DNA sequence differences, metabolism, and cell structures viewed under the microscope are ways that scientists identify and classify Prokaryotic organisms.
Prokaryotes are organisms whose cells lack a nucleus and other organelles. Prokaryotes are divided into two wonderful organizations: the microorganism and the archaea, which scientists believe have particular evolutionary lineages. maximum prokaryotes are small, unmarried-celled organisms that have a tremendously simple shape.
A prokaryote is an unmarried-celled organism that lacks a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. The word prokaryote comes from the Greek and . within the two-empire gadget springing up from the paintings of Chatton, prokaryotes have been categorized within the empire Prokaryote.
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the basic functional unit of the liver is the
The basic functional unit of the liver is the lobule.
What are Lobules?
Hepatic lobules are the minute, thin, profusely branched septa-like trabeculae that extend inwards from the Glisson's capsule and divide each liver lobe into polyhedral units. These are the structural and functional units of the liver.
What are the functions of lobules in the liver?
Each lobule is made up of numerous liver cells, called hepatocytes, that line up in radiating rows. Between each row are sinusoids. These small blood vessels diffuse oxygen and nutrients through their capillary walls into the liver cells.
Thus, the functional unit of the liver is the lobule.
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9.Anhidrosis is the inability to sweat normally. If the human body cannot sweat properly, it cannot cool itself, which is potentially harmful. Anhidrosis most directly interferes with
A) a feedback mechanism that maintains homeostasis
B) an immune system response to harmless antigens
C) the synthesis of hormones in the circulatory system
D) the enzymatic breakdown of water in cells
Anhidrosis directly disrupts a feedback system that maintains homeostasis.
How anhidrosis interferes with homeostasis?When ones sweat glands don't work properly, one have anhidrosis. This can be due to a congenital problem or a disorder that impacts our nerves or skin. Anhidrosis can also result from dehydration. It's not always possible to identify the cause of anhidrosis. This is because homeostasis, which is the capacity to maintain one's internal environment, prevents a person with anhidrosis from sweating and allowing their body to cool. Because negative feedback has the power to alter the response to a stimulus and prevent it from continuing, it has an impact on the negative feedback system that maintains homeostasis. The body reaches a point when it is unable to cool itself because to a loss in its capacity to react to heat stimuli.
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the sexual orientation of the mother does not necessarily affect the psychosexual development of children. true or false
True, sexual orientation of mother doesn't affect the psychosexual development of child.
What is psychosexual development?One of the first attempts to place psychology within the same scientific framework and technique as medicine was Freud's developmental theory on psychosexual development. Normative human sexual development was initially defined in order to achieve this union. Five separate stages of psychosexual maturation were identified by Freud. Each stage represents how the libido or instincts are focused on a particular part of the body (i.e., erogenous zones). One must move through each of the aforementioned psychosexual stages in order to develop into a fully-functional adult.
Each of the five stages has a corresponding age range, erogenous bodily location, and clinical fixation consequence according to Freudian psychosexual development theory:
Stage I: mouth, 0–1 year old.
Stage II: Bowel, and Bladder, 1-3 years old.
Age 3-6, phallic genitalia, stage III.
Stage IV: latency, dormant sexual desires, ages 6 to 12.
Stage V: 13–18 years old, mature sexual feelings in the genitalia.
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which of the following dna mutations is the most likely to be damaging to the protein it specifies? a. a base-pair deletion b. a codon deletion c. a codon substitution d. a point mutation e. a substitution in the last base of a codon
The base-pair deletion dna mutations is the most likely to be damaging to the protein it specifies.
What is DNA mutation?A mutation is a change in an organism's DNA sequence. Mutations can occur as a result of mistakes in DNA replication during cell division, mutagen exposure, or viral infection. Cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and sickle cell disease are all caused by hereditary mutations. Other mutations can occur on their own during a person's life. These are referred to as sporadic, spontaneous, or novel mutations. They only have an effect on a subset of cells. In gametes, germline mutations arise. Other cells in the body experience somatic mutations. Chromosomal changes are mutations that modify the structure of the chromosome. Point mutations affect only one nucleotide.
