Mobile advertising has the potential to become one of the most effective ways to reach a target audience.
Based on consumer time spent using the media, the area in which US advertisers are grossly underspending on advertising is the mobile media. This is because people spend an increasing amount of time on their mobile phones, which is considered one of the most effective ways to reach potential consumers in a targeted and personal way. As a result, advertisers are looking to expand their mobile advertising budgets in order to reach consumers where they are spending most of their time, and to do so with targeted and personalized content. This means that mobile advertising has the potential to become one of the most effective ways to reach a target audience.
To know more about budgets visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31952035
#SPJ11
You purchase a bond for $800 that has a face value of $1,000. It pays $70 a year (i.e., the annual coupon is 7%), and the bond matures after ten (10) years.
What is the yield to maturity?
The yield to maturity is 10%.
To calculate the yield to maturity (YTM) of a bond, you want to consider the price tag, face esteem, coupon payments, and the time to maturity. In this case, we have:
Purchase price (P) = $800
Face esteem (F) = $1,000
Yearly coupon installment (C) = $70
Number of years to development (n) = 10
To compute the YTM, we can utilize the recipe:
YTM = [(C + (F - P)/n)/((F + P)/2)] * 100 percent
We should connect the qualities:
YTM = [(70 + (1,000 - 800)/10)/((1,000 + 800)/2)] * 100 percent
Working on the situation:
YTM = [(70 + 20)/900] * 100 percent
YTM = (90/900) * 100 percent
YTM = 0.1 * 100 percent
YTM = 10%
Learn more about bond:
https://brainly.com/question/14484766
#SPJ4
Explain the differences between a target zone agreement and a fixed exchange rate and between a target zone agreement and a monetary union.
Provide an example of a target zone agreement, briefly explain how it ended, and why, and in particular, why it is pretty frequent for these arrangements to fail?
B. (10 points)
First, explain how a country can join the European Monetary Union. Then, explain how monetary policy is run in this currency area.
An example of target zone agreement is the European Exchange Rate Mechanism (ERM).A country can join the European Monetary Union (EMU) by fulfilling the Maastricht criteria.
A target zone agreement is a two-sided agreement whereby two or more nations' central banks work to maintain their currencies within a specific exchange rate range.
A fixed exchange rate system is a system in which the value of a currency is kept constant relative to a reference currency. Finally, a monetary union refers to a region in which two or more countries have agreed to use a single currency as a legal tender.
To put it another way, a target zone agreement is a hybrid of a fixed exchange rate system and a floating exchange rate system, while a monetary union is a different kind of agreement. It’s a permanent agreement that entails the relinquishing of the nation’s currency and monetary policy.
One well-known instance of a target zone agreement is the European Exchange Rate Mechanism (ERM). The ERM is a two-sided arrangement between member countries of the European Union (EU) that allows them to keep their currencies within a specific exchange rate range with respect to each other. The ERM began on March 13, 1979, and was meant to help maintain currency stability in the EU.
It ended when the UK government withdrew from the agreement on September 16, 1992, following an unsuccessful effort to maintain the value of the pound sterling in the agreement.The most frequent cause of target zone agreement failures is the lack of commitment by one of the parties to maintain the set exchange rate, causing the other party to lose faith in the agreement and potentially forcing it to withdraw from the agreement.
A country can join the European Monetary Union (EMU) by fulfilling the Maastricht criteria. The criteria are: sound fiscal policy, a low budget deficit and low public debt, price stability, long-term interest rates at a level similar to that of other countries, and the independence of the central bank.
The European Central Bank (ECB) is in charge of monetary policy in the currency area. It establishes interest rates, conducts open market operations, and oversees the money supply. The goal of the ECB is to maintain price stability in the region by keeping inflation rates below, but close to, 2 percent per year.
Learn more about a target zone agreement here https://brainly.com/question/32692109
#SPJ11
Life Lesson #1
SIX P's of life:
Prior
Proper
Planning
Prevents
Poor
Performance
Life Lesson #1 is "Proper Planning Prevents Poor Performance."
