ABCD is a square of side 4cm. In each of the following loci, the point p moves only inside the square. Sketch the locus in each case. AP=BP

justin bieber is white

From the equation that was gotten, the value of the pecan pies and the cheesecake will be $9 each.

Based on the information given, the equations to solve the question will be:

9p + 8s = 153 ..... i

2p + 6s = 72 ..... ii

Multiply equation i by 2

Multiply equation ii by 9.

18p + 16s = 306

18p + 54s = 648

Subtract the equations

38s = 342

s = 9

Since 2p + 6s = 72

2p + 6(9) = 72

2p + 54 = 72

2p = 72 - 54.

2p = 18

p = 18/2 = 9

They're both $9 each

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Answer:

2,000 tiles

Step-by-step explanation:

area of the floor divided by the area of one tile

area of a rectangle is length*width

so it's 40*15= 600

area of tile is 0.6m*0.5m = 0.3

600÷0.3 = 2,000 tiles

Answer:

41) 10

42) 65

43) 26

44) 33

45)65

41.)10

42.) 65

43.)26

44.)33

45.)65

hoped that helped:)

Answer:

6 55

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:  Graph is below

=============================================================

Explanation:

We divide both sides by -4 to isolate p. This will flip the inequality sign.

-16 > -4p

-16/(-4) < -4p/(-4)

4 < p

p > 4

The graph has an open hole at 4 and shading to the right. See below.

The solution of the inequality - 16 > - 4p is shown in number line as given below in figure.

Number line is a horizontal line where numbers are marked at equal intervals one after another form smaller to greater.

Given that;

The inequality is,

⇒ - 16 > - 4p

Now, Solve the inequality as;

⇒ - 16 > - 4p

Multiply by -1;

⇒ 16 < 4p

Divide by 4;

⇒ 4 < p

Thus, The solution of the inequality is,

⇒ 4 < p

And, This is shown in number line.

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Answer:

  86.63 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

The tangent relation applies.

  Tan = Opposite/Adjacent

  tan(77°) = (tree height)/(20 ft)

  tree height = (20 ft)·tan(77°) ≈ 86.63 ft

_____

Additional comment

It is somewhat problematic for Bob to see the top of a white pine tree at that angle of elevation. His view would likely be obscured by the branches of the tree.

Answer:

9h + 18

Step-by-step explanation:

9 multiplyed by h is 9h. 9 multiplyed by 2 is 18. Therefore it is 9h + 18.

Answer:

5th term = 18

Step-by-step explanation:

a1    +    a1+d      a1 + 2*d      a1+3d      a1 + 4*d     a1 + 5d

a1 + 2d = 10

6*a1 + 15d = 72

Multiply the first equation by 6

6a1 + 12d = 60

Write the above equation underneath the second equation

6a1  + 15d = 72

6a1 + 12d = 60                Subtract

3*d = 12                            Divide by 3

d = 12/3

d = 4

a1 + 2d = 10

a1 + 2*4 = 10

a1 + 8 = 10                        Subtract 8 from both sides

a1 - 8 = 10- 8

a1 = 2

The fifth term is

t5 = 2 + 4*4

t5 = 18

Answer: the answer is C which is .0287

The probability of it raining at most 2 days in a week is approximately 0.0192 or 1.92%. The closest option to this result is:

b) 0.0250

To find the probability of it raining at most 2 days in a week, we need to calculate the probability of it raining 0, 1, or 2 days in a week and then add those probabilities together.

Let's use the binomial probability formula for this calculation:

The probability of getting exactly "k" successes in "n" trials, each with a probability "p" of success, is given by:

P(X = k) = C(n, k) * p^k * (1 - p)^(n - k)

where:

C(n, k) is the binomial coefficient, equal to n! / (k! * (n - k)!)

p is the probability of success (rain in this case)

n is the number of trials (number of days in a week)

In our case, the number of trials (n) is 7 days in a week, and the probability of rain (p) is 0.70.

