The most probable question which the nurse would ask to the patient suffering from hyperactive thyroid is about the use of radiopaque dye in X-rays, which means option D is correct.
Hyper active thyroid or hyperthyroidism is the condition in which excess of thyroxine hormone is produced by the thyroid gland due to which the rate of metabolism increases abruptly and body suffers from low weight, weakness etc. In such patients, PBI (Protein bound iodine) test are preferred in which the main aim is to detect the thyroid function by measuring the concentration of iodine bound to proteins circulating in the bloodstream. Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis and excess of iodine in the body causes the situation of hyperthyroidism to occur.
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A client suspected of having a hyperactive thyroid is scheduled for protein-bound iodine, T3, and T4 laboratory tests. What should the nurse ask the client to ensure accuracy of the test?
A. Allergies to seafood
B. Consumed more protein than usual
C. Had anything to drink before the test
D. Had recent x-rays using radiopaque dye
The client is prepared, and procedural sedation anesthesia is established with morphine and midazolam. The client has ptosis and speaks in a slurred voice. Question 9 of 28 Which action should the nurse take
The first steps of the nurse when she sees a patient in the ptosis condition is that she must continue to monitor the patient regularly.
The condition of ptosis or droopy eyelids and slurred speech are the signs of the desired level of sedation for a client during the procedure and when the person is not in senses to govern his actions, it is the duty of the nurse to look after all the essential functions.
Anesthesia is a kind of medicine made from morphine and opioids which help in preventing pain in the body before surgery. Midazolam is also used as sedative in limited dosages.
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The "chain of infection," i.e., the transmission of infectious agents in healthcare settings requires a ________________.
A. Source or reservoir of infectious agents
B. Susceptible host with a portal of entry receptive of the agent
C. Mode of transmission for the agent
D. All of the above
The chain of infection in a healthcare setting requires: (A) Source or reservoir of infectious agents; (B) Susceptible host with a portal of entry receptive of the agent; and (C) Mode of transmission for the agent.
Infection is the invasion and the multiplication of small microorganisms inside the living body. These microorganisms may release toxic substances into the host body and they may interfere with the normal functioning of the host resulting in diseases,
Infectious agents are the small microorganisms that have the potential to enter the host body and cause diseases. The example of infectious agents is bacteria, virus, parasite, fungi, etc.
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Loss of staff members because of injuries from a lack of SPHM practices increases ________ for the healthcare system
Loss of staff members because of injuries from a lack of SPHM practices increases cost for the healthcare system.
Loss of staff members because of injuries from a lack of Standard Precautions and Hazardous Materials (SPHM) practices increases costs for the healthcare system. When staff members are injured, they may require medical care and may be unable to work for a period of time, which can lead to increased costs for the healthcare system in terms of worker's compensation, lost productivity, and the need to hire temporary or replacement staff.
If an employee/student/patient has medical testing at an HCA facility, the appropriate way for him or her to access the test results is:
The appropriate way to access the test results when an employee/student/patient undergoes medical testing at an HCA facility is: to complete the release form and receive a copy of results.
Medical testing is the procedure performed to detect, diagnose or monitor any disease. The medical testing usually involves the testing of fluid sample of the body like blood, urine, serum, etc. Body imaging tests like X-rays are also a type of medical testing.
HCA refers to the Hospital Corporation of America. It is an organization that acts as the operator of the health care facilities for the citizens of America. It was established in the year 1968.
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After providing AM care to a client receiving mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube, the nurse notes a sudden decrease in the pulse oximetry reading. How will the nurse assess endotracheal tube placement
It is not a way to verify endotracheal tube placement to obtain arterial blood gases.
Endotracheal Tube (ETT) is an airway catheter that is inserted into the trachea through the mouth or nose in endotracheal intubation. The ETT is inserted into the patient's trachea to ensure that the trachea is not blocked as the respiratory tract and breathable air can enter the lungs. The ETT is the most reliable tool in ensuring the airway remains clear.
