The correct answer is option (A.) mitochondria
If a cell is exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide will be found within the mitochondria.
Heme-containing proteins include Fe3+, which cyanide binds to. As a result, the electron transport chain's terminal cytochrome complex IV is inhibited. Cyanide's blockade of complex IV depletes ATP, which leads to cell death. Cytochrome a3 that has been reduced cannot be reoxidized by oxygen. As a result, both cellular respiration and ATP generation are hindered, effectively depriving the cells, tissues, and ultimately the entire body of oxygen. Reduced oxygen saturation and metabolic acidosis develop as a result of hypoxia. The severity of cyanide poisoning is indicated by the degree of lactic acidosis. Plasma lactate is a sign of cyanide poisoning in a collapsed person. Up to 98% of the cyanide in the bloodstream in cases of severe cyanide poisoning is securely attached to red blood cells.
Myocardial depression and a decrease in cardiac output are the secondary responses. The development of VF and cardiovascular collapse follows bradycardia, hypotension, and cardiac arrhythmia.
The autonomic shock brought on by the production of biogenic amines plays a part in severe cyanide poisoning. The observed shock-like state is not due to cytochrome oxidase inhibition, but rather to coronary artery vasoconstriction, which increases central venous pressure. Rhodanese in the liver converts CN to thiocyanate, which is eliminated in the urine.
The complete question is:
Cyanide binds to at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide will be found within the
a. mitochondria.
b. ribosomes.
c. peroxisomes.
d. Lysosomes.
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An area is contaminated with an element which has a half-life of 30 years. How long does it take until only 1 percent of the element remains?.
If the element has a half-life of 30 years, the time it takes only until 1 percent of the element remains is around 199.3 years.
Half-life is the time taken for an unstable isotope to decay into half of its original value.
Given that:
Half-life (t1/2) = 30 yearsInitial amount = N0Final amount = NN = 1% N0h = number of half-cyclesN = N0 (1/2)^h
N/N0 = (1/2)^h
N/N0 = 1/100 (since N is 1% of N0), so
1/100 = (1/2)^h
log (1/100) = hlog(1/2)
h = log(1/100) / log(1/2)
= log(100)/log(2)
The time needed = h * t/2 = log(100)/log(2) * 30 years
= 199.3 years
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Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of
a. adenine in DNA is about equal to the percentage of guanine
b. thymine in DNA is about equal to the percentage of adenine
c. adenine in DNA is about greater than the percentage of thymine
d. thymine in DNA is about greater than the percentage of guanine
Answer:
Thymine is about equal to the percentage of adenine.
(b) (i)
Write a number, 2, 5, 6 or 7, in each of the three boxes to answer this
question.
Which chamber of the heart:
pumps oxygenated blood to the head and body
receives deoxygenated blood from the head and body
receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
Left ventricle (LV) of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the head and body and right atrium (RA) receives deoxygenated blood from the head and body and left atrium (LA) receives oxygenated blood from the lungs.
To obtain oxygen, the circulatory system (cardiovascular system) pumps blood from the heart to the lungs. The heart then sends oxygenated blood to the rest of the body via arteries. The veins return oxygen-depleted blood to the heart to restart the circulation process.
Arteries transport blood away from the heart, while veins transport blood back to the heart. The circulatory system transports oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to cells while also removing waste products such as carbon dioxide.
The heart is divided into four chambers: two upper chambers known as the left and right atriums, and two lower chambers known as the left and right ventricles. It also has four valves: the tricuspid, pulmonary, mitral, and aortic.
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6. What is thermal energy?
A) energy from sound
B) potential energy in chemical compounds
C) the movement of electrons
D) heat
Answer:
D) heat.
Explanation:
"Thermal", as defined by Oxford Languages, is relating to heat. In the case of thermal energy therefore, it is simply referring to how energy would react to either the heat, or the lack thereof.
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which activty occurs in the process of photosynthesis
Answer:
The three episodes that occur during the photosynthesis cycle are: Light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll, which breaks down water molecules into oxygen and hydrogen. Light energy is converted into chemical energy. The reduction of carbon dioxide leads to the formation of carbohydrates.
