Answer:
23
Explanation:
Nice edge 40r0
Muscle Name Adjacent Bones Adjacent Muscles
Deltoid
Biceps brachii
Triceps brachii
External oblique
Gastrocnemius
Quadriceps femoris
1. Deltoid: The deltoid muscle is located in the shoulder region. It attaches to the scapula (shoulder blade), clavicle (collarbone), and humerus (upper arm bone).
It works in conjunction with the trapezius and rotator cuff muscles to facilitate shoulder movements and stability.
2. Biceps brachii: The biceps brachii is a muscle in the upper arm. It attaches to the radius (one of the forearm bones) and the humerus. The brachialis and brachioradialis are adjacent muscles that also contribute to forearm and elbow movements.
3. Triceps brachii: The triceps brachii is located at the back of the upper arm. It attaches to the humerus and ulna (one of the forearm bones). The anconeus and brachialis are adjacent muscles that assist in elbow movements.
4. External oblique: The external oblique is one of the abdominal muscles. It attaches to the ribs and the iliac crest, which is part of the hip bone. It works in conjunction with the internal oblique and rectus abdominis muscles to provide trunk rotation and lateral flexion.
5. Gastrocnemius: The gastrocnemius muscle is situated in the calf region of the leg. It attaches to the femur (thigh bone) and the calcaneus (heel bone).
It forms the prominent part of the calf and works with the soleus and plantaris muscles to flex the foot and assist in movements like walking, running, and jumping.
6. Quadriceps femoris: The quadriceps femoris is a group of muscles in the front of the thigh. It attaches to the femur, patella (kneecap), and tibia (shin bone).
The hamstrings (biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus) and sartorius are adjacent muscles that have an antagonistic relationship with the quadriceps, helping to flex the knee and extend the hip.
These muscle names, along with their adjacent bones and adjacent muscles, provide a basic understanding of their anatomical relationships and functional roles in the body.
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Under normal conditions, hyperventilation will eventually lead to unconsciousness because Group of answer choices blood pH drops significantly. it leads to respiratory alkalosis. there's too much carbon dioxide in the blood. Two of the answers are correct. very high PO2 leads to an excess of ATP production and neural inhibition.
Answer:
The correct answer is ''it leads to respiratory alkalosis.''
Explanation:
Respiratory alkalosis is defined by pH values> 7.45, and is characterized by an increase in pH and a decrease in pCO2. The most frequent cause is alveolar hyperventilation. Alveolar hyperventilation causes respiratory alkalosis, presenting a decrease in ionic calcium and in some cases tetany. To compensate for this increase in pH, renal HCO3 excretion is increased, but this process requires 24-48 hours. Respiratory alkalosis - primary or compensatory - is defined by hypocapnia, a finding that involves alveolar hypoventilation. The symptoms of acute respiratory alkalosis, the "hyperventilation syndrome," vary only in intensity from those of any alkalosis - most notably disturbances in neuromuscular function (eg, paresthesias, tetany, tremor). A constellation of symptoms have been described with respiratory alkalosis, including increased intracranial pressure, decreased consciousness, tachycardia, hypertension, carpopedal spasm, anxiety, dizziness, and a feeling of vertigo.
Cree usted que las diferencias anatómicas entre los individuos de la humanidad surgieron como respuestas a acondicionamientos ambientales
Answer:
no, la selección natural opera sobre los fenotipos seleccionando aquellos que mejor se adaptan a su medio ambiente. En consecuencia, el medio ambiente actúa como agente selectivo pero no es el disparador de los cambios fenotípicos/anatómicos
Explanation:
Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck fue un naturalista francés el cual propuso que los individuos se adaptaban para sobrevivir a su ambiente, y que estos cambios fenotípicos/anatómicos eran transmitidos a la progenie. Por otra parte, Darwin propuso la teoría de la evolución por selección natural la cual establece que aquellos individuos mejor adaptados a su ambiente tiene más chance de sobrevivir y reproducirse, y con lo cual también tienen más chances de trasmitir sus rasgos anatómicos/fenotípicos a la siguiente generación. Hoy en día, la teoría de la evolución de Darwin es ampliamente aceptada por la comunidad científica y permite explicar la variación existente entre individuos. De este modo, de acuerdo a la pregunta planteada, las diferencias anatómicas/fenotípicas entre los individuos de la humanidad no surgieron como respuesta al acondicionamiento ambiental: el ambiente funciona como agente selectivo, seleccionado aquellos individuos mejor adaptados a sobrevivir en cada ambiente en particular.