The main modality for verifying ETT placement is a combination of:
chest rises,breath sounds, andAssess tidal CO2 via capnography.This question is multiple choice:
a. End-tidal carbon dioxide levelb. Auscultate lung soundsc. Obtain arterial blood gasd. Monitor for symmetrical chest movementThe correct answer is C.
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Mrs. Berger is a 39-year-old woman who presents with a complaint of epigastric abdominal pain. You have completed the inspection of the abdomen. What is your next step in the assessment process
Auscultation is your next step in the assessment process.
Which technique should be applied first while inspecting the abdomen?
Moving methodically across the nine regions of the abdomen, the examiner should start with a superficial or mild palpation from the location that is farthest from the source of most pain. You can choose any beginning point if there is no suffering.
What area of the hand should the examiner utilize to palpate a cutaneous tumor that has been found to be superficial?
For locating and assessing masses, deep palpation using the flexor surface of the fingers and a small angle of the hand is very helpful. This can be done with one hand or two hands.
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an effective medical administrative assistant should don what regard to communicating with patients by phone
An effective medical administrative assistant should have patient's name, age, and gender with regard to communicating with patients by phone.
Who is a medical administrative assistant?A medical administrative assistant is a trained individual who has been equipped with the knowledge of performing administrative duties in a hospital or clinic.
The responsibilities of a medical administrative assistant include the following:
They interview patients for case histories prior to appointments.They update and maintain patients' health records.They assist patients with initial paperwork.They schedule and coordinate appointments.They process insurance claims in compliance with law requirements.They use medical software to support all transactions.For the medical administrative assistant to be able to obtain viable information from the patient, they need to have the patient's vital information such as patient's name, age, and gender.
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What is an overriding concern for patients with diabetes who need to acquire a blood glucose monitor
The cost of test strips and disposable supplies is a major worry for diabetic individuals who need to purchase a blood glucose monitor.
Diabetes is a chronic condition that arises when the pancreas does not create enough or when the body does not utilise the insulin that is produced adequately. Insulin is the hormone that controls blood glucose levels. The most essential thing you can do to control type 1 or type 2 diabetes is to monitor your blood sugar levels on a regular basis. You'll be able to observe what causes your numbers to rise or fall, such as eating various meals, taking your medication, or exercising.
With this information, one can collaborate with ones healthcare team to determine the optimal diabetes treatment strategy for you. Diabetes consequences such as heart attack, stroke, renal disease, blindness, or amputation can be delayed or avoided by making these choices.
Your doctor will advise you on when and how frequently users should monitor one's blood sugar levels. Checking the blood sugars is an important component of living with diabetes if you use certain medications, such as insulin or sulphonylureas. It can assist you in working out when you have to take additional medication, eat something, or get out and move about more.
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A client with hypertension and type 2 diabetes has recently started taking chlorthalidone. Which report by the client is most concerning to the nurse?
High blood pressure becomes substantially hazardous when diabetes is present. Diabetes is a long-term condition in which your body is unable to produce or use insulin properly. The body's numerous cells may use blood sugar as fuel, and insulin helps move it from blood vessels into those cells. Therefore, the nurse should pay more attention to blood pressure reports.
Chlorthalidone is used either alone or in conjunction with other drugs to treat high blood pressure (hypertension). High blood pressure makes the heart and arteries work harder.The heart and arteries might not work correctly if it persists for a long time. The kidneys, heart, and brain's blood vessels may be harmed as a result, which may cause renal failure, heart failure, or a stroke. High blood pressure may also raise the risk of heart attacks. Controlling blood pressure may reduce the likelihood that these issues will arise.Chlorthalidone is also used to treat severe liver disease (cirrhosis), kidney disease, congestive heart failure, and medications for hormone or steroid therapy that cause fluid retention (edema).
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Which established the Medicare clinical laboratory fee schedule, which is a data set based on local fee schedules for outpatient clinical diagnostic laboratory services
The Balanced Budget Act of 1997 established the Medicare Clinical Laboratory Fee Schedule (CLFS), which is a data set based on local fee schedules for outpatient clinical diagnostic laboratory services.