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Osmosis Activity
1. An animal cell is made of 50% water. The solution that surrounds the cell is
made of 50% water. Draw a picture that illustrates how osmosis will affect
this cell, and identify the type of solution this cell is in. Will this cell survive
in this type of solution? Why or why not?
Isotonic solutions contain the same volume of water and other dissolved substances as a cell's cytoplasm. When a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, water from the surroundings causes the cell to expand. However, it keeps its size and shape if stored in an isotonic solution.
When compared to the hypertonic solution, the cell contains more water. In isotonic fluids, equal quantities of impermeable solutes are present on both sides of the membrane, preventing the cell from expanding or contracting. The osmotic pressure of an isotonic solution, like the ECF, is equal to that of the ICF. In these circumstances, water continuously flows across the semipermeable membrane to maintain the equilibrium of the cell with its surroundings.
As a result, the solution type can be described as isotonic. This type of solution allows this cell to survive.
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what does the intrinsic growth rate of a species measure? how does it vary among species?
The intrinsic growth rate of herbal boom, is frequently interpreted because the most populace boom charge beneathneath given biotic (e.g., diet) and abiotic situations. The max ability for boom beneathneath best situations for a among species: R- excessive boom bc have many infants and K- Slow boom due to the fact do not have lots of infants.
The intrinsic charge of boom, as described withinside the exponential equation, isn't a consistent range in any respect however instead is itself a characteristic of the density of the populace. Genetic version is the presence of variations in sequences of genes among character organisms of a species. It allows herbal selection, one of the number one forces riding the evolution of life.
Implied Dividend Growth Rate = Cost of Equity – (Dividends Per Share ÷ Current Share Price). Species extrade over time; a few tendencies turn out to be greater not unusualplace, others less. This procedure of extrade is pushed through herbal selection. The tendencies that turn out to be greater not unusualplace are those that are “adaptive” or “boom fitness” (that is, a creature's possibilities of dwelling longer and generating greater offspring).
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Which of the following will not increase cardiac output?
a. increase venous return b.increase sympathetic activity C.increasing parasympathetic activity D. increasing blood volume E. increasing intracellular calcium in contractile cells
Increasing parasympathetic activity will not increase cardiac output.
Cardiac output is measured in liters per minute and is the product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV). HR is most commonly defined as the number of heartbeats per minute. SV is the volume of blood ejected during ventricular contraction or each heartbeat.
Cardiac output (CO) is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. It is determined by dividing the stroke volume by the heart rate.
In calm "rest and digest" situations, the parasympathetic nervous system predominates, whereas the sympathetic nervous system drives the "fight or flight" response in stressful situations. The primary function of the PNS is to conserve energy for later use and to regulate bodily functions such as digestion and urination.
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If you were Henrietta's great-grandchild, and you could go back in time, what would you tell her?
Answer:
Explanation:
What would YOU tell her simple question ask her anything at all like how was life or the family or how she understood life er somthing.
which of the following is a result of the different angles of the suns ray?
The result of different angles of the sun's rays is: (4) the seasonal changes.
Sun is the centermost part of the solar system. It is actually a star that is nearest to the Earth and hence appears very large. It is a huge mass of fire. Various planets revolve around the sun and this is the reason for variations in day and night on Earth.
Seasonal change is the result of Earth's rotation around its own axis. When the half part of the earth faces towards the sun it is summer and the other side has winter. The angle at which the sunlight falls determines the intensity of warmth at that region.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Which of the following is a result of the different angles of the sun's ray?
wind patternsthe composition of the interior of the earth.the existence of the moon. the seasonal changes.To know more about sun, here
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Answer: wind pattern
Explanation:
Which group of plants are responsible for pollen production during the allergy season?
Answer:
There are trees, grasses and weeds
Explanation:
order the following events from first to last in initiation of translation in prokaryotes.
1) 16S rRNA base pairs with the Shine-Dalgarno sequence
2) Initiator tRNA charged with fMet binds the P site on the 30S
3) 30S subunit binds near 5' end of mRNA
4) 50S subunit binds the 30S subunit
Answer:
Not sure but I think the answer is C. Don't quote me on it.