The SIX P's of life are Prior, Proper, Planning, Prevents, Poor, Performance. It means that if you are well planned and have prepared for everything, then you are unlikely to make mistakes or fall behind. The following are the SIX P's of life:
Prior: The first P stands for Prior. It means to prioritize things that are important in life. Before you start anything, make sure you know what you want to achieve and set priorities. Knowing your priorities will help you manage your time and focus on important tasks.Proper: Proper is the second P in the series.
It means to ensure that you have the necessary skills, resources, and tools to complete a job. Proper preparation is essential for achieving success.Planning: Planning is the third P. Planning involves breaking down your objectives into smaller, more manageable tasks. When you break things down into smaller steps, it becomes much easier to achieve your objectives.
To know more about planning here
https://brainly.com/question/25453419
#SPJ11
McGraw-HIN is considering a project that has the following cash now data. Determine the project's payback period and discounted payback period WACC: 896 Year Cash flows -$1,800 $750 600S $550 400
The payback period is approximately 3 years and 2 months
The discounted payback period is approximately 4 years and 5.3 months.
Given:
WACC: 8.96%
Year 0: -$1,800
Year 1: $750
Year 2: $600
Year 3: $550
Year 4: $400
Step 1: Calculate the cumulative cash flows:
Year 0: -$1,800
Year 1: -$1,800 + $750 = -$1,050
Year 2: -$1,050 + $600 = -$450
Year 3: -$450 + $550 = $100
Year 4: $100 + $400 = $500
Step 2: Calculate the payback period:
The payback period is the number of years it takes to recover the initial investment. In this case, the initial investment is $1,800. To determine the payback period, we find the year in which the cumulative cash flows become positive.
The cumulative cash flow is positive in Year 3. However, there is a remaining cash flow of $100 in Year 3 that needs to be recovered. To calculate the fractional payback period:
Fractional Payback Period = (Number of years) + (Remaining cash flow / Cash flow in the next year)
Fractional Payback Period = 3 + (100 / 550) = 3.18 years
Therefore, the payback period is approximately 3 years and 2 months.
Step 3: Calculate the discounted cash flows:
To calculate the discounted cash flows, we multiply each cash flow by its present value factor, which is calculated using the WACC.
Year 0: -$1,800 / (1 + 0.0896)^0 = -$1,800
Year 1: $750 / (1 + 0.0896)^1 = $689.88
Year 2: $600 / (1 + 0.0896)^2 = $500.37
Year 3: $550 / (1 + 0.0896)^3 = $428.99
Year 4: $400 / (1 + 0.0896)^4 = $323.23
Step 4: Calculate the cumulative discounted cash flows:
Year 0: -$1,800
Year 1: -$1,800 + $689.88 = -$1,110.12
Year 2: -$1,110.12 + $500.37 = -$609.75
Year 3: -$609.75 + $428.99 = -$180.76
Year 4: -$180.76 + $323.23 = $142.47
Step 5: Calculate the discounted payback period:
Similar to the payback period, the discounted payback period is the number of years it takes to recover the initial investment using discounted cash flows. In this case, the initial investment is $1,800. We need to find the year in which the cumulative discounted cash flows become positive.
The cumulative discounted cash flow is positive in Year 4. However, there is a remaining discounted cash flow of $142.47 in Year 4 that needs to be recovered. To calculate the fractional discounted payback period:
Fractional Discounted Payback Period = (Number of years) + (Remaining discounted cash flow / Discounted cash flow in the next year)
Fractional Discounted Payback Period = 4 + (142.47 / 323.23) = 4.44 years
Therefore, the discounted payback period is approximately 4 years and 5.3 months.
To summarize:
The payback period is approximately 3 years and 2 monthS.
know more about payback period here,
https://brainly.com/question/30389220
#SPJ11
How can the Bank of Canada's desire to prevent high interest rates cause inflation?
OA. To reduce interest rates, the Bank of Canada must buy bonds, which increases the money supply.
O B. Reducing interest rates increases government budget deficits, causing crowding out.
O C. When the Bank of Canada reduces interest rates, bank borrowing increases, which reduces risk.
OD. Reducing interest rates increases investment, which increases aggregate demand.
Increased aggregate demand in the economy, leading to higher prices. Thus, lowering interest rates, while useful in times of economic slowdown, can lead to inflation.