This fee schedule was implemented as a way to control the cost of laboratory services under the Medicare program and to ensure that payments to laboratories are based on fair and reasonable charges. The CLFS sets payment rates for laboratory services based on the median charges for laboratory tests in a given geographic area, taking into account the cost of providing the service, the volume of tests performed, and other factors. This fee schedule applies to clinical laboratory services furnished to beneficiaries in all settings, including physicians' offices, hospitals, and independent laboratories.
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during the vaginal examination of a client in labor, the nurse idetnfies the presenting part as the scapula. Which fetal presentation does the nurse recognize
the nurse idetnfies the presenting part as the scapula. Which fetal presentation does the nurse recognize Shoulder
The bone that attaches the clavicle to the humerus is known as the scapula, or shoulder blade. The shoulder girdle's posterior portion is formed by the scapula. This bone is flat, triangular, and strong. Several groups of muscles can attach to the scapula.The scapula is what kind of a bone?
A flat, triangular-shaped bone is the scapula (colloquially as the "shoulder blade"). It is situated on the dorsal side of the rib cage in the upper thoracic area. It forms the shoulder joint by joining with the humerus at the glenohumeral joint and the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint.
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The term medically managed means that even though a diagnosis may not receive direct treatment during an encounter:
It must be taken into account while deciding how to treat other conditions.
Even while a diagnosis might not get immediate treatment during an encounter, it must be taken into consideration when deciding how to treat other diseases, according to the definition of the word "medically managed."The V codes of the ICD-9, which list the causes of medical encounters other than illness or injury, contain the codes for preventative treatments. For a typical general medical examination carried out at a healthcare facility, V70. 0 should be utilised, and V70.Codes from ICD-9-CM are ready to deal for encounters with conditions other than illness or injury. Factors Affecting Health Status & Contact with Health Services: Supplementary Classification (V01.
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What is an appropriate stretching exercise that addresses a low back arch in an athlete who is training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance
Active kneeling hip flexor stretch is appropriate for addressing a low back arch in an athlete who is training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance.
Hip flexor stretch is the form of exercise that provided various benefits like improved mobility, reduction in pain, improved flexibility and posture. It can be simply called the kneeling exercise where one leg is kneeled down at a time. It can also be done by lying down on the edge of the table.
Strength endurance is the type of muscle strength that requires tension in the muscles for longer durations of time. It is the ability of the body to exert itself but remain active for longer durations of time without suffering any wound or fatigue.
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Places where there is an elevated chance of being the victim of crime are known as: A. Hot targets B. Hot spots C. Suitable targets D. Chronic spots
The places where there is an elevated chance of being the victim of crime are known as hotspots, which means option B is the right answer.
Crime refers to the intentional act of doing something which is against the law. Major criminals are born between the age of 15 to 20 years because of the hormonal rush which are undergoing as a result of natural process and the unlawful environment to which they are exposed. Hot spot analysis helps police identify high-crime areas, types of crime being committed, and the best way to respond. Hotspots of crime are the areas where there are high chances of multiple criminal acts. It is necessary to identify them so as to control such activities and protect the citizens.
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The staff development coordinator plans to teach use of physical management techniques for use when patients become assaultive. Which topic should the coordinator emphasize
When patients become aggressive, the staff development coordinator should emphasize practice and teamwork to improve management techniques.
The use of manual intervention to control and limit undesirable behavior is known as physical management. In a crisis, using sound techniques can help to reduce injury and liability. Physical management training has numerous advantages for your company. If done correctly, it can produce competent and confident staff capable of handling crisis situations, as well as reduce staff fear by relieving anxiety caused by confusion and indecision. Physical management is an important tool for creating and maintaining a safe work environment.
In general, physical management is part of a use-of-force continuum. According to the organizations involved, these can range from verbal or nonverbal techniques to, eventually, lethal force.
For example, most security organizations consider the first technique to be officer presence, with lethal force as a last resort.
The staff development coordinator plans to teach use of physical management techniques for use when patients become assaultive. Which topic should the coordinator emphasize?
a. Practice and teamwork
b. Spontaneity and surprise
c. Caution and superior size
d. Diversion and physical outlets
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A client who sustained serious burns now has a stress ulcer. Which clinical indicators of shock should the nurse immediately report to the primary healthcare provider
Serious burn injuries can result in a state of shock if the burn causes damage to the blood vessels. Symtpoms like weakness, Tachycardia, cold extremities, and diaphoresis should be brought to the attention of primary healthcare providers.