Explanation:
How are the dna replication products visualized during the sanger method of dna sequencing?.
The DNA replication products visualized during the sanger method of DNA sequencing are observed in which nucleotides are added.
Sanger sequencing is based on the process of DNA replication. A scientist creates a copy of his DNA strand. Then observe which nucleotides have been added. This way you can see the sequence of nucleotides. A laser excites the fluorescent labels in each band and a computer detects the resulting light.
Sanger sequencing produces extension products of various lengths ending in dideoxynucleotides at the 3' ends. Extension products are separated by capillary electrophoresis or CE. Molecules are injected by an electric current into a long glass capillary filled with gel polymer. Selective incorporation of chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides by DNA polymerases during in vitro DNA replication.
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This is often done using a denaturing polyacrylamide urea gel, with four reactions each run in one of the four lanes (lanes A, T, G, C). The DNA bands are then visualized by autoradiography or UV light and the DNA sequence can be read directly from the X-ray film or gel image.
In automated Sanger sequencing, a computer sequentially reads each band on a capillary gel and uses fluorescence to determine the identity of each terminal d dNTP. In essence, a laser excites the fluorescent labels in each band and a computer detects the resulting emitted light.
Sanger sequencing produces extension products of variable length that terminate in dideoxy nucleotides at the 3' ends. Extension products are separated by capillary electrophoresis or CE. Molecules are injected by an electric current into a long glass capillary filled with gel polymer.
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which of the following best describes a difference between generalist species and specialist species?
While specialists only utilize a small number of resources to thrive, generalists use a wide variety of resources.
What do generalists and specialists do?Generalists can survive in a variety of environments and eat a variety of foods. On the other side, specialists have a more constrained diet and more stringent habitat requirements. An illustration of a generalist species is the raccoon (Procyon lotor).
What does a generalist look like in practice?Generalist species are those that can thrive in a wide range of habitats and consume a variety of foods. The archetypal example of such a generalist species is the raccoon. Their distribution encompasses all of Mexico and South America. They are omnivores and can survive on a variety of diets, including human waste.
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most adolescents function at which of kohlberg's levels of morality?
Answer: Conventional morality
Explanation: is the second stage of moral development, and is characterized by an acceptance of social rules concerning right and wrong. At the conventional level (most adolescents and adults), we begin to internalize the moral standards of valued adult role models.
During photosynthesis, the energy used to pump protons comes from ___________, whereas in cellular respiration it comes from _____________.
During photosynthesis, the energy used to pump protons comes from light whereas in cellular respiration it comes from NADH/FADH2.
What source of energy does photosynthesis and cellular respiration use?The primary goal of photosynthesis is to transform solar radiation into chemical energy that can be used to produce food. The process of breaking down sugar in the presence of oxygen in the mitochondria of organisms (animals and plants) releases energy in the form of ATP.
What direction does photosynthesis pump protons in?the source of the electrons: photosynthesis uses H2O while oxidative phosphorylation uses NADH/FADH2. the chloroplasts' thylakoid space as opposed to outside the mitochondrion's matrix is the direction of proton pumping.
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Where is the cranial ganglia?
Answer:
along the roots of cranial nerves V (trigeminal), VII (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal), and X (vagus) as they enter the brain stem.
Explanation:
Cranial Ganglia is analogous to the dorsal root ganglion, except that it is associated with a cranial nerve, instead of a spinal nerve (associated with the spinal cord).
Where are the cranial ganglia?
The CG are located along the roots of cranial nerves V (trigeminal), VII (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal), and X (vagus) as they enter the brain stem.
How many cranial ganglia are there?
23 pairs of ganglia can be found.
What is the function of the ganglia?
Movement. The basal ganglia are a key part of the network of brain cells and nerves that control your body's voluntary movements. They can approve or reject movement signals that your brain sends, filtering out unnecessary or incorrect signals.
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what type of fossil forms when a buried organism decays or is dissolved, but the original shape is preserved in the sediment?
Mold is the imprint of organisms left on rocks. Creature remains are completely decomposed. The rock that fills the form resembles the original ruins. A fossil that forms in a mold is called a cast (pictured below).