Answer:
solar energy is harvested as chemical energy in a process that converts water and carbon dioxide to glucose
Explanation:
Mark ALL OF the statements that are true for DNA
a
bases held together by hydrogen bonds
b
bases are A, C, G and U
c
unzipped by helicase during replication
d
backbone of sugar molecule ribose and phosphate groups
e
found in the nucleus ofprokaryote cells
f
double helix
g
carries amino acids to ribosomes
h
bases are A, C, G and T
i
single helix
j
backbone of sugar molecule deoxyribose and phosphate groups
DNA is a double-helix molecule composed of two coiled strands. Each strand is formed by a sequence of nucleotides that carry genetic information. Options A, C, F, H, and J are TRUE.
What is DNA?DNA is a nucleic acid composed of two coiled strands, the double helix. This polymer is made of several nucleotides joined by their extremes that store genetic information.
Nucleotides are monomers containing a nitrogenated base, a phosphate group, and a sugar (deoxyribose).
Nitrogenated bases are purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (cytosine and thymine).
Adenine pair thymine through two hydrogen bonds, Guanine pairs cytosine through three hydrogen bonds.
During its replication, helicase is in charge of breaking hydrogen bonds and separating the two original strands, topoisomerase releases the tension between the strands, and DNA polymerase adds the correct nucleotides.
a) bases held together by hydrogen bonds ⇒ TRUE
b) bases are A, C, G and U ⇒ FALSE, bases are A, T, G, C
c) unzipped by helicase during replication ⇒ TRUE
d) backbone of sugar molecule ribose and phosphate groups ⇒ FALSE, the sugar is deoxyribose.
e) found in the nucleus of prokaryote cells ⇒ FALSE, prokaryote cells have DNA but not a nucleus
f) double helix ⇒ TRUE
g) carries amino acids to ribosomes ⇒ FALSE, tRNA carries amino acids to ribosomes during protein synthesis
h) bases are A, C, G and T ⇒ TRUE
i) single helix ⇒ FALSE, DNA is a double helix molecule.
j) backbone of sugar molecule deoxyribose and phosphate groups ⇒ TRUE
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which statement best describes the difference between cell division in plant and animal cells? a. cytokinesis occurs by formation of a cleavage furrow in animal cells, but not plant cells. b. chromosome replication occurs during interphase in animal cells, while in plant cells, replication occurs when the nuclear envelope disintegrates. c. cytokinesis occurs by formation of a cleavage furrow in plant cells, but not animal cells. d. centrosomes play an important role in spindle formation in plant cells, but not in animal cells. e. animal cells divide via the cell cycle whereas plant cells divide by binary fission.
The statement that best describes cell division in plant and animal cells is that cytokinesis occurs by formation of a cleavage furrow in animal cells, but not plant cells, which means that option A is correct answer.
Cell division is defined as the process in which cells of the organisms divide into daughter nuclei, in order for the multiplication of organism and sustainability of life. There are generally two types of cell division namely Mitosis and Meiosis. Mitosis is the process in which cell duplicates its chromosomal material and then divides it into two daughter nuclei. Meiosis on the other hand involves formation of eggs and sperm cells. Cytokinesis is defined as the method of division of cytoplasm due to which the genetic material and other organelles get divided into daughter cells. In plant cells, cell plate is formed during cytokinesis and in animal cell, cleavage furrow is formed and it deepens until daughter cells split from parent. It occurs during anaphase of mitosis process.
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what percentage of offspring will end up with a both homozygous recessive genotype and an expressed phenotype?
0 percent
50 percent
25 percent
100 percent
Option D. 100 percent, of offspring, will end up with a both homozygous recessive genotype and an expressed phenotype.
Concept:-
If two heterozygotes are crossed, the probability that an offspring will be homozygous recessive is 25% or 0.25. Homozygous dominant: 25% or 0.25. Heterozygous: 50% or 0.50.
If all games are homozygous than the offspring will be homozygous and same phenotype 100 percent.
The genotype of an organism is its entire set of genetic material. Genotype also can be used to refer to the alleles or versions a person includes in a specific gene or genetic place.