For a variety of causes, burn injury patients may develop psychological suffering. Just a few of the problems with burn injuries are the pain, the prognosis, and the drawn-out recovery times. The following are some additional reasons for similar emotional or mental distress: concerns about scars and physical appearance alterations. Skin tissue damage by hot (scald, flash, flame, contact), cold, electrical, chemical, radiation, sunlight, or other sources is known as a burn injury. One of the leading causes of morbidity and mortality worldwide is burns. They may cause severe disfigurement, physical damage, loss of employment, psychological issues, and a substantial financial burden.
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What type of water contaminants presents the greatest health threat to most residents of developing countries
Which health literacy factors will the nurse consider when developing a teaching plan for a 69-year-old homeless man with a grade school education diagnosed with prostate cancer
Homelessness, elementary school education, and patient age are the literacy factors related to health that the nurse should consider when designing a teaching plan who is suffering from prostate cancer.
Since the old man is homeless, he will have a difficult time understanding complex topics, so the nurse should try to simplify the teachings to make them easily understandable. The patient is also 69 years old and older people are less self capable and so the teaching plan should be such that there is less pressure on the patient for self-care. Also, if the patient is well educated or has recieved an elementary school education, then there will be a better understanding of prostate cancer and its effect and the patient will be able to manage his symtpoms more effectively. The nurse should provide maximum details in the simplest way possible for an effective teaching plan.
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The nurse is obtaining vital signs on a 3-month-old infant. What is the most reliable site for assessing the pulse rate in this infant?
The most reliable site for obtaining pulse rate on a 3-month-old infant is: the brachial artery.
The pulse rate is defined as the number of time the heart beats in a minute. The beating of the heart is actually how many time the heart pumps the blood. The normal pulse rate in adults in 60-100 per minute. Whereas in infants, it can be up to 100-150 beats per minute.
Brachial artery is one of the major blood vessels of the upper arm of an individual. It is the further extension of the axillary artery that begins at the lower margin of the teres major muscle. The artery runs up to the crease in front of the elbow.
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A client who is experiencing an acute attack of gouty arthritis is prescribed Colchicine USP 1 mg PO daily. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client
The nurse should provide the information about the side effects of Colchicine USP. Only when the medication is required to stop a current episode do patients take substantial doses of colchicine over a short period of time (a few hours). Don't use colchicine much because it may cause weakness and many diseases.
Anti-inflammatory painkillers are the most frequently recommended treatment for a gout attack, although not everyone can take these medications. Gout attacks can be treated alternatively with colchicine for patients who cannot take anti-inflammatory medicines. Colchicine reduces the quantity of white blood cells that enter inflammatory areas, which is how it works. Colchicine lessens gout attack swelling and discomfort while assisting in breaking the cycle of inflammation.Gout produces flare-ups of excruciating joint inflammation in one or more joints. It is brought on by an accumulation of uric acid, a naturally occurring substance in your blood (urate). The amount of uric acid in your blood may occasionally increase to the point where microscopic grit-like crystals form.
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A nursing instructor is preparing a class discussion on the topic of self-determinism. Which of the following would the instructor expect to include? Select all that apply.
A)
Personal autonomy as a key value
B)
Choices based on pleasing others
C)
Activities reflect personal goals
D)
Right to refuse treatment
E)
Lack of empowerment
A nursing instructor is getting ready for a class discussion on self-determinism. The instructor would expect the following to be included:
A) Personal autonomy as a key valueC) Activities reflect personal goalsD) Right to refuse treatmentWhat exactly does it mean to practice nursing based on one's own self-determination?Within the realm of modern clinical ethics, the concept of self-determination is an important guiding principle. To oversimplify a little bit, it says that the patient should ultimately be the one to decide whether or not they will accept the prescribed therapy or care for their condition. The idea of self-determination is considered a cornerstone of clinical ethics by the majority of scholars. It is formalized in legislative frameworks and recommendations across the globe, and it has had a considerable influence on our knowledge of how to approach diverse medicoethical concerns.