Fossil fungi (multiple fungal fossils) A fossil that fills the interior and exterior of a dead organism with sediment, leaving no remains of the organism, only the shape and texture of the rock, indicating that there was organic matter there. . When animals die and their bodies decompose, they can leave traces in the sediment. When this trail fills with minerals from sediment or groundwater, it can harden and become a fossil. This fossil is called a cast fossil. Fossilized traces are called mold fossils.
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Which statement below best summarizes how G Protein Coupled Receptors function?
Group of answer choices
a. Ligand binding to the associated G protein will initiate the conversion of energy from GTP to GDP, thus activating the GPCR leading to a cellular response
b. Ligand binding to GPCR will activate an associated enzyme allowing for amplification of the signal leading to a cellular response
c. Ligand binding to the intracellular side of the GPCR will activate the associated G protein causing GTP to be converted to GDP thus allowing for amplification of the signal and a cellular response
d. Ligand binding to the extracellular side of the GPCR will inactivate the associated G protein causing GDP to be converted to GTP thus allowing for amplification of the signal and a cellular response
The statement below which best summarizes how G Protein coupled receptors function is that Ligand binding to the intracellular side of the GPCR will activate the associated G protein causing GTP to be converted to GDP thus allowing for amplification of the signal and a cellular response and is denoted as option C.
What is Ligand?This is referred to as an ion or molecule that binds to a central metal atom to form a coordination complex.
G Protein coupled receptors function by the signal present on the outside of the cell leads to a change on the inside of the cell via the ligand binding in which the associated G protein is activated causing GTP to be converted to GDP.
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What is the term for an organism's ability to maintain constant internal conditions.
Homeostasis is the term for an organism's ability to maintain constant internal conditions.
Homeostasis is the process by which the organism maintains a stable internal environment. There are different physical and chemical parameters found within the body of an organism.
The organism maintains these parameters to keep the internal environment stable. This homeostasis is influenced by many factors like energy, fluids, electrolytes, nutrition, and immune response mediators.
Body temperature regulation is one example of homeostasis. Suppose a person is walking under a hot sun, he is exposed to heat.
This person's body temperature raises. This signal will be sent to the brain. In response, the brain will signal the blood vessels and sweat glands.
As a result, the blood vessels will dilate. And the sweat glands will produce sweat. Thereby, the body temperature decreases.
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A test cross was performed on a pea plant to determine its genotype. The offspring from the test cross were 50 percent green, round seeds and 50 percent green, wrinkled seeds, What is the genotype of the pea plant in question?
Answer: The pea plant is heterozygous.
Explanation:
Since a test cross is performed on a subject that's displaying a dominant trait, you must cross it with a subject that has two recessive alleles. If all of the offspring are the same, then the genotype of the parent is two dominant alleles, because when doing a test cross, you'd have one dominant and one recessive allele for each offspring.
When you have a parent that is heterozygous, their dominant allele will pair with each recessive allele of the homozygous recessive plant and then the recessive allele of the parent will pair with each recessive allele of the homozygous recessive plant, thus giving you a 50/50 or 1:1 ratio. So if the genotype was signified as G, the pea plant would have the genotype Gg.
Which of the following groupings correctly identifies the classification of fungi?
Multiple Choice
a. Domain Eukarya, supergroup Opisthokonts, kingdom Fungi
b. Domain Bacteria, supergroup Opisthokonts, kingdom Fungi
c. Domain Eukarya, supergroup Amoebozoans, kingdom Fungi
d. Domain Eukarya, supergroup Amoebozoans, kingdom Plantae
e. Domain Eukarya, supergroup Rhizaria, kingdom Fungi
a. Domain Eukarya, supergroup Opisthokonts, kingdom Fungi
Flagellate cells, like the sperm of the majority of mammals and the spores of the chytrid fungus, push themselves with a single posterior flagellum. This is a frequent feature of opisthokonts. This characteristic is responsible for the group's name. Other eukaryote groups' flagellate cells, in contrast, propel themselves with one or more anterior flagella. However, flagellate cells have been lost in certain opisthokont groupings, including the majority of fungi.