A genotype is a scoring of the sort of variant gift at a given region (i.e., a locus) inside the genome. it is able to be represented by way of symbols. as example, BB, Bb, and bb could be used to symbolize a given version in a gene.
A man's or woman's genotype is the combination of alleles that they possess for a particular gene. An individual's phenotype is the combination of observable characteristics or developments. even as an organism's genotype is directly inherited from its parents, the phenotype is simply motivated by using a genotype.
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note that urea is sometimes recycled, meaning it is reabsorbed in the medullary collecting duct and secreted back into the filtrate at the thin limb of the nephron loop. your instructor may want you to take this into account in your tracing of the urea molecule. if so, write the alternate path here:
A high osmolarity is produced by the urea recycling, which confines the majority of the urea in the medulla and aids in water absorption.
Describe the alternate path of tracing of the urea molecule.Urea molecules are carried by the blood as it enters the glomerulus; these molecules are subsequently filtered by Bowman's capsule before entering the proximal convoluted tubules. The Henle's loop receives the reabsorbed portion of the entering urea. The medulla of the kidney secretes urea into the lumen of the tubules in the form of a loop, bringing the concentration of urea to 100%.
From the loop, 100% of the urea enters the distal convolved tubules (DCT). Thirty percent of the substance in distal convoluted tubules is reabsorbed to the cortex, while the remaining seventy percent enters collecting tubules. In the medulla, fifty percent is being reabsorbed. The remaining 5% is reabsorbed by the arteries and vasa recta, which are connected to the nephron, while 15% is discharged as urine.
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The most common human health response to air pollution is?
A. inflammatory responses in sensitive tissues.
B. lung cancer.
Answer: correct answer is A Inflammatory response in sensitive tissues
Explanation:
The most common human health response to air pollution is inflammatory responses in sensitive tissues. Thus the correct option is A.
What is Air pollution?
Any unwanted substance entering into the environment degrades the quality of air and makes it difficult in breathing, causing various health issues is refers as air pollution.
Particles and some gases in the air that contribute to air pollution are produced by factories, soil, dust, mould spores, flames, volcanoes, and vehicle and smoke from truck emissions.
As air pollution is reactive, it has been demonstrated that breathing it causes inflammation of the airways. Your muscles can become weakened and your heart's arteries can constrict as a result of the immune system's reaction to the particles, increasing your risk of having a heart attack.
Therefore, option A is appropriate.
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______ synthesis begins at a site within a chromosome called the origin of replication.
The origin of replication is a location on a chromosome where DNA synthesis starts.
What is the name of the replication's origin?The ori is just where DNA replication starts, allowing plasmids to replicate themselves in order to live inside cells. Plasmids often use different replicons than the ones that are used to replicate the chromosomal DNA of their hosts, but they still rely on the host machinery to create more copies of their DNA.
Where does replication's synthesis start?DNA double helix unwinding occurs at specified locations, known as origins, where DNA replication begins. The production of a primer, a brief section of RNA that serves as the starting point for the synthesis of fresh DNA, follows.
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Hello! I need help!!
Will name brainliest!
Answer:
you sure this is biology? seams mor3 like history
Do think straw can be turned into gold
Answer:
no yes no
Explanation:
.ctv6bb 6 yeah sine yrah
how does the diaphragm help the alveoli do their job during respiration
Answer:
The diaphragm works together with the intercostal muscles of the ribs to help the alveoli by expanding the chest cavity, thus increasing the volume. As the volume of the chest cavity increases the pressure inside it drops, allowing air from outside the body to be pulled in and fill the lungs/alveoli.
The diaphragm helps the alveoli during respiration by creating changes in air pressure that facilitate the movement of air in and out of the lungs.
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the chest cavity, separating the thoracic (chest) cavity from the abdominal cavity. During respiration, the diaphragm plays a crucial role in facilitating the movement of air in and out of the lungs.
When the diaphragm contracts, it flattens and moves downward, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. This expansion of the thoracic cavity lowers the air pressure within the lungs, creating a partial vacuum. As a result, air from the external environment, which has a higher pressure, rushes into the lungs through the airways and eventually reaches the alveoli.