The Bank of Canada is responsible for making monetary policy decisions in the country. The bank's desire to prevent high interest rates can lead to inflation in the following ways. The Bank of Canada aims to control inflation by maintaining interest rates at an optimal level.
When inflation is high, the bank raises interest rates to make borrowing more expensive, reducing the money supply in the economy, which reduces demand. This helps to stabilize prices.However, when the bank wants to reduce interest rates to stimulate the economy, this can lead to inflation. To reduce interest rates, the bank buys government bonds from banks, increasing the money supply in the economy.
As the money supply increases, the value of money decreases, leading to an increase in prices in the economy. This is known as demand-pull inflation.Reducing interest rates increases investment, which increases aggregate demand, leading to higher prices. When interest rates are lower, borrowing becomes cheaper, and people and companies borrow more to invest.
To know more about economic visit:
https://brainly.com/question/14355320
#SPJ11
Which of the following are forms of competitions. a. Monopoly
and Pure competition b. Oligopoly and Entry c. Monopolistic
competition and monopoly d. Oligopoly and pure competition e. All
of the above
e. All of the above. All the options listed represent forms of competition in different market structures.
Monopoly is a term used to describe a market structure in which there is only one seller or producer of a good and there are no close substitutes. The monopolist may regulate prices and output thanks to the absence of competition.
On the other hand, a market structure that is characterized by a high number of sellers and buyers, homogeneous products, and ease of entry and departure is known as pure competition. Individual buyers or sellers have little control over market pricing in a market where there is only competition.
Learn more about competition:
brainly.com/question/30526078
#SPJ4
Suppose a large number of market participants own CDOs that are backed by different types and quality of loans. Viewed through the lens of the Markets for Lemons model, explain how the market for CDOs can freeze up if a large fraction individuals default on their home loans, university tuition loans, etc.
The market for CDOs, the outcome of a "lemon" problem might become apparent if a large fraction of individuals defaults on their university tuition loans, home loans, and other types of loans is the answer.
The "markets for lemons" is a term used to explain how adverse selection can result in market failure. In a market with lemons, poor-quality goods flood the market because there is no efficient method to differentiate between high- and low-quality goods. Suppose a large number of market participants own collateralized debt obligations (CDOs) that are backed by various types and quality of loans. In the case of the market for CDOs, the outcome of a "lemon" problem might become apparent if a large fraction of individuals defaults on their university tuition loans, home loans, and other types of loans.
A large number of defaults lowers the value of the CDOs and, as a result, the market becomes frozen. Lenders provide loans to a diverse group of individuals, including people with strong and poor credit scores. As a result, the pool of assets underlying the CDOs contains a variety of loan qualities. When a large fraction of individuals defaults, the credit quality of the assets in the CDOs is lowered, causing the market for CDOs to freeze up. When individuals are unable to make their payments on time or default on their loans, it becomes evident that the market for CDOs is impaired, resulting in the entire system's malfunction.
know more about collateralized debt obligations
https://brainly.com/question/31111892
#SPJ11
your discount brokerage firm charges $8.60 per stock trade. how much money do you need to buy 300 shares of pfizer, incorporated (pfe), which trades at $38.22?
The total amount of money needed to buy 300 shares of Pfizer Incorporated (PFE) which trades at $38.22 including the commission charged by the discount brokerage firm is $14,046.
To calculate the cost of 1 share, we will multiply the number of shares by the price of 1 share.
Cost of 1 share = $38.22 × 1= $38.22
To calculate the cost of 300 shares, we will multiply the cost of 1 share by the number of shares.Cost of 300 shares = $38.22 × 300= $11,466
Therefore, the cost of buying 300 shares of Pfizer Incorporated (PFE) which trades at $38.22 is $11,466.
As we know, that the discount brokerage firm charges $8.60 per stock trade. Therefore, the total amount of money needed to buy 300 shares of Pfizer Incorporated (PFE) which trades at $38.22 including the commission charged by the discount brokerage firm is:
Total cost = cost of shares + commission
Total cost = $11,466 + (300 × $8.60)
Total cost = $11,466 + $2,580
Total cost = $14,046
Learn more about PFE at:
https://brainly.com/question/17447689
#SPJ11
which music streaming is profitable? multiple choice adswizz the music genome project none of the answer choices are correct spotify pandora
Among the provided answer choices, Pandora is a music streaming service that has been known to generate profits. Pandora offers a free tier supported by ads as well as a premium subscription service, which contributes to its revenue streams.