The synthesis of extracellular chitin in the exoskeleton, cyst/spore wall, or cell wall of filamentous growth and hyphae, the extracellular digestion of substrates with osmotrophic nutrient absorption, and additional cell biosynthetic and metabolic pathways are all characteristics of opisthokonts. Each clade's base genera are phagotrophic and amoeboid.
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as fragment area size increases, the number of infected ticks per acre decreases. the number of infected ticks in a fragment size of 30 acres will be less than the number of infected ticks in a fragment size of 16 acres. there are over three times more infected ticks in the smallest fragments (1.2 - 6.3 acres) compared to the number of infected ticks in the second smallest fragments (6.4 - 11.1 acres). a decrease in the fragment area size causes more ticks to be infected there.
One method of preventing Lyme disease involves using acaricides on mice, deer, or other animals to reduce the amount of ticks.
What causes tick populations to rise?Ticks, land development, and climate change. Numerous spider species' tick habitats are likely expanding as a result of climate change. Because ticks are exotherms, which means that they don't maintain constant internal temperatures like mammals and birds, it may have an impact on the range of ticks.
How can ticks get sick?If ticks consume infected creatures like mice and other mammals, they may become affected themselves. When an infected tick bites a human and remains attached for a while, the disease may be transmitted.
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Deficiencies in folic acid are noticed first in rapidly growing cells, such as those in which areas?
a. Gastrointestinal (GI) tract
b. Bone marrow
c. Cancerous tissues
Deficiencies in folic acid are noticed first in rapidly growing cells, such as those in which areas like bone marrow. correct option is (B).
Here, you have a lower-than-normal number of red blood cells and these cells are abnormally large. These lead to a reduced amount of oxygen circulating in your blood and with time, having less oxygen in your blood can make you feel weak.
As we know blood cells are formed in bone marrow, the deficiency of folic acid is first seen in bone marrow.
This deficiency means not enough vitB9 in body
Folate is required for red blood cells and when body doesn’t have folate, bone marrow produce large red blood cells known as megaloblast. They are large and may not come out of bone marrow which results in less blood cells in bloodstream and hence the decrease in blood cells lead to anemia.
Symptoms of folate deficiency-
1. Tiredness
2. Shortness of breath
3. Pale skin
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modifications to chromatin can affect transcriptional activity by changing the accessibility of dna to the transcription machinery. the given descriptions are examples of various processes that may or may not cause remodeling of chromatin. match each description to the effect it has on transcriptional activity caused by chromatin remodeling.
Modifications to chromatin can affect transcriptional activity by changing the accessibility of DNA to the transcription machineryProkaryotic gene regulation:
Chromatin is the complicated genomic DNA with proteins referred to as histones, where every histone-bound DNA molecule is called a chromosome. but, chromatin now not handiest compacts the genome into the nucleus, but is also the mechanism controlling how the genome is examined from cellular to cell.
When the cell isn't dividing, the strands of DNA are known as chromatin and in mitosis after replication, the chromosomes have two chromatids. Chromatin is the indistinguishable mass of DNA molecules whereas chromatids are part of chromosomes connected to it with a centromere.
Chromatin fibers are coiled and condensed to shape chromosomes. Chromatin makes it feasible for some mobile processes to occur such as DNA replication, transcription, DNA repair, genetic recombination, and mobile department. humans regularly confuse these three phrases: chromatin, chromosome, and chromatid.
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compared to c3 plants, c4 plants group of answer choices do not use rubisco for carbon fixation can continue to fix co2 even at lower co2 concentrations and higher oxygen concentrations make a four-carbon compound, oxaloacetate, which is then delivered to the citric acid cycle in mitochondria have higher rates of photorespiration
Compared to c3 plants, c4 plants can continue to fix [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] even at relatively low [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] concentrations and high oxygen concentrations.
C4 plants get their name from the first product of [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] fixation, oxaloacetate, which is formed by the carboxylation of phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) by PEP carboxylase. The oxaloacetate is converted to other C4 acids (malate or aspartate) before being transported to the bundle sheath. Maize, sugarcane, pearl millet, sorghum, switchgrass, corn, and other C4 plants are examples.
