At a local amusement park, 70% of the rides are made for kids who are 48 inches and taller. If there are 80 rides in total, how many are made for kids who are 48 inches and taller?

Answer:  Graph is below

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Explanation:

We divide both sides by -4 to isolate p. This will flip the inequality sign.

-16 > -4p

-16/(-4) < -4p/(-4)

4 < p

p > 4

The graph has an open hole at 4 and shading to the right. See below.

The solution of the inequality - 16 > - 4p is shown in number line as given below in figure.

Number line is a horizontal line where numbers are marked at equal intervals one after another form smaller to greater.

Given that;

The inequality is,

⇒ - 16 > - 4p

Now, Solve the inequality as;

⇒ - 16 > - 4p

Multiply by -1;

⇒ 16 < 4p

Divide by 4;

⇒ 4 < p

Thus, The solution of the inequality is,

⇒ 4 < p

And, This is shown in number line.

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Answer:

yes you are right

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Yes, you are right!

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps!

Answer: The answer is in the first image.

Explanation: The explanation is in the second image.

From the equation that was gotten, the value of the pecan pies and the cheesecake will be $9 each.

Based on the information given, the equations to solve the question will be:

9p + 8s = 153 ..... i

2p + 6s = 72 ..... ii

Multiply equation i by 2

Multiply equation ii by 9.

18p + 16s = 306

18p + 54s = 648

Subtract the equations

38s = 342

s = 9

Since 2p + 6s = 72

2p + 6(9) = 72

2p + 54 = 72

2p = 72 - 54.

2p = 18

p = 18/2 = 9

They're both $9 each

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

-16.51

---------

2.54

-16.51

--------

2.54

1651

------

254

-13

-----

2

Answer: -13

----

2

Thats how i do it ....i dont know about others

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle V_{P + C} = 29x^3 - 6x^2 + 8x[/tex]

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Algebra I

Terms/Coefficients

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

Identify.

[tex]\displaystyle V_P = 2x^3 - 6x^2 + 8x[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle V_C = 27x^3[/tex]

Step 2: Find Combined Volume

Answer:

B would be the answer:))

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 2 by 9

Answer:

2,000 tiles

Step-by-step explanation:

area of the floor divided by the area of one tile

area of a rectangle is length*width

so it's 40*15= 600

area of tile is 0.6m*0.5m = 0.3

600÷0.3 = 2,000 tiles

Answer: the answer is C which is .0287

The probability of it raining at most 2 days in a week is approximately 0.0192 or 1.92%. The closest option to this result is:

b) 0.0250

To find the probability of it raining at most 2 days in a week, we need to calculate the probability of it raining 0, 1, or 2 days in a week and then add those probabilities together.

Let's use the binomial probability formula for this calculation:

The probability of getting exactly "k" successes in "n" trials, each with a probability "p" of success, is given by:

P(X = k) = C(n, k) * p^k * (1 - p)^(n - k)

where:

C(n, k) is the binomial coefficient, equal to n! / (k! * (n - k)!)

p is the probability of success (rain in this case)

n is the number of trials (number of days in a week)

In our case, the number of trials (n) is 7 days in a week, and the probability of rain (p) is 0.70.

Now, let's calculate the probabilities for k = 0, 1, and 2:

Probability of raining 0 days in a week:

P(X = 0) = C(7, 0) * 0.70^0 * (1 - 0.70)^(7 - 0)

Probability of raining 1 day in a week:

P(X = 1) = C(7, 1) * 0.70^1 * (1 - 0.70)^(7 - 1)

Probability of raining 2 days in a week:

P(X = 2) = C(7, 2) * 0.70^2 * (1 - 0.70)^(7 - 2)

Now, add these probabilities together to get the probability of it raining at most 2 days in a week:

P(X ≤ 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

Calculate the values using the binomial coefficients:

C(7, 0) = 1

C(7, 1) = 7

C(7, 2) = 21

Now, calculate the probabilities:

P(X = 0) = 1 * 1 * 0.3^7 ≈ 0.0002187

P(X = 1) = 7 * 0.7^1 * 0.3^6 ≈ 0.002775

P(X = 2) = 21 * 0.7^2 * 0.3^5 ≈ 0.016215

Finally, add these probabilities together:

P(X ≤ 2) ≈ 0.0002187 + 0.002775 + 0.016215 ≈ 0.0192087

Therefore, the probability of it raining at most 2 days in a week is approximately 0.0192 or 1.92%. The closest option to this result is:

b) 0.0250

So, the correct answer is (b) 0.0250.