QUESTION 4
When the 'wind is knocked out of you", that air that was knocked out of you was actually part of your
O IRV
O ERV
ORV
O TV
8. Valves prevent blood from flowing backwards. Valves are located in the
O
veins
heart
heart and arteries
heart and veins
Answer:
Heart and artries
Explanation:
PLEASE MARK AS BRAINLIEST
What changes were caused by the breakup of Pangaea?
a) change in climates as landmasses moved closer or further from the equator
b) new oceans formed
c) all of these were changes caused by the break up of Pangaea
d) new mountain ranges formed
Answer: Option C. All of these things happened
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Greenhouse climate conditions that enveloped the Earth for long periods in the deep past millions of years before humans added their current substantial contribution were caused by the break-up of the supercontinent Pangaea.
What are the two stages of cellular respiration
Answer:
animal cell.
Explanation:
plant cell.
Ian is an 18-year-old gymnast training at a private gym with many other male and female gymnasts. he is competing at an advanced level and is likely to make the next Olympic team. Lately, he has found that some of his balance and strength moves on the rings and parallel bars have become more difficult. He has gone through a bit of a growth spurt and gained approximately 5 pounds over the last year. He suspects the weight gain is causing his performance difficulties. He decides to try a weight-loss program that will help him lose weight before his next big competition in 6 weeks. He is not sure how many calories to consume and therefore arbitrarily decides to eat 1,500 calories per day.
1. Which assessments are required to determine whether Ian needs to lose weight?
2. What type of diet and exercise plan would you recommend for Ian?
3. What additional concerns do you have for Ian's health and sport performance?
Answer:
Explanation:
(1.)
Assessments needed to reduce Ian’s body weight:
A weight-loss program should allow the loss of weight should be fat loss, and the increase of weight should be body muscle mass. Weight reduction should be accompanied by an acceptable exercise regimen (both strength and conditioning). A well-balanced diet with sufficient energy (calories), carbohydrates, protein, and fat should be part of every weight-loss regimen. Excessive exercise resulted in weight loss. Using anorexic medications, laxatives, insulin, diet tablets, stimulants, diuretics, dietary products, or any lawful or illicit drugs and/or nicotine should be banned at all levels.
(2)
type of Diet:
Every day, Ian must eat three meals and just a snack. A fiber-rich cereal with skim milk and fresh fruit can be a better way to start the day.
After that, have a bologna sandwich on the whole bread with fruit or a big vegetable-rich salad together with a small turkey sandwich in addition to a cup of skim milk for lunch.
Poultry hen should be served with potatoes (baked), mixed vegetables, and skim milk for dinner. An early workout snack of a small butter muffin or yogurt combined with cereal should also be included.
Exercise Plan:
i) Bodyweight fat recovery can be supported by proper and secure aerobic activity.
ii) The right kind of aerobic exercise is extremely beneficial for weight loss.
3. Gymnastics is a visually appealing discipline that necessitates speed, strength, and coordination. Most high-level gymnasts eat less than the recommended amount of calories and certain nutrients for their age and training load, according to dietary tests. Young gymnasts, in particular, must absorb enough energy and nutrients to satisfy the demands of growth, exercise, performance, and tissue conservation. Poor energy supply, disordered eating habits, and eating disorders are all factors that can damage a gymnast's long and short-term health. Some gymnasts cross the line into extreme, treatable eating disorders by dieting and using infective weight-loss strategies.
In light of these considerations, Ian should pay attention to his health and diet. Ian should limit his consumption of added sugar intake and increase his fiber intake to help him achieve his body fat targets. Gymnasts can consume at least 1.4–1.8 grams of carbohydrates each pound (3–4 g/kg) per day. Increased protein consumption helps to reduce the amount of muscle lost over a weight-loss cycle. Per day, gymnasts can eat 0.8–1.2 g/lb (1.8–2.7 g/kg) of protein.
Ian would be able to shed weight and prevent an eating disorder in this manner.
8. How did the Grants test their hypothesis that differences in birds' songs can keep finches
from breeding with members of other species?
a. They watched which birds were mating with each other and listened for the songs the
birds were singing.
b. They recorded birds singing on the island of Daphne Major for an entire breeding
season to see which type of song was used more often by each species.
c. They played the songs of medium ground finches and cactus finches through a
loudspeaker at different times, when individuals from both species were present, to see which
species responded to each song,
d. They played the song of the medium ground finch to medium ground finch males
through a loudspeaker to see if they would respond; they then played the song of the cactus
finch to cactus finch males to see if they would respond.