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Which airway device is most appropriate as an initial intervention for a semiconscious patient who requires ventilation with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) resuscitator
An NPA may be used on a conscious, semiconscious or unconscious patient. initial intervention for a semiconscious patient who requires ventilation with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) resuscitator
A bag valve mask (BVM), often referred to as an Ambu bag, a manual resuscitator, or a "self-inflating bag," is a portable device that is frequently used to deliver positive pressure ventilation to patients who are not breathing or are not breathing enough. The device is a necessary component of resuscitation kits for trained personnel working outside of hospitals (such as ambulance crews), and it is often used in hospitals as a piece of standard equipment in emergency rooms and other critical care settings. The American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation and Emergency Cardiac Care urge that "all healthcare personnel should be conversant with the use of the BVM," highlighting the prevalence and use of BVM in the United States.
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which organization has been the national leader in promoting electronic health records to decrease medical errors nadi mprove patient safety
Institute of Medicine is the organization has been the national leader in promoting electronic health records to decrease medical errors and improve patient safety.
The Institute of Medicine (IOM) study "To Err is Human" issued in 1999 urged for a national initiative to make health care safer. Even though the report has indeed been generally credited with sparking initiatives to research and improve health-care safety, there has been no independent evaluation of its impact.
Following the release of the IOM report, the rate of patient safety publications jumped from 59 to 164 articles per 100,000 MEDLINE publications. All sorts of patient safety papers saw an increase in publication rates.
After the publication of the study, original research publications climbed from an average of 24 to 41 articles per 100,000 MEDLINE publications, while patient safety research grants jumped from 5 to 141 awards per 100,000 federally supported biomedical research awards. Prior to the IOM report, the most common topic of patient safety publications was malpractice, but organizational culture was the most common subject after the study's publication.
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Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct?
a. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active.
b. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
c. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past.
d. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain.
Statement B is correct regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct: PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
A female reproductive system infection is known as pelvic inflammatory disease (the cervix, uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries). Women who are sexually active are typically affected by pelvic inflammatory disease. Women who have experienced pelvic inflammatory illness are 6–10 times more likely to experience a tubal pregnancy (a form of ectopic pregnancy). The fetus develops in a fallopian tube rather than the uterus during a tubal pregnancy. The woman's life is in danger during this type of pregnancy, and the fetus is not viable. Therefore, option B is he appropriate answer.
Women typically experience lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and erratic vaginal bleeding. The diagnosis is made using the patient's symptoms, examination of vaginal and cervix secretions, and occasionally ultrasonography. Using condoms and restricting sexual activity to one partner lower the risk of contracting an infection.
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The nurse inserts a nasogastric tube into the right nares of a patient. When testing the tube aspirate for pH to confirm placement, what does the nurse anticipate the pH will be if placement is in the lungs
The anticipated pH if the placement of the nasogastric tube is in the lungs is 6, which means option D is the right answer.
The pH is the concentration of hydrogen ions inside a medium. A pH of 6 indicates that the medium is lightly acidic. When the tube is inserted into the lungs, the pH is acidic because of the presence of carbon dioxide which is acidic in nature as it form carbonic acid inside. Auscultation is used at the bedside to check for appropriate placement of a nasogastric tube. Chest radiography is the gold standard for confirming appropriate placement. It is used for feeding purposes to the people who cannot eat voluntarily, or breath properly.
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The nurse inserts a nasogastric tube into the right nares of a patient. When testing the tube aspirate for pH to confirm placement, what does the nurse anticipate the pH will be if placement is in the lungs?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
As calorie intake increases (eat more), then metabolism __________. And as calorie intake decreases (eat less), then metabolism __________.
As calorie intake increases (eat more), then metabolism increases. And as calorie intake decreases (eat less), then metabolism decreases.
The quantity of calories ingested in the diet in relation to energy expenditure influences resting metabolic rate. Excessive energy consumption tends to raise resting metabolic rate, whereas fasting and extremely low calorie restriction appear to lower resting metabolic rate.