Now, let's calculate the probabilities for k = 0, 1, and 2:

Probability of raining 0 days in a week:

P(X = 0) = C(7, 0) * 0.70^0 * (1 - 0.70)^(7 - 0)

Probability of raining 1 day in a week:

P(X = 1) = C(7, 1) * 0.70^1 * (1 - 0.70)^(7 - 1)

Probability of raining 2 days in a week:

P(X = 2) = C(7, 2) * 0.70^2 * (1 - 0.70)^(7 - 2)

Now, add these probabilities together to get the probability of it raining at most 2 days in a week:

P(X ≤ 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

Calculate the values using the binomial coefficients:

C(7, 0) = 1

C(7, 1) = 7

C(7, 2) = 21

Now, calculate the probabilities:

P(X = 0) = 1 * 1 * 0.3^7 ≈ 0.0002187

P(X = 1) = 7 * 0.7^1 * 0.3^6 ≈ 0.002775

P(X = 2) = 21 * 0.7^2 * 0.3^5 ≈ 0.016215

Finally, add these probabilities together:

P(X ≤ 2) ≈ 0.0002187 + 0.002775 + 0.016215 ≈ 0.0192087

Therefore, the probability of it raining at most 2 days in a week is approximately 0.0192 or 1.92%. The closest option to this result is:

b) 0.0250

So, the correct answer is (b) 0.0250.

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Answer:

X=22.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Y=kX

20=15k

k=4/3

For X when Y=30

30=4/3×X

Cross multiply

4X=90

X=22.5

Answer: The answer is C.

Answer:

N/A; 32; -8

Step-by-step explanation:

4) You have to graph this equation... basically pick two points on the line and connect them. I'd do (0,4) and (4,1) because they're the easiest

5) Just plug -2 into the equation! -3x³+2x², so when you substitute x for -2, you get -3*(-2)³+2*(-2)²=-3*(-8)+2*4=24+8=32

6) -6m+6+6=4-7m, so m=-8

Thats how i do it ....i dont know about others

Answer:

m = - 1 and b = - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculate the slope m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (- 3, 2) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (2, - 3) ← 2 points on the line

m = [tex]\frac{-3-2}{2-(-3)}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-5}{2+3}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-5}{5}[/tex] = - 1

b is the y- intercept, that is where the graph crosses the y- axis.

line crosses the y- axis at (0, - 1 ) ⇒ b = - 1

Answer:

B would be the answer:))

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 2 by 9

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

-16.51

---------

2.54

-16.51

--------

2.54

1651

------

254

-13

-----

2

Answer: -13

----

2

Answer: The answer is in the first image.

Explanation: The explanation is in the second image.

Answer:

yes you are right

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Yes, you are right!

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps!

Note that √(4 - t²) is defined only as long as 4 - t² ≥ 0, or -2 ≤ t ≤ 2. Then the real integral exists only if -2 ≤ x ≤ 2. (Otherwise we deal with complex numbers.)

If x = 2, then the integral corresponds to the area of a quarter-circle with radius 2. This means that the integral has a maximum value of 1/4 • π • 2² = π.

On the opposite end, if x = -2, then the integral has the same value, but the integral from 0 to -2 is equal to the negative integral from -2 to 0. So the minimum value is -π.

For all x in between, we observe that the integrand is continuous over the rest of its domain, so F(x) is continuous.

Then the range of F(x) is the interval [-π, π].

Answer:

im sorry i dont get it

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle V_{P + C} = 29x^3 - 6x^2 + 8x[/tex]

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Algebra I

Terms/Coefficients

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

Identify.

[tex]\displaystyle V_P = 2x^3 - 6x^2 + 8x[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle V_C = 27x^3[/tex]

Step 2: Find Combined Volume

Answer:

36 times

Step-by-step explanation:

Because half the marbles are blue, you can predict that about half of the 72 times you will choose the blue marble, or 36 times.

Answer:

[tex] - 4( - 4x - 5) = - 4 \times - 4x - ( - 4) \times ( - 5) \\ = 16x - 20[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]16x+20[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]-4(-4x-5)[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Multiply\:}-4\mathrm{\:to\:the\:values\:in\:the\:parenthesis}[/tex]

[tex]-4(-4x-5)[/tex]

[tex]-4\cdot-4=16[/tex]

[tex]-4\cdot-5=20[/tex]

[tex]=16x+20[/tex]

Answer:  (1/4)w - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

[(1/2)w + 3] - [(1/4)w + 4]

[(1/2)w - (1/4)w] + [3 - 4]

(1/4)w - 1