9. Explain the evidence presented in the film for your answer in question #8 above.
a. Males only came to the loudspeaker when the song of their own species was being played.
b. The type of song used more often during the breeding season was also the song sung by the
most abundant species.
c. During mating, birds sang the song of their own species.
Answer:
The correct answer is -
8. They played the songs of medium ground finches and cactus finches through a loudspeaker at different times, when individuals from both species were present, to see which species responded to each song.
9. Males only came to the loudspeaker when the song of their own species was being played.
Explanation:
To test the hypothesis that differences in finches song they sing keep these finches to breeding from other members of finches, Grant should play the different songs of both medium ground finches and cactus finches one by one in loudspeaker and see what members of finches respond on what song.
It will show that cactus fiches breed only on their songs and medium ground finches on their song if the hypothesis is true. Male of each species respond to their songs only and not on other song played on loudspeaker
Consider two pure-breeding lines of grapes, P1 and P2. The average diameter of P1 grapes is 1.2 cm and the variance is 0.30 cm2. The average diameter of P2 grapes is 1.6 cm and the variance is 0.56 cm2. The two pure-breeding lines are crossed to produce F1 progeny. Based on this description, which of the following statements is false?
a) VG for F1 is > 0
b) VP for P1 < VG for P2
c) VE for F1 is > 0
d) VG for P1 = 0
e) VG for P2 = 0
Answer:
a)
Explanation:
From the given information:
The avg diameters:
For P1 grapes =1.2 cm
For P2 grapes = 1.6 cm
Their vairance is also given as follows:
For P1 = 0.30 cm²
For P2 = 0.56 cm²
Recall that:
the phenotypic variance VP = genetic variance (VG) + environmental variance VE
As stated that P1 and P2 lines are pure breeding lines, which means that the diameter of the seed in F1 was around halfway between the two parents' and the difference in the F1 was close to the parents'.
This implies that, provided the parent lines exist as pure breeding;
The genetic variation would be absent, indicating that VG is zero.
∴
VP = VE and VG = 0
Now, averaging the results of two pure breeding lines, we have:
[tex]V_E = \Big (\dfrac{0.30 + 0.56}{2} \Big) \\ \\ V_E = \dfrac{0.86}{2} \\ \\ V_E = 0.43 \ cm^2[/tex]
The formula used in estimating F1 genetic variance can be expressed as:
VP = VG + VE
Recall that
VE = VP = 0.43 cm²
∴
0.43 = VG + 0.43
VG = 0.43 - 0.43
VG = 0
Thus, The statement that is false is in Option a.
VG for F1 is > 0
. A researcher studies the evolutionary relationships between influenza viruses by comparing the genomic sequences of the viruses found in pigs, ducks, and humans in a given year. When evaluating the viruses that had infected these hosts the previous year, she identifies a cross-species transfer from humans to pigs. This information supports the hypothesis that cross-species transfer leads to more severe disease if during the previous year _______ suffered a severe influenza pandemic.
Answer:
pigs
Explanation:
Influenza is an infectious disease caused by influenza viruses, which can be divided into four types A, B, C and D. In humans, influenza A and B viruses are known to cause epidemics, while A viruses are known to cause pandemics. Influenza viruses are also found in birds and mammals (e.g., dogs, cats, cattle pigs and horses). Cross-species virus transmission refers to the transmission process of infectious viruses between hosts from different species. Several viruses that may cause severe diseases in humans have originated from animal species, e.g., avian influenza A virus that can be transmitted to humans through an intermediate host (e.g., pigs). Other examples of cross-species virus transmission include the Ebola virus and Hantaviruses. It has been suggested that cross-species transmission is a common phenomenon in rapidly evolving viruses.
How is the nervous system different from the endocrine system? *
It is faster and depends on chemical messenger (hormone
It is slower and depends on neurotransmitter
They are the same systems
It is faster and depends on neurotransmitter
Answer:
It is faster and depends on chemical messenger (hormone
I guess this one is right, to be sure ask from someone else 2
Explanation:
One of the most significant differences between the nervous system and endocrine system is that the nervous system uses electrical impulses to send messages through neurons while endocrine glands use hormones to send messages to the target cells through the bloodstream.
Paramecium are:
mammals
protozoa
monotremes
reptiles
Answer:
protozoa(b)
Explanation:
protozoa(b)
Question 11 (1 point) What prevents backflow of urine into the kidneys? O
the internal urethral sphincter
the angle of the ureter
the external urethral sphincter
the mitral valve
Answer:
There is an internal urethral sphincter at the meeting point between each ureter and the bladder to prevent the backflow of urine into the kidneys.