Calories ingested at night have no effect on your metabolism and do not count much more calories consumed throughout the day. Day illustrates that gaining and losing weight is a simple arithmetic problem. "Too many calories consumed vs insufficient calories burned on any given workday, regardless of time, will result in weight gain."
Regular exercise builds muscle growth and educates the body to burn kilojoules more quickly even while at rest. Dietary deficiencies, such as a lack of iodine, impair thyroid function and delay metabolism.
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why is it important to list and prioritize your short-, mid-, and long-term goals ahead of time?
It is important to set short-term goals so that you don't try to overwork yourself by doing to much stuff at once. It is important to set long-term goals so that you can have a plan for your life, so that you aren't wandering around aimlessly
Why is it important to set long time goals?Your daydreams can become tangible aspirations that you can actively pursue by setting long-term goals. They can not only assist you in completing challenging tasks, but they can also be a helpful tool in helping you organize your workload and determine what success means to you. Setting short-term goals is essential to avoid trying to take on too much at once and overworking yourself. Setting long-term objectives will help you organize your life and prevent you from stumbling around aimlessly. Short-term objectives concentrate on the here-and-now. They focus on making the most of what you have or will have soon. Long-term objectives relate to the kind of person you hope to become.Setting short-term goals is essential to avoid trying to take on too much at once and overworking yourself. Setting long-term objectives will help you organize your life and prevent you from stumbling around aimlessly.To learn more about set long time goals refer to:
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this form of treatment uses sound energy from high-frequency sound waves to treat pain, relax muscles spasms. stimulate circulation, and break up calcium deposits and scar tissue.
Ultrasound therapy is the form of treatment uses sound energy from high-frequency sound waves to treat pain, relax muscles spasms. stimulate circulation, and break up calcium deposits and scar tissue.
Ultrasound therapy uses high- frequency sound waves to produce heat that can reduce pain. It may be used to treat conditions similar as musculoskeletal injuries, arthritis and fibromyalgia. Ultrasound therapy is a noninvasive treatment in which sound swells are used to access soft apkins, adding blood inflow. This can help relieve pain, ameliorate rotation, and promote towel mending.
Ultrasound therapy can be used as frequently as necessary, there are no limits. We generally use it for five twinkles at a time during treatment. Whether we use it or not will depend on the customer's injuries.
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The nurse manager of an ICU wants to implement the revised policy and procedure on central line catheter care. What would be the most effective method of getting the staff nurses to incorporate a new evidence-based practice into their care
The most effective method of getting staff nurses to incorporate a new evidence-based practice into their care would be through education and training.
Education and training are key to the successful implementation of a new evidence-based practice. The nurse manager should start by providing the staff nurses with information about the revised policy and procedure on central line catheter care, including the evidence that supports it and how it differs from current practice. The manager should also provide opportunities for the staff nurses to ask questions and provide feedback, which can help to address any concerns they may have. After this,the manager should provide hands-on training and give the staff nurses the opportunity to practice the new skills in a safe and controlled environment. Finally, the manager should provide ongoing support, including regular check-ins and supervision, to ensure that the staff nurses are able to consistently implement the new practice and provide quality care to patients. In addition, regular feedback and evaluation of the new practice implementation will be helpful to measure the effectiveness of the new practice and make necessary adjustments.
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A primary nurse receives prescriptions for a newly admitted client and has difficulty reading the healthcare provider's writing. Who should the nurse ask for clarification of this prescription
The healthcare provider who wrote the prescription should be called for clarification.
When a patient receiving intravenous vancomycin complains of ringing in both ears, what should the nurse do first?
Patients should discontinue taking vancomycin if they experience balance problems, hearing loss, or tinnitus in their ears. Ototoxicity brought on by vancomycin treatment may occasionally be irreversible.
Which move would the nurse make when preparing to administer a vancomycin infusion in order to prevent red man syndrome?
Red man syndrome can be avoided with the first dosage of vancomycin by giving patients diphenhydramine (1 g over 1 hour) prior to starting the infusion
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