Can someone please explain this real quick so I can get a better understanding on this? My teacher didn't do a good job..

Answer:

angle N is 64 and the bottom one is 52

Step-by-step explanation:

M and N are the same angke and they add up to 128 and all angles in a triangle add up to 180 meaning the bottom angle is 52

Answer:

N = 64 if there is another letter it would be 52

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps <3

Answer:

-5

Step-by-step explanation:

2×9/3 - (4+7)

18/3 -11

18/3 - 33/3

-15/3

-5

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

2x/3- y +7; x = 9, y=4

plug in the numbers

2(9)/3-(4)+7

simplify 2(9)/3

2 • 9=18

18/3=6

6-4+7

6-4= 2

2+7=9

Answer: 14

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: A) 6 in^2

First, you need to find the length of the base.

a = 3, b = ?, c= 5

Using Pythagorean Theorem*: a^2 + b^2 = c^2

b^2 = c^2 - a^2

b^2 = 5^2 - 3^2

b^2 = 25 - 9

b^2 = 16 (square root both sides)

b = 4

Now, you have to find the area using the area of a triangle formula: A = (bh)/2

A = (bh)/2

A = (4·3)/2

A = 12/2

A = 6 in^2

Pythagorean Theorem is used for this question since it's a right triangle.

Answer: A) 6in^2

Step-by-step explanation:

base = 4 in

height = 3 in (pythagorean theorem)

A = (bxh)/2 = (4x3)/2 = 12/2 = 6 in^2

Answer:

C) 10

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps youuuuuu

Answer:

i got c) 10

Step-by-step explanation:

(11^2-9^2)*(1/2)^2

(121-81)

40*(1/2)^2

40*0.25

10

vwala can i have brainliest?

6 * 5 = 30

42 - 30 = 12

? * 2 = 12

? = 6

Answer:

Around 2080

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer is: 2000

Step-by-step explanation:

945 rounds to 900

537 rounds to 500

617 rounds to 600

Add them up to get 2000

Answer:

(5×3x)+(5×y)

Step-by-step explanation:

=15x+5y ans

Given:

In [tex]\Delta ABC, \overline{CA}=\overline{CB}[/tex].

[tex]\overline{CD}[/tex] is an altitude drawn from C to [tex]\overline{AB}[/tex].

To prove:

[tex]\overline{CD}[/tex] bisects [tex]\overline{AB}[/tex].

Proof:

In [tex]\Delta ABC[/tex], [tex]\overline{CD}[/tex] is an altitude drawn from C to [tex]\overline{AB}[/tex].

It means, [tex]\Delta ACD\text{ and }\Delta BCD[/tex] are right angle triangles.

In [tex]\Delta ACD\text{ and }\Delta BCD[/tex],

Hypotenuse : [tex]\overline{CA}=\overline{CB}[/tex]       [Given]

Leg : [tex]\overline{CD}=\overline{CD}[/tex]       [Common]

If the hypotenuse and leg of one right triangle are congruent to the hypotenuse and leg of another right triangle, then by HL postulate both triangles are congruent.

[tex]\Delta ACD\cong \Delta BCD[/tex]        [HL postulate]

[tex]\overline{AD}\cong \overline{BD}[/tex]       [CPCTC]

[tex]\overline{AD}=\overline{BD}[/tex]

It means, point D is the midpoint of [tex]\overline{AB}[/tex].

So, [tex]\overline{CD}[/tex] bisects [tex]\overline{AB}[/tex].

Hence proved.

Answer: i think it’s option D i might be wrong

Step-by-step explanation: i think it’s option D i might be wrong

Answer:

P(at least 4)  = 0.74431

Step-by-step explanation:

Here

Probability of the flights on time is = 70% = 70/100= 0.7

q= 0.3

n= 6

As the probability of success and failure is constant and the n is also fixed then the binomail probability distribution can be used to solve this.

P (x= 4) = 6c4 *(0.7)^4 (0.3)^2= 15*0.2401* 0.09= 0.324135

P (x= 5) = 6c5 *(0.7)^5(0.3)^1= 6*0.16807* 0.3=0.302526

P (x= 6) = 6c6 *(0.7)^6 (0.3)^0= 0.117649P

P (x= 0) = 6c0 *(0.7)^0 (0.3)^6= 0.000729

P (x= 1) = 6c1 *(0.7)^1 (0.3)^5=0.010206

P (x= 2) = 6c 2*(0.7)^2 (0.3)^4=0.059535

P (x= 3) = 6c3 *(0.7)^3 (0.3)^3=0.18522

Probability of at least 4 means that probability of greater than 4 inclusive of 4.

This can be obtained in two ways.

First is by subtracting the probabilities of less than 4.

Second is by adding probabilities greater than 4 including 4.

We get the same answer with any of the two methods used.