Alveoli are small, thin-walled sacs located at the ends of the bronchioles in the lungs. They are the primary sites of gas exchange, where oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses into the bloodstream and carbon dioxide, a waste product, diffuses out of the bloodstream into the alveoli to be exhaled.
The movement of the diaphragm creates changes in pressure within the thoracic cavity, causing air to move into the lungs and reach the alveoli. As the diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases, increasing the air pressure within the lungs. This higher pressure forces air out of the lungs and out through the airways during exhalation.
In summary, the diaphragm's contraction and relaxation create changes in air pressure that enable air to be drawn into the alveoli during inhalation and expelled from the alveoli during exhalation. This process facilitates efficient gas exchange between the alveoli and the bloodstream, allowing oxygen to be taken in and carbon dioxide to be eliminated from the body.
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what is the name of the enzyme that hydrogen ions flow through to make atp?
The enzyme that hydrogen ions flow through to make ATP is ATP synthase.
What is the process of oxidative phosphorylation?
During chemiosmosis, hydrogen ions are pumped across the membrane by a sequence of processes that make up the electron transport chain, creating an electrochemical gradient.
Only a membrane protein known as ATP synthase allows hydrogen ions in the matrix space to pass through the inner mitochondrial membrane.
ADP is converted into ATP by ATP synthase as protons pass through.
Oxidative phosphorylation describes the process by which ATP is produced in mitochondria by chemiosmosis.
What is ATP synthase?
Adenosine triphosphate, an energy storage molecule, is made from adenosine diphosphate and inorganic phosphate by the enzyme ATP synthase. As it modifies ADP by forming a P-O bond, it is categorized as a ligase. A molecular device is called ATP synthase.
Hence, ATP synthase is the enzyme that hydrogen ions flows through to make ATP
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A species of mouse that was once killed.by a certain disease is now resistant to the disease? Which state,e explains how
this most likely happened?
Th mice had no genetic variation so they were able to eventually resist the disease together
Some individual mice grew stronger so they could resist the disease and pass the resistance to their offspring
The mouse species wanted to change its genes so it could resist the disease
Some individual mice that were resistant to the disease survived and reproduced offspring. Those that weren't resistant died.
A species of mouse which was once killed by a certain disease is now resistant to the disease because some individual mice that were resistant to the disease survived and reproduced offspring. Those that weren't resistant died. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is the transfer of resistant genes?Resistant genes is the gene which contains the information for the production of a protein that makes an antibiotic ineffective on that organism and hence confers resistance against that antibiotic to a pathogen.
The transfer of resistant genes can occur in organisms. Acquired resistance from the parents can occur through horizontal transfer of genes between the bacterial species, or by vertical transmission that can occur between mother and offspring at birth and during lactation period, or spontaneously due to the exposure to an antibiotic. These genes help the organism to survive in the antibiotic medium and produce offspring.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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A ______ is synthesized from cholesterol and can diffuse across the plasma membrane.
A Steroid hormone is synthesized from cholesterol and can diffuse throughout the plasma membrane.
Steroid hormones are derived from LDL cholesterol and therefore can with no trouble diffuse via the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane to reach the intracellular receptor.
The steroid hormones synthesized in the adrenal cortex, the gonads, and the placenta are all derived from LDL cholesterol and many are of medical significance.
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Need help with 5 and 6 please they the last one
5.) B
6.) B
Explanation: For question 6, they'd move apart.
Some students are playing ultimate frisbee in a grass field. After their game, they forget a frisbee on the field. The frisbee is dark black and therefore zero PAR (photosynthetically active radiation) passes through the frisbee. Is the following statement true or false? Why? The grass under the frisbee will be metabolically inactive until the frisbee is removed during the next day' s game.
a. The statement is false. Plants can rely on stored energy and be metabolically active even in the absence of sunlight
b. The statement is false. Plants have associations with other organisms and therefore will almost never be metabolically inactive.
c. The statement is true. Plants require sunlight, water, and CO2 to photosynthesize.
d. The statement is true. Plants go dormant when they do not have access to light
e. The statement is false. Plants can use heat energy to photosynthesize, and the black frisbee will heat up as it absorbs PAR.
