A sweatshirt was on sale for 32% off and cost $40.80 without tax. What was the original price of the sweatshirt?

Answer:

the answer is number 1 !!

• correct me if I'm wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

Two t-shirts that are(31.80) plus a hat(6.20) cost £38.00.

which means that one t-shirt costs £15.90 :)

Answer:

y=1x-2

Step-by-step explanation:

Well this one is already given

When x=0, it's the y intercept

and it gives the slope, so we got it :D

Answer:

y=x-2

Step-by-step explanation:

y-y1=m(x-x1)

y-(-2)=1(x-0)

y+2=1(x)

y+2=x

y=x-2

Answer:

the perimeter of the figure is 27.4 mi

Step-by-step explanation:

rectangle perimeter = 6+6+6 = 18

half circle perimeter = 1/2 2πr = 3.14 × 3 = 9.42

the perimeter of the figure is 18+9.42 = 27.42 --> 27.4 mi

Answer:

66n-31m

Step-by-step explanation:

26n-7m+4(10n-6m)

26n-7m+40n-24m

66n-31m

Answer:

14 nickels is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y=-1/7x

Step-by-step explanation:

m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

m=(-1-1)/(7-(-7))

m=-2/(7+7)

m=-2/14

simplify

m=-1/7

--------------------

y-y1=m(x-x1)

y-1=-1/7(x-(-7))

y-1=-1/7(x+7)

y=-1/7x-7/7+1

y=-1/7x-1+1

y=-1/7x

a) If f(y) is a probability density function, then both f(y) ≥ 0 for all y in its support, and the integral of f(y) over its entire support should be 1. eˣ > 0 for all real x, so the first condition is met. We have

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(y) \, dy = \frac14 \int_0^\infty e^{-\frac y4} \, dy = -\left(\lim_{y\to\infty}e^{-\frac y4} - e^0\right) = \boxed{1}[/tex]

so both conditions are met and f(y) is indeed a PDF.

b) The probability P(Y > 4) is given by the integral,

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^4 f(y) \, dy = \frac14 \int_0^4 e^{-\frac y4} \, dy = -\left(e^{-1} - e^0\right) = \frac{e - 1}{e} \approx \boxed{0.632}[/tex]

c) The mean is given by the integral,

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty y f(y) \, dy = \frac14 \int_0^\infty y e^{-\frac y4} \, dy[/tex]

Integrate by parts, with

[tex]u = y \implies du = dy[/tex]

[tex]dv = e^{-\frac y4} \, dy \implies v = -4 e^{-\frac y4}[/tex]

Then

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty y f(y) \, dy = \frac14 \left(\left(\lim_{y\to\infty}\left(-4y e^{-\frac y4}\right) - \left(-4\cdot0\cdot e^0\right)\right) + 4 \int_0^\infty e^{-\frac y4} \, dy\right)[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle \cdots = \int_0^\infty e^{-\frac y4} \, dy[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle \cdots = -4 \left(\lim_{y\to\infty} e^{-\frac y4} - e^0\right) = \boxed{4}[/tex]

So basically what you have to do is first identify all of the sides or angles that equal eachother then you can see if you did a side side and side in a row etc, like 44 would be SAS because the vertical angles would be inbetween the two sides. 46 would be SSS because after you make the line in the middle for reflexive property you can see that there are three sides in a row. If this didnt help i recommend looking on Khan Academy

Answer:

D. [tex]-5 \frac{5}{6}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Add the values:

[tex]-3\frac{2}{3}+\left(-2\right)\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

[tex]=-\frac{11}{3}+\left(-2\right)\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

[tex]=-\frac{11}{3}-\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

[tex]-5 \frac{5}{6}[/tex]

Answer:

C. - 1 ½

Step-by-step explanation:

-3⅔ - x = - 2⅙

x = -3⅔ + 2⅙

x = -11/3 + 13/6

x = -22/6 + 13/6

x = -9/6

x = -1 ½

150−28w

i think i dont know

Answer:

A. 511; 6

Step-by-step explanation:

The margin of error would be [tex]\pm\frac{517-505}{2}=\pm\frac{12}{2}=\pm 6[/tex]

The sample mean would be [tex]505+6=511[/tex] (or [tex]517-6=511[/tex])

Answer: If angle A is congruent to angle E

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Pluck in the values, we have:

4.5/2.4 - 6 = 20/2 = 10

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Drake has 2 houses and makes $50,000,000

[tex]\dfrac 13 \times \dfrac 15 = \dfrac 1{15}[/tex]

The product of the two fraction numbers whose result is 1/15 will be 1/3 and 1/5.

Algebra is the study of algebraic expressions, while logic is the manipulation of those concepts.

The acronym PEMDAS stands for Parenthesis, Exponent, Multiplication, Division, Addition, and Subtraction. This rule is used to answer the problem correctly and precisely.

The result of the product of the two fraction numbers is given below.

1/15

The factor of the number 15 is given as,

15 = 3 x 5

Then the expression is written as,

1/15 = 1/ (3 x 5)

1/15 = (1/3) x (1/5)

The multiplication of the two rational numbers whose result is 1/15 will be 1/3 and 1/5.

More about the Algebra link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/953809

#SPJ2

Answer:

this is do confusing I do not understand

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

P(A) = probability a student buys lunch = 60% = 0.6

P(B) = probability a student buys lunch and dessert = 10% = 0.1

We are looking at the probability that a student buys lunch and dessert on the condition that they already bought lunch. Therefore, we are looking at a conditional probability.

P(B given A) = P(A and B) / P(A)

= 0.1 / 0.6

= 1/6 ≈ 0.167

Answer:

1) Multiply the whole number part by the fraction's denominator.

2) Add that to the numerator.

3) Then write the result on top of the denominator.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Explanation

|

Step-by-step explanation:

you you multiply the whole number by the denominator and then add the numerator to that number.

Answer:

Change the sign

Step-by-step explanation:

Asumming you are talking about the keep change flip method for dividing fraction, you would 1) keep 3/1, 2) flip the / symbol into * and 3) flip the 2nd fraction

Answer:

gek

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-20x^2-59x-43

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Actually, Corresponding angles are congruent.

Step-by-step explanation:

They are only supplementary in the special case where they are both 90°

Answer:

Option D

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we know that measure of corresponding angles are equal. So, corresponding angle are congruent to each other

Answer: y = 4x + 11

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope-intercept form is y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.

y = mx + b

Rewrite in slope-intercept form.

Simplify the right side.

Simplify 4(x + 2).

y - 3 = 4x + 8

Move all terms not containing y to the right side of the equation.

Add 3 to both sides of the equation.

y = 4x + 8 + 3

Add 8 and 3.

y = 4x + 11

Your Welcome! :)

Assuming that the selection process was done without replacement, the probability of selecting two white mugs without replacement is 1/28

Sample Space

Red mugs = 4

yellow mugs = 8

white mugs = 2

Sample Size = 4+8+2 = 14

We are going to assume the selection was done with out replacement

Hence the probability of selecting the first white mug is

Pr(W1) = 2/8 = 1/4

The probability of selecting the second white mug is

Pr(W2) = 1/7

Hence the probability of selecting  two white mugs one after another

= 1/4*1/7

=1/28

Learn more about probability at:

https://brainly.com/question/25839839

Answer:

292.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

13,608

Step-by-step explanation:

If 7/10 of the runners were women, than 3/10 of the runners were men. 3/10 of 45,360 runners is 13,608.

Hope this helps! Pls give brainliest! Also, plz sub to kgirl633 on yt.