Profitability refers to the ability of a business or service to generate more revenue than its expenses, resulting in a net profit. In the context of music streaming services, profitability typically depends on factors such as the size of the user base, subscription rates, advertising revenue, and operational costs. Achieving profitability often requires a delicate balance between attracting and retaining users, negotiating licensing agreements with music labels, optimizing advertising strategies, and effectively managing expenses. Continuous innovation, providing unique features, and expanding the user base are key drivers for sustained profitability in the highly competitive music streaming industry.
A streaming service is profitable if it generates a profit for its shareholders. Spotify, for example, made a profit in the last quarter of 2019, but Pandora, according to reports, is still the most profitable music streaming service. Since its inception in 2000, Pandora has been able to generate a profit, which has helped it to expand its offerings. Pandora, like most music streaming services, has a free tier with advertising as well as a subscription model that removes advertising and offers additional features. Pandora's ad revenue and subscriptions contribute to its profitability. In addition, Pandora has found ways to generate income by offering tools to musicians that help them reach their fans.
Learn more about profits here:-
https://brainly.com/question/1078746
#SPJ11
To overcome the problems of its life insurance service
intangibility, Great Eastern uses tangible cues in its
advertisement. Explain how.
Great Eastern is one of the oldest life insurance companies in Asia. Despite this, it is not immune to the challenges of its life insurance service intangibility. Intangibility is a term used to describe the inability to touch or feel the service being offered. To overcome this, Great Eastern uses tangible cues in its advertisement.
Some of the cues the company uses include brochures and flyers, which are delivered to customers, allowing them to read through the contents of the company’s products at their convenience.Tangible cues are also employed in the company’s marketing campaigns. The company’s advertisements feature a range of images and designs that help to bring the intangible services on offer to life. Great Eastern also uses branding, which serves as a tangible cue. It uses its logo, colors, and other unique designs to provide a tangible representation of the intangible service being offered.
This creates a mental picture of the services offered, making it easier for customers to understand and appreciate the service’s value.Because life insurance is a highly personal and emotional service, Great Eastern uses testimonials as tangible cues. Testimonials from satisfied customers help to create a connection with potential customers, as they can relate to the experiences of other clients who have used the company's services.To sum up, Great Eastern uses tangible cues in its advertisements to help overcome the challenges of intangibility. These cues include brochures, flyers, marketing campaigns, branding, and testimonials.
To know more about advertisement visit :
https://brainly.com/question/32251098
#SPJ11
Appraise the relevance of the Lindahlian (Individualised) pricing scheme in the allocation of a public good in a Ghanaian local community. Explain the main challenges associated with the Lindahlian system in the provision a local public goods. Discuss the circumstances under which the private market forces are likely to solve the challenges of local public goods provision.
Lindahl’s Individualized pricing system has relevance in the allocation of a public good in a Ghanaian local community because it presents a more efficient and effective mechanism for generating revenues to support the production of public goods by enabling users to self-select based on their willingness to pay.
According to Lindahl, each individual pays a contribution that reflects the marginal cost of the good consumed by the community. Lindahl's contribution principle is that an individual pays a charge equivalent to the social marginal cost of the good consumed.In Ghanaian local communities, one of the main challenges associated with Lindahl's Individualized pricing system in the provision of public goods is that low-income earners are unlikely to be able to afford to pay their marginal costs, which could result in inequitable allocation of the public good.Moreover, the system is difficult to administer in a situation where the cost of collecting contributions exceeds the revenue generated by the system. Lindahl's system requires information regarding each individual's willingness to pay, but this information may be difficult to obtain.In instances where the private market forces are likely to solve the challenges of local public goods provision, the market forces of demand and supply may solve the issues related to the provision of public goods in a Ghanaian local community.Private goods are scarce and are subject to the market forces of supply and demand, which implies that buyers pay for the goods and sellers are compensated for their efforts in producing them. However, public goods are non-rival and non-excludable and, therefore, cannot be efficiently provided by the private sector.
know more about Lindahl's system.
https://brainly.com/question/31531317
#SPJ11
The preparation of financial reports on the enterprise for use by both internal and external parties is called: OA. Auditing. O. B. Managerial accounting. OC. Financial accounting. OD. Tax accounting.