False, plants also store energy and exhibit respiration and plants use this stored energy to function.
Photosynthesis is a process that plants and other organisms use to convert light energy into chemical energy that can then be released to fuel the organism's activities via cellular respiration. The pea pod used sunlight energy to build sugar molecules with the help of carbon dioxide and water. When the rabbit ate the pea pod, it received energy from the sun that was stored in the plant's sugar molecules.
Photosynthesis' primary function is to convert solar energy into chemical energy and then store that chemical energy for later use. This process powers the majority of the planet's living systems.
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Which type of plant separates initial co2 fixation and the calvin cycle by time?.
C4 plants separate initial co2 fixation and the Calvin cycle in time.
By utilizing an additional enzyme termed PEP during the initial stage of carbon fixation, C4 plants, such as maize, sugarcane, and sorghum, avoid photorespiration. This process happens in the mesophyll cells, which are close to the stomata where oxygen and carbon dioxide enter the plant.
The primary difference between C3 and C4 photosynthesis is that C3 photosynthesis uses the Calvin cycle to produce a three-carbon compound, and C4 photosynthesis uses the Calvin cycle to produce an intermediate four-carbon compound that splits into a three-carbon compound.
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at what point of an embryos development does its brand new neural structures turn on or quicken activating the senses of the body
Once stem cells turn into nerve and glial cells.
The outer trophoblast will form structures that will aid the growing embryo's implantation in the mother's uterus. Because the inner cell mass continues to differentiate and parts of it will eventually become the embryo, it is sometimes referred to as the embryoblast (the suffix "blast" means "to make").
First, the zygote develops into a solid ball of cells. The blastocyst develops into a hollow ball of cells. The blastocyst implants in the uterine wall, where it develops into an embryo attached to a placenta and surrounded by fluid-filled membranes.
A multicellular organism's embryo is the first stage of development.
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What type of inheritance results when the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate between both homozygotes?.
It is known as incomplete dominance when there is an intermediate heterozygote phenotype between the two homozygote phenotypes.
What do genotype and phenotype exactly mean?Genotype refers to each person's unique DNA pattern. This phrase more particularly refers to the two alleles that a human received for a single gene. The observable manifestation of this gene is how a patient's disease presents clinically.
How may a phenotype be established?We examine the alleles of the parent organisms then predict the frequency at which those genes will be expressed by the offspring in order to determine a phenotypic ratio. Most of the time, we are aware of the expression and appearance of the alleles.
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what advantage might a segmented worm have over a non-segmented worm (e.g. ascaris) have in terms of movement?
Round worms lack a complete circulatory system, whereas segmented worms do. The circulatory system of a segmented worm includes blood, the heart, the capillary system, and hemoglobin.
Flatworms have a ribbon-like body with no cavity. Roundworms are worms with a body cavity but no segments. Segmented worms have a body cavity as well as segmented bodies.
The Annelida consist of segmented worms. They lack legs and a hard skeleton. Unlike mollusks, the bodies of annelids are divided into many small segments, similar to rings joined together.
The earthworm can move more easily if it is segmented. Setae are muscles and bristles found in each segment or section. When moving through soil, the bristles or setae help anchor and control the worm. The bristles secure a section of the worm to the ground while the rest of the body protrudes forward.
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for each glucose that enters glycolysis, _____ nadh h are produced by the citric acid cycle.
Answer: 6
Explanation:
Which of the following is an accurate comparison of watersheds and aquifers?
A.
one involves water collection above ground and the other below ground
B.
one involves small bodies of water and the other involves large bodies of water
C.
one contains water that is retrievable and the other contains irretrievable water
D.
one contains fresh water and the other contains saltwater
On the other hand, deeper (confined) aquifers are less likely to follow surface features and have watersheds (or basins) that are governed by geologic reasons. Thus, option C is correct.
What comparison of watersheds and aquifers?In general, surface aquifers (the water table) resemble surface-water watersheds, and their flow typically does not cross borders at the surface.