C4 plants have the following characteristics: The distinction between light-dependent and light-independent processes. Carbon fixation (the process of using [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] to produce organic compounds) occurs in mesophyll cells. The Calvin cycle takes place in bundle sheath cells. The Hatch-Slack pathway is another name for the C4 pathway. It is one of three photosynthetic carbon fixation pathways discovered in plants.
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What is dna sequence that serves as a recognition and recruitment site for transcription factors & rna polymerase?.
The RNA polymerase enzyme is a large complex made up of multiple subunits1. The prokaryotic form of RNA polymerase has 4 subunits able to transcribing all types of RNA. In eukaryotes, these enzymes have 8 or greater subunits that facilitate the attachment and processing of DNA at some stage in transcription.
All eukaryotes have 3 special RNA polymerases (RNAPs) which transcribe exceptional kinds of genes. RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNA genes, RNA polymerase II transcribes mRNA, miRNA, snRNA, and snoRNA genes, and RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA and 5S rRNA genes.
RNA polymerase binds to a chain of DNA known as the promoter, found close to the start of a gene. each gene (or group of co-transcribed genes, in micro organism) has its personal promoter. as soon as bound, RNA polymerase separates the DNA strands, imparting the unmarried-stranded template wished for transcription.
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Why are soft-bodied organisms less likely to leave a fossil trace than hard-bodied organisms?.
Soft-bodied organisms are less likely to leave a fossil trace than hard-bodied organisms because soft body parts are less likely to be preserved (compared to, for example, shells, bones, and teeth).
What are fossils?Fossils are the remains of a prehistoric animal or plant, that turned into rock over ten thousand to million years. Paleontology is the study of fossils.
Generally, there are several ways that an organism's remains can be fossilized: buried in sediment or preserved in ice, tar, or amber. The environment affects the formation of fossils as well. An environment that can break down dead organism easily (like a rainforest) prevent fossilization from happening.
Soft body parts are less likely to be preserved because they're generally more susceptible to decomposition. Hard body parts (such as bones, shells, or teeth) are harder to decompose and to destroy, thus more likely to be preserved.(like bones, shells, or teeth) are less likely to be destroyed and more likely to be preserved.
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As part of his voyage on the beagle, darwin spent about 5 weeks off the coast of ecuador making observations on the?.
As part of his voyage on the beagle, Darwin spent about 5 weeks off the coast of Ecuador making observations on the Galapagos island.
Darwin was an English naturalist, geologist, and biologist. He gained popularity for his contribution towards evolutionary biology. He put forward the Theory of Evolution. He is most famous for this concept of natural selection.
Galapagos Island are the volcanic islands. These are famous due to the study carried out by the Darwin on the finches that lived over there. He studies these finches and gave the theory of evolution. The location of the island is on each side of the equator in the Pacific Ocean.
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What does a karyotype allow doctors to detect?
Karyotype test checks the chromosomes in the cell. A doctor is able to check the chromosomes of cells through the test of karyotype.
What is a chromosome ?It is the hereditary unit of a genetic expression where the chromosomes carry the genetic information in them through parents and the genes are the unit of inheritance in them.
An average person has a 23 set of chromosomes that is they are having total of 46 chromosomes among which 44 are autosomes and 2 are the sex chromosomes. Karyotype test helps to diagnose the number of the
chromosomes.
If there is another pair or extra chromosome copy present where the disorder might occur like down syndrome, turner syndrome or klinefilter as well.
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What alleles only show their effect if the individual has two copies of the allele?.
Recessive alleles show their effect if the individual has two copies of the allele.
Only when an individual has two copies of a recessive allele will its effects manifest. For instance, the recessive nature of the "blue eye" allele means that two copies are required for someone to have blue eyes. When a person carries two copies of a particular allele,the recessive alleles manifest their traits. Having the identical two alleles in this way is referred to as homozygosity. For the phenotype to manifest, the allele must exist in two copies.
When two genes in a pair are abnormal, a disease can only be caused by the abnormal gene. The term "carrier" refers to individuals who have just one faulty gene out of a pair. Most frequently, no ailment affects these persons. The abnormal gene, however, can be passed on to their offspring.
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