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Answer:

5th term = 18

Step-by-step explanation:

a1    +    a1+d      a1 + 2*d      a1+3d      a1 + 4*d     a1 + 5d

a1 + 2d = 10

6*a1 + 15d = 72

Multiply the first equation by 6

6a1 + 12d = 60

Write the above equation underneath the second equation

6a1  + 15d = 72

6a1 + 12d = 60                Subtract

3*d = 12                            Divide by 3

d = 12/3

d = 4

a1 + 2d = 10

a1 + 2*4 = 10

a1 + 8 = 10                        Subtract 8 from both sides

a1 - 8 = 10- 8

a1 = 2

The fifth term is

t5 = 2 + 4*4

t5 = 18

Answer:

41) 10

42) 65

43) 26

44) 33

45)65

41.)10

42.) 65

43.)26

44.)33

45.)65

hoped that helped:)

Answer:

6 55

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

36 times

Step-by-step explanation:

Because half the marbles are blue, you can predict that about half of the 72 times you will choose the blue marble, or 36 times.

Answer:

[tex] - 4( - 4x - 5) = - 4 \times - 4x - ( - 4) \times ( - 5) \\ = 16x - 20[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]16x+20[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]-4(-4x-5)[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Multiply\:}-4\mathrm{\:to\:the\:values\:in\:the\:parenthesis}[/tex]

[tex]-4(-4x-5)[/tex]

[tex]-4\cdot-4=16[/tex]

[tex]-4\cdot-5=20[/tex]

[tex]=16x+20[/tex]

Answer:

N/A; 32; -8

Step-by-step explanation:

4) You have to graph this equation... basically pick two points on the line and connect them. I'd do (0,4) and (4,1) because they're the easiest

5) Just plug -2 into the equation! -3x³+2x², so when you substitute x for -2, you get -3*(-2)³+2*(-2)²=-3*(-8)+2*4=24+8=32

6) -6m+6+6=4-7m, so m=-8

Answer:

m = - 1 and b = - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculate the slope m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (- 3, 2) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (2, - 3) ← 2 points on the line

m = [tex]\frac{-3-2}{2-(-3)}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-5}{2+3}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-5}{5}[/tex] = - 1

b is the y- intercept, that is where the graph crosses the y- axis.

line crosses the y- axis at (0, - 1 ) ⇒ b = - 1

Answer:

  86.63 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

The tangent relation applies.

  Tan = Opposite/Adjacent

  tan(77°) = (tree height)/(20 ft)

  tree height = (20 ft)·tan(77°) ≈ 86.63 ft

_____

Additional comment

It is somewhat problematic for Bob to see the top of a white pine tree at that angle of elevation. His view would likely be obscured by the branches of the tree.

Answer:

9h + 18

Step-by-step explanation:

9 multiplyed by h is 9h. 9 multiplyed by 2 is 18. Therefore it is 9h + 18.

Note that √(4 - t²) is defined only as long as 4 - t² ≥ 0, or -2 ≤ t ≤ 2. Then the real integral exists only if -2 ≤ x ≤ 2. (Otherwise we deal with complex numbers.)

If x = 2, then the integral corresponds to the area of a quarter-circle with radius 2. This means that the integral has a maximum value of 1/4 • π • 2² = π.

On the opposite end, if x = -2, then the integral has the same value, but the integral from 0 to -2 is equal to the negative integral from -2 to 0. So the minimum value is -π.

For all x in between, we observe that the integrand is continuous over the rest of its domain, so F(x) is continuous.

Then the range of F(x) is the interval [-π, π].

justin bieber is white

Answer:

im sorry i dont get it

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:  (1/4)w - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

[(1/2)w + 3] - [(1/4)w + 4]

[(1/2)w - (1/4)w] + [3 - 4]

(1/4)w - 1

Answer: The answer is C.

Answer:

X=22.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Y=kX

20=15k

k=4/3

For X when Y=30

30=4/3×X

Cross multiply

4X=90

X=22.5