Due to the fact that groundwater flows from high points (where it divides) to low places, groundwater watersheds conceptually are comparable to surface-water watersheds (outlets, discharge areas).
Therefore, A watershed is made up of both the subsurface groundwater and aquifers that provide water to the network of streams that drains the surface land area.
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The asteroid belt is found between which two planets?
O A. Mars and Jupiter
B.
Earth and Mars
O C.
Jupiter and Saturn
OD. Venus and Earth
OE.
Saturn and Neptune
Answer:
I'm pretty confident it's Mars and Jupiter
Explanation:
I think it's 4 plants before and after the belt, and using the phrase "My Very Educated Mother Just Served Us Nachos", Mother and Just are Mars and Jupiter, so I think it's right
Answer: Your answer is A. Mars and Jupiter
Explanation: The order of the planets are Mercury Venus Earth Mars Jupiter Saturn Uranus Neptune and in between Mars and jupiter is the asteroid belt. Also I really like outer space and I want to be an astronaut when I grow up so I'm learning a lot about space. :P
Hope it helped :D
how active transport solve the problem
Active transport solves the problem because it can both import and export materials across the phospholipid bilayer.
Active transport is a critical process that allows cells to take in molecules or ions from the environment in defiance of the concentration gradient.
Moving molecules or ions across a cell membrane against a concentration gradient from one area of lower concentration to another is known as active transport. Active transport is necessary for this movement and requires cellular energy.
To move materials against a concentration or electrochemical gradient, a cell must expend energy. Active transport systems utilize energy, typically in the form of ATP, to maintain the right concentrations of ions and molecules in living cells. They do this exact function.
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We can learn about the climate of different periods throughout history by studying what aspect of the bubbles trapped in ice core samples?.
The earliest evidence that the concentration of carbon dioxide and the global temperature have been correlated for at least the last million years of Earth's history came from scientists' examination of the gases trapped in ice cores.
Ice cores can provide us with information about historical climate shifts?Ice cores provide direct data on past changes in greenhouse gas concentrations as well as direct evidence of the potential for sudden climate change in certain situations.
How do ice cores help us understand past climates?They gather ice cores in numerous locations all over the planet to research regional climate variability and to compare and distinguish it from global climate signals. They gather samples from the ice, known as ice cores, which contain a record of how our planet appeared hundreds of thousands of years ago.
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if the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose? multiple choice fatty acids urea amino acids ketones
Amino acids are converted to glucose during gluconeogenesis, if the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose
What is gluconeogenesis?
It refers to the synthesis of new glucose from noncarbohydrate precursors, and provides glucose when dietary intake is insufficient or absent. It is essential in amino acid metabolism, and synthesis of carbohydrate-derived structural components.
It principally occurs in the liver and kidney.
Example: synthesis of blood glucose from lactate in the liver during recovery from intense muscular exertion.
Let us discuss other options:
Fatty acid molecules are joined together in groups of three, forming a molecule called triglyceride.Urea is produced from ammonia through the ornithine cycle and it is excreted in the urine.Ketone bodies are readily transported into tissues outside the liver, where they are converted into acetyl-CoA (acetyl coenzyme A) which enters the citric acid cycle and is oxidized for energy.Hence through the gluconeogenesis process amino acids are converted into glucose when a carbohydrate diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs.
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What are viruses that do not need to attach itself to an existing file to spread?.
Worms as example of a standalone malware software that may replicate itself and spread to other systems is a computer worm. To propagate itself, malware makes advantage of the computer network.
It disseminates itself through the computer network. It doesn't require an existing software to attach itself to, unlike a computer infection. A worm can replicate itself to infect other computers, much like a virus can. A worm, as opposed to a virus, doesn't require attachment to an already-running program or a prompt before running. Malware, or malicious software, refers to software that has been programmed with malevolent intent. Anything from a virus, worm, Trojan horse program, or even spyware can be considered malicious code. Because it has the potential to damage your computer or mobile device, this code is harmful. Without your knowledge, it can access private computer networks, gather critical information, and even display intrusive advertisements.
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