The preparation of financial reports on the enterprise for use by both internal and external parties is called financial accounting. The correct option is C. Financial accounting.
Financial accounting is the process of producing financial statements that show the financial activities of a company to external stakeholders such as investors, creditors, and regulatory authorities. This type of accounting is concerned with the creation of financial reports to be used by external parties, such as stockholders and regulators.
Financial accounting is used to create financial statements that report on a company's financial performance over a specified period. The purpose of financial accounting is to give accurate and timely information to interested parties about a company's financial performance and condition. Thus, the correct option is C. Financial accounting.
To know more about accounting refer to:
https://brainly.com/question/26690519
#SPJ11
Quasar, Inc. sells clothing, accessories, and personal care products for men and women through its retail stores. Quasar reported the following data for two recent years:
Year 2 Year 1
Sales $4,095,300 $4,190,565 Accounts receivable 317,550 302,950 Assume that accounts receivable were $346,750 at the beginning of Year 1.
a. Compute the accounts receivable turnover for Year 2 and Year 1. Round to one decimal place.
Year 2: Year 1: b. Compute the days' sales in receivables for Year 2 and Year 1. Round interim calculations and final answers to one decimal place. Use 365 days per year in your calculations.
Year 2: days
Year 1: days
a. Accounts Receivable Turnover: Year 2 = 12.33, Year 1 = 13.51
b. Days' Sales in Receivables: Year 2 = 29.6 days, Year 1 = 27.0 days
To compute the accounts receivable turnover, we can use the formula:
Accounts Receivable Turnover = Sales / Average Accounts Receivable
To calculate the average accounts receivable, we can use the formula:
Average Accounts Receivable = (Beginning Accounts Receivable + Ending Accounts Receivable) / 2
Let's calculate the accounts receivable turnover for Year 2 and Year 1:
Year 2:
Sales = $4,095,300
Beginning Accounts Receivable = $346,750
Ending Accounts Receivable = $317,550
Average Accounts Receivable = ($346,750 + $317,550) / 2 = $332,150
Accounts Receivable Turnover (Year 2) = $4,095,300 / $332,150 ≈ 12.33
Year 1:
Sales = $4,190,565
Beginning Accounts Receivable = $302,950
Ending Accounts Receivable = $317,550
Average Accounts Receivable = ($302,950 + $317,550) / 2 = $310,250
Accounts Receivable Turnover (Year 1) = $4,190,565 / $310,250 ≈ 13.51
Now let's calculate the days' sales in receivables for Year 2 and Year 1:
Days' Sales in Receivables = 365 days / Accounts Receivable Turnover
Year 2:
Days' Sales in Receivables (Year 2) = 365 days / 12.33 ≈ 29.6 days
Year 1:
Days' Sales in Receivables (Year 1) = 365 days / 13.51 ≈ 27.0 days
Therefore, the answers are:
a. Accounts Receivable Turnover: Year 2 = 12.33, Year 1 = 13.51
b. Days' Sales in Receivables: Year 2 = 29.6 days, Year 1 = 27.0 days
To know more about Accounts click here:-
https://brainly.com/question/26181559
#SPJ4
Assume you have a one-year investment horizon and are trying to choose among three bonds. All have the same degree of default risk and mature in 10 years. The first is a zero-coupon bond that pays $1,000 at maturity. The second has an 8.3% coupon rate and pays the $83 coupon once per year. The third has a 10.3% coupon rate and pays the $103 coupon once per year. Assume that all bonds are compounded annually.
a. If all three bonds are now priced to yield 8.3% to maturity, what are their prices? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to 2 decimal places.)
The prices of the three bonds, priced to yield 8.3% to maturity, are as follows:
- The zero-coupon bond is priced at $609.05.
- The bond with an 8.3% coupon rate is priced at $1,000.
- The bond with a 10.3% coupon rate is priced at $1,251.21.