Explanation:
Answer: the angle of the ureter
Explanation: I took the test
The main difference between the gravitational force and electrical force is that
1. Gravitational force can only push
2. Gravitational force can pull and push
3. Electrical force can only pull
4. Electrical force can pull and push
The difference between the gravitational force and electrical force is that the electrical force can pull and push while the gravitational force is only attractive which means it can only pull.
What do you mean by Gravitational force?Gravitational force may be defined as a conservative force by which the earth allures other objects by mass.
The basic difference between both two forces is that the gravitational force can only attract masses, while electrostatic force either attracts or repel when two charges of the same sign are gathered.
Therefore, the correct option for this question is D.
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Use the information gathered in the A Three Point Test Cross animation to answer the question. Genes H and K are linked and are known to be 3.5 m.u. apart on the same chromosome. What is the recombination frequency between H and K
Answer:
3.5 percent (3.5%)
Explanation:
In genetics, crossing over or 'recombination' refers to the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I. The map units (m.u.), also known as centimorgans, represent a measure of genetic linkage between genes/loci located on the same chromosome. One map unit (1 m.u.) is equal to a 1 percent chance that two gene/loci (in this case, genes H and K) will be separated during meiosis by recombination. In the example above, it means that among their progeny, 3.5 percent (3.5%) will be recombinant for the two genes (H and K), and 96.5 percent (96.5%) will have the parental combination of these genes.
the image depicts the anatomical structure of the forelimb of a dolphin and a bat, both mammals. Which hypotheses are consistent with the evolutionary relationship shown by this image? select ALL that apply.
a) bats are more closely related to birds than to dolphins do the similarity in flight
b) dolphins and bats share a common ancestor that is more recent than the one shared with birds
c) amino acid sequences for the cytochrome C analysis of these two species will also be similar
d) the dolphin in the back diverge under different selective pressures, which accounts for their differences
e) embryological comparisons of these two species will show homologies of each other than bats have with birds
Answer:
D. the dolphin in the back diverge under different selective pressures, which accounts for their difference
Explanation:
I hope this is helps you
Dolphins and bats share a common ancestor that is more recent than the one shared with birds.
Homologous bodiesHomologous organs are those that may or may not perform the same function, but have the same basic structure and the same embryonic development. This means, therefore, that individuals who have these organs have shared ancestry.
Whit this information, we can conclude that dolphins and bats share a common ancestor that is more recent than the one shared with birds.
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What benefit did land plants offer as they became more abundant ?
Which tissue also makes the glandular tissue in animals
Answer:
Epithelial cells
Epithelial cells often acquire additional specialisation as gland cells, which can secrete substances at the epithelial surface. Sometimes a portion of the epithelial tissue folds inward, and a multicellular gland is formed. This is glandular epithelium.
Match the type of metamorphism to its cause. Impact ? Heat Contact ? Directed pressure Dynamic ? Meteorite Regional ? Surrounding pressure SUBMIT
Answer:
Contact Metamorphism - Heat
The heat is the main cause, cooling magma affects the rock adjacent to an intrusive body.
Dynamic Metamorphism - directed pressure
It takes place due to grinding two large blocks of rock in a fault zone which causes a directed pressure that leads to heat and the formation of these metamorphisms.
Regional - surrounding pressure
A heat and lithostatic pressure come from depth within the earth.
Impact - Meteorite
By collision of meteorite to earth very high amount of kinetic energy is converted instantaneously to heat and differential stress.
I’m marking as brainliest! Answer the correct answer !
Answer: B
Explanation: took the test 3 days ago and teacher went over the correct answer and i got it right hoped this helped :) PS: i think its the same test as mine is the second question . In humans, the first seven pairs of rib bones are connected to the sternum (breastbone) by cartilage. Which of the following statements describes the main reason why cartilage is important in these bone-to-bone connections?
state what action muscles can complete
Answer:
Flexion
Extension
Abduction
Addiction
Explanation:
hope it helps
Footprints are found at the crime scene. Investigators take note of the scalar quantity of the footprints. Analyzing the scalar quantity of the footprints can give them clues about everything except
direction
length
speed
energy
Answer:
energy
Explanation:
Scalar quantities are numerical values, like mass, distance, or speed.
Jill is planting a garden in her yard and notices that the fertilizer she is using contains gypsum. She learns that gypsum is a rock that is mined from underground and used to make fertilizer and other products. She remembers from science class that gypsum is rated a 2 on Moh’s hardness scale. Which of these describes this rock? Choose the two statements that apply.