P(at least 4) = 1- P(x<4)

                     = 1- [ 0.000729+ 0.010206 +0.059535+ 0.18522]

                     = 1- 0.25569

                       = 0.74431

P (at least 4) = P(x=4) +P(X=5) + P(x=6)

                        =0.324135+ 0.302526+ 0.117649

                        =0.74431

sample response

No his statement is not correct. Brody confused value and magnitude. [-4]= 4 and -[+1] = 1. The magnitude of -4 is grater than the magnitude of +1. Stock F had a greater price change.

Answer:

The sum would be

[tex]\frac{3}{2} [/tex]

The difference would be

[tex] \frac{2}{3} - \frac{5}{6} = - \frac{1}{6} \\ \\ or \\ \\ \frac{5}{6} - \frac{2}{3} = \frac{1}{6} [/tex]

Answer:

Yes, the probability distribution is valid.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

Income range ___ midpoint(x) ___ %

5 - 15 __________ 10 _____20%

15 - 25 _________ 20 _____13%

25- 35 _________ 30 _____ 21%

35 - 45 _________40 _____ 17%

45 - 55_________ 40 ____ 20%

55 or more _______ 50 _____9%

Yes, we do have a valid probability distributuon ; as the summation of the percentage values is equal to 100%

Yes. Using the income midpoints  x and the percent of super shoppers, we can conclude that we have a valid probability distribution.

Given:

Income ranges: 5-15, 15-25, 25-35, 35-45, 45-55, 55 or more.

Midpoints x:       10,     20,      30,      40,       50,      60

Percent of super shoppers: 20%, 13%, 21%, 17%, 20%, 9%.

A valid probability distribution has two must have properties:

Its probabilities are non-negative.

Its probabilities sum to 1.

In the given data, the percentages can be converted to probabilities by dividing by 100 as :

0.2, 0.13, 0.21, 0.17, 0.2, 0.09

None of the probabilities are negative.

All probabilities add up to 1

[tex]0.2 + 0.13 + 0.21 + 0.17 + 0.2 + 0.09 = 1[/tex]

Thus, given distribution is a valid probability distribution.

Learn more here:

https://brainly.com/question/795909

Answer:look below

Step-by-step explanation: The prime factorization of number is the break down into factors which are prime numbers (numbers without factors except 1 and itself). The factors 22 and 32 are composite numbers since they have more than 1 and itself as factors. They are not prime.

However, the factorization of 22 * 32 * 5 will equal a number. 22*32*5 = 3, 520. But it does not match the solutions given.

Answer:

2464

Step-by-step explanation:

prime factors : 32,11,7

32×11×7=2464

Answer:

The 2nd equation

Answer: -8/7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

For complementary angles, the sum of two angles is equal to 90 degrees.

We have,

[tex]m\angle ABC = 4x-10\\\\m\angle DBC = x+30[/tex]

ATQ,

[tex]4x-10+x+30=90[/tex]

Taking like terms together,

4x+x =90-30+10

5x = 70

x = 14

So, the value of x is 14.

Answer:

There are no solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

No intersections or points that apply for the equations.

Answer:

there are 7 fives in 35

and each 5 slices makes 3 cups

so,,7×3=21 cups

Answer:

21 cups

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The probability of drawing a red is 50% blue is 1/3 or 33.33% yellow is 1/6 or 16.66

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Total distanced traveled = 205 m

Step-by-step explanation:

200 m+5 m=205 m

Answer:

1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

the probability  of selecting a spade: 14/52 = 1/4

Answer:

(c) 24 (d) 2 -4 (e) 22 2 1.25 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Problem 1.1 (10 Points) Let 21 2j, and 23 j. Find the value of each of the following 3 4j, 22 expressions and give your answers in rectangular form z t jy. (a) 132122 (b) 321 421 (c) (21)3 (Note that superscript denotes conjugation.) 222 21 (d) 22 (e) 2223 Problem 1.2 (10 Points) (a) Find real numbers r and y such that 5z -3y j(5y z) 4. (b) Show that any complex number z can also be expressed as z e 2"* k 0, 1,2, 3. Problem 1.3 (10 Points) Express each of the following complex numbers in polar form. a) 2 2V3 (c) 1 j j2 7 4j (d) 3-2j (e) Problem 1.4 (10 Points) Use the results from Problem 1.2 (b) above to find all roots of the following complex numbers and plot your results in the complex plane. (a) 1 (Hint: there are 5 different answers and one is 2 (b) 23 (1 -j) (Hint: there are 3 different answers. (c) 24 (d) 2 -4 (e) 22 2 1.25 0

Answer:

BE =DE

BEC=DEC

AEB AED

Step-by-step explanation:

not that hard lol

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

he teaches 1 trick every 15 minutes 75 divided by 15 gives you 5 so Jonah can teach 5 tricks in a 75 minute class

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

 bjhugvcyfxtdrzstxycfugiholiugkyftdrsetdfyugi

Answer:

The answer is $270

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Take the original price.

2. Divide the original price by 100 and times it by 10.

3. Move the decimal one place to the left.

4. Minus this new number from the original one.

5. This will give you the discounted value.

I hope this helped! :)