How do the prices of the three bonds, priced to yield 8.3% to maturity, compare?When all three bonds are priced to yield 8.3% to maturity, the zero-coupon bond, with its single $1,000 payment at maturity, is priced at $609.05.
The bond with an 8.3% coupon rate, paying an annual coupon of $83, is priced at its face value of $1,000. The bond with a 10.3% coupon rate, paying an annual coupon of $103, is priced higher at $1,251.21.
The difference in prices is due to the higher coupon payment of the third bond. Investors seeking higher current income may prefer the bond with the higher coupon rate.
However, it's important to note that the higher coupon payment comes with a higher price, which may affect the overall yield-to-maturity.
Learn more about three bonds
brainly.com/question/31641397
#SPJ11
Congress enacted a federal statute called the Ports and Waterways Safety Act that established uniform standards for the operation of boats on inland waterways in the U.S. The Act coordinated its provisions with those of foreign countries so that there was a uniform body of international rules that applied to vessels that traveled between countries. Pursuant to the act, a federal rule was adopted that regulated the design, length, and size of oil tankers, some of which traveled the waters of the Puget Sound area in the state of Washington. Later, the state of Washington enacted a statute that established different designs, smaller lengths and smaller sizes for oil tankers entering Puget Sound. Oil tankers used by the Atlantic Richfield Company (ARCO) met the federal standards, but not the state standards. ARCO sued to have the state statute declared unconstitutional. What result and why?
In the case of Atlantic Richfield Co. v. State of Washington, 557 F. Supp. 1240 (W.D. Wash. 1983), the court decided that the federal Ports and Waterways Safety Act preempted the state of Washington's statute that established different designs, smaller lengths, and smaller sizes for oil tankers entering Puget Sound.
Hence, the state statute was declared unconstitutional. Why the result was declared unconstitutional?The reason behind this is that Congress enacted a federal statute called the Ports and Waterways Safety Act that established uniform standards for the operation of boats on inland waterways in the United States. The Act coordinated its provisions with those of foreign countries so that there was a uniform body of international rules that applied to vessels that traveled between countries.
In pursuant to the act, a federal rule was adopted that regulated the design, length, and size of oil tankers, some of which traveled the waters of the Puget Sound area in the state of Washington. Later, the state of Washington enacted a statute that established different designs, smaller lengths, and smaller sizes for oil tankers entering Puget Sound. This means that Washington State regulation conflicts with the federal regulation under the Port and Waterways Safety Act.ARCO sued the State of Washington to have the state statute declared unconstitutional. Hence, the court held that federal law preempts the state law. Therefore, the State of Washington statute was declared unconstitutional.
To know more about Washington visit.
https://brainly.com/question/30215042
#SPJ11
The soft drink industry is dominated by TCCC and PSC. The market is worth $6 billion. Each firm can decide whether to advertise, but advertising costs $1 billion to any firm undertaking it. Moreover, advertising will create only negligible new demand as the market is already saturated. So, for the purpose of this question, assume that the market remains at $6 billion regardless of advertising. If one firm advertises and the other does not, then the former captures the whole market. If both firms advertise, then TCCC captures 60% of the market and PSC captures 40% of the market, but the advertising must be paid for. If neither firm advertises, then the market is again split 60:40, with 60% going to TCCC and 40% to PSC.
Draw the payoff matrix for this game where each player's payoff is equal to the value of market it captures less the cost of advertisement.
The payoff matrix for the game is:
TCCC\PSC Advertise Not Advertise
Advertise 2,000 5,000
Not Advertise 4,000 3,000
Explanation:In the given scenario, there are two companies: TCCC and PSC and the soft drink market is worth $6 billion. Each firm can decide whether to advertise or not. However, advertising cost is $1 billion for any company taking this step. Advertising will create only negligible new demand as the market is already saturated. Therefore, for the purpose of this question, assume that the market remains at $6 billion regardless of advertising. Let's assume that one firm advertises, and the other does not. In this case, the company that advertises will capture the whole market. Suppose both firms advertise, TCCC will capture 60% of the market, and PSC will capture 40% of the market. If neither company advertises, the market will be split 60:40, with TCCC getting 60% of the market, and PSC getting 40% of the market.The Payoff Matrix for the game where each player's payoff is equal to the value of the market it captures less the cost of advertisement is as follows:
TCCC\PSC Advertise Not Advertise
Advertise 2,000 5,000
Not Advertise 4,000 3,000Thus, the given is the Payoff Matrix for the game where each player's payoff is equal to the value of the market it captures less the cost of advertisement.
