skin integrity & impaired gas exchange are nursing diagnoses for obesity.
Due to modifications in the structure and operation of the respiratory system, obesity increases the risk of inadequate breathing and subsequent poor gas exchange.
Additionally, due to the potential for pressure injuries, obesity is linked to hazards to the integrity of the skin. Obesity does not contribute to the risk of bowel incontinence or a fluid volume deficit. Neglect is likely to be bidirectional rather than unilateral if it exists.
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