A. It cannot scratch any other rocks.
B. It can scratch rocks that are rated a 1.
C. It is very soft compared to other rocks.
D. It is very hard compared to other rocks.
E. It can scratch any rock rated from a 2 to a 10, but not a 1.
Answer:
B and C
Explanation:
It can scratch rocks rated a 1 but not above a 2, the scale goes to 10 so it is very soft compared to other rocks.
the transfer of energy by the movement of fluids or gases with different tempratures is called
Answer: Thermal energy can also be transferred by a method called convection.
Explanation:Convection is the transfer of thermal energy in a fluid by the movement of warmer and cooler fluids from one place to another. A fluid is a substance that can flow. It can be a liquid or a gas
Help! ASAP, this is due tomorrow and I’m struggling as this isn’t what they taught us. The question is: Explain why the bacteria shown (E. coli) have a second membrane outside the
peptidoglycan.
The second membrane protects e.coli (Gram-negative bacteria) against a harsh environment.
The outer membrane indirectly helps stabilize the inner membrane as peptidoglycan layer in Gram-negative bacteria is relatively thin than gram positive bacteria ( they have multilayer pepdtidoglycan )
The second membrane called the outer membrane helps in stabilizing bacterial cells as peptidoglycan is thinner in E.coli cells.
What is an outer membrane?A double membrane is present in gram-negative bacteria, and it provides both protection and nutrition for survival.
The outer of these membranes is known as the outer membrane (OM), and it comprises a variety of completely integrated membrane proteins that carry out a number of crucial cellular processes, including nutrition absorption, cell adhesion, cell signaling, and waste export.
Several of these outer membrane proteins (OMPs) for pathogenic strains also function as virulence factors for nutrition scavenging and evading host defense systems. OMPs are distinct from other membrane proteins in that they have a -barrel fold and can vary in size from 8 to 26 strands while still carrying out a wide range of cellular activities.
Although these OMPs play crucial roles in cell viability and pathogenicity, the precise mechanism behind their synthesis into the OM is still largely unclear.
However, during the past ten years, there has been a tremendous advancement in our understanding of the routes and processes that shape a nascent polypeptide into a functioning OMP within the OM.
Here, we will go through a few of these new discoveries that have improved our knowledge of how Gram-negative bacteria produce OMPs, from their production in the cytoplasm to their folding and insertion into the OM.
Therefore, the second membrane called the outer membrane helps in stabilizing bacterial cells as peptidoglycan is thinner in E.coli cells.
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Which of the following are shown in karyotypes?
a
sex chromosomes
b
homologous chromosomes
c
autosomes
d
all of the above
Answer:
Karyotypes describe the chromosome count of an organism and what these chromosomes look like under a light microscope. Attention is paid to their length, the position of the centromeres, banding pattern, any differences between the sex chromosomes, and any other physical characteristics.
Explanation:
As this karyotype displays, a diploid human cell contains 22 pairs of homologous chromosomes and 2 sex chromosomes. ... The maternal and paternal chromosomes in a homologous pair have the same genes at the same locus, but possibly different alleles.
1) Identify 4 stimuli that cause a decrease in the number of producers, consumers, and decomposers living in an area.
2) What could be the effects in relation to the energy pyramid, population, and community of organisms within the environment.
Answer:
Temperature, humidity, food and water.
Explanation:
Temperature, humidity, food and water are the four stimuli that is responsible for the decrease in the population of producers, consumers, and decomposers living in that area. If the temperature is too high or too cold, the growth of the producer stops and the plants can't tolerate the temperature will die. The death of producers causes the death of consumers because consumers depend on these producers for food. The population of decomposer also decreases if the environment is too harsh because decomposers also requires suitable environment for growth and survival. There is adverse effect on the energy pyramid, population, and community of organisms within the environment if these stimuli are not present in suitable range.
Forensics
Plastic bags used as evidence containers after fires can produce dangerous gases.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
I took it on a test it's correct!
Answer:
This is definitely true
Explanation:
In the Diffusion Through a Membrane lab, the model cell membranes
allowed certain substances to pass through based on which characteristic
of the diffusing substance?
O (1) size
O (2) shape
O (3) color
O (4) temperature
Answer:
4
Explanation:
Higher temperatures increase the energy and therefore the movement of the molecules, increasing the rate of diffusion. Lower temperatures decrease the energy of the molecules, thus decreasing the rate of diffusion