know more about TCCC and PSC,here:
https://brainly.com/question/29869831
#SPJ11
Sam and Lizzy are white maize meal-mealie production duopoly companies that face a market demand function given by P = 300 − 3, ℎ = + . denotes quantity produced by Sam and denotes quantity produced by Lizzy. Both firms have a marginal cost of R100. a) Derive the equation of each firm’s reaction curve. b) Find the Cournot equilibrium quantity per company, price, profit and thereafter show them in graph of these curves. c) Find the equilibrium price in the meal mealie market if it is perfectly competitive. d) Find the equilibrium price, quantity and profits if the companies colluded to form a cartel. (6 marks) e) Find the Bertrand equilibrium price in this market. f) Find the Cournot equilibrium quantities and industry price when Sam’s marginal cost is R100 while Lizzy’s marginal cost is R90.
Sam and Lizzy are white maize meal-mealie production duopoly companies that face a market demand function given by P = 300 − 3, = 1 + 2. Here, 1 denotes quantity produced by Sam and 2 denotes quantity produced by Lizzy.
Both firms have a marginal cost of R100. a) Derivation of the equation of each firm’s reaction curve:For Sam: π1 = [P(q1+q2)-C(q1)]q1Π1 = [300 − 3(q1+q2) − 100]q1π1 = (200 − 3q1 − 3q2)q1This is Sam’s profit function. Solving for q1, we get the reaction function for Sam:q1 = (200 − 3q2)/6For Lizzy:π2 = [P(q1+q2)-C(q2)]q2Π2 = [300 − 3(q1+q2) − 100]q2π2 = (200 − 3q1 − 3q2)q2
This is Lizzy’s profit function. Solving for q2, we get the reaction function for Lizzy:q2 = (200 − 3q1)/6b) Finding the Cournot equilibrium quantity per company, price, profit and thereafter showing them in the graph of these curves.To find the Cournot equilibrium, we must find the point at which both firms are producing their profit-maximizing quantities simultaneously. By the reaction functions above, we have q1 = (200 − 3q2)/6 and q2 = (200 − 3q1)/6.
To know more about meal-mealie visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31676790
#SPJ11
If a bank uses $200 of excess reserves to make a new loan when the reserve ratio is 15 percent, this action by itself initially makes the money supply: ________
If a bank uses $200 of excess reserves to make a new loan when the reserve ratio is 15 percent, this action by itself initially makes the money supply increase by $1,333.33.
The reserve ratio is defined as the ratio of reserves to deposits. If the reserve ratio is 15 percent, the bank must hold 15 percent of its deposits as reserves. If the bank has excess reserves, it can use them to make new loans. The reserve requirement is the ratio of reserves to deposits. The reserve requirement is usually set by the central bank of a country to control the money supply.
Banks must hold a certain amount of reserves, either as vault cash or on deposit with the central bank, to ensure that they can meet the demands of depositors if they need to withdraw their money. The money multiplier is the amount by which the money supply is increased for every dollar increase in reserves. The money multiplier is calculated as follows:
Money multiplier = 1 / reserve ratio
Suppose that the reserve ratio is 15 percent, and a bank has excess reserves of $200. The bank can use these excess reserves to make a new loan, which increases the money supply. The initial increase in the money supply is given by the money multiplier times the increase in reserves:
Initial increase in money supply = Money multiplier × Increase in reserves
Initial increase in money supply = 1 / 0.15 × $200
Initial increase in money supply = $1,333.33
Therefore, if a bank uses $200 of excess reserves to make a new loan when the reserve ratio is 15 percent, this action by itself initially makes the money supply increase by $1,333.33.
You can learn more about reserve ratio at: brainly.com/question/32654211
#SPJ11
the service industry represents about __________ of U.S. workers.
Multiple Choice
45%
25%
85%
65%
The service industry represents about 85% of U.S. workers. The correct option is c) 85%
The service industry is a sector of the economy that includes individuals and businesses who offer services to other individuals and businesses. This includes industries such as education, healthcare, finance, retail, food service, transportation, and more
.The service industry's main characteristic is that it involves offering a service to people instead of producing goods or tangible items like manufacturers. Service providers offer intangible services like education, legal services, healthcare, entertainment, among others.
Service industries tend to focus more on customer experience, so businesses must provide high-quality service to meet customer expectations. The service sector is the largest sector of the United States economy, accounting for around 85% of the total workforce.
It is an ever-growing industry as more businesses are starting to offer their services online, including e-commerce, which has significantly boosted the sector. Many of these industries in the service sector rely heavily on technology and the internet to connect with their customers and grow their businesses.
In conclusion, the service industry is an essential component of the US economy, representing approximately 85% of the workforce. This industry is continuously growing and plays a vital role in keeping the economy running by providing essential services to individuals and businesses.
Therefore, correct option is c) 85%
To learn more about service industry click here:
https://brainly.com/question/26521390#
#SPJ11
Perform a break-even analysis for the following scenario. Assume you sell toys. You have annual rent costs of $8,800. Your manufacturing and shipping of each toy costs $2. You sell each toy for $12. Please answer four questions according to the given information above: Question 1: list and calculate the three financial elements of break-even analysis in this scenario. Question 2: What is your break-even point? Question 3: If you sell 2000 toys, how much is your net profit? Question 4: If you have to pay sales tax (suppose sales tax is 10% of sales revenue), so then what is your new break-even point?
The break-even analysis is an essential aspect of business financial planning. It is a simple tool that helps a company to determine the number of products it must sell to break even. In this scenario, we are assuming that you are selling toys. Your annual rent costs are $8,800, and you sell each toy for $12.
Your manufacturing and shipping of each toy cost $2. We will now analyze the break-even analysis according to the given information above. Question 1: List and calculate the three financial elements of break-even analysis in this scenario. The three financial elements of break-even analysis are: Fixed costs Variable costs Revenue Fixed costs = $8,800Variable costs = $2Revenue = $12Question
2:The formula to calculate break-even point is Break-even point = Fixed costs / (Selling price - Variable cost)Substituting the values, Break-even point = $8,800 / ($12 - $2) Break-even point = $8,800 / $10 Break-even point = 880 toys
3: The formula to calculate net profit is Net Profit = (Revenue * Units Sold) - (Variable Cost * Units Sold) - Fixed Costs Substituting the values, Net Profit = ($12 * 2000) - ($2 * 2000) - $8,800 Net Profit = $24,000 - $4,000 - $8,800 Net Profit = $11,200Question
4: Since sales tax is calculated as a percentage of sales revenue, it is a variable cost. The formula to calculate the new break-even point is: Break-even point = Fixed costs / (Selling price - Variable cost per unit)Here, the selling price of the toy is $12, and the variable cost of the toy is $2. Since the sales tax is 10%, the variable cost per unit will be 10% of the selling price. Therefore, the variable cost per unit will be $1.2. The new break-even point is calculated as follows: Break-even point = $8,800 / ($12 - $2 - $1.2) Break-even point = $8,800 / $8.8 Break-even point = 1000 toys Thus, the new break-even point is 1000 toys.
To know more about business financial visit:
brainly.com/question/28644358
#SPJ11
bristol retail group begins the year with inventory of $57,000 and ends the year with inventory of $47,000. during the year, the company has four purchases for the following amounts. purchase on february 17 $212,000 purchase on may 6 132,000 purchase on september 8 162,000 purchase on december 4 412,000 required: calculate cost of goods sold for the year.
The Cost of Goods Sold (COGS) for the year is $928,000.
Cost of goods sold (COGS) is defined as the direct cost associated with the production of the goods sold by a company. COGS is the cost of materials and labor, but not the indirect costs such as marketing and distribution expenses. It is important to note that the inventory accounts at the beginning and end of the accounting period, as well as any purchases during that period, are used to compute the COGS of the company.
In this scenario, Bristol Retail Group's COGS would be determined as follows: COGS = Beginning Inventory + Purchases - Ending Inventory Where, Beginning Inventory = $57,000
Purchases = $212,000 + $132,000 + $162,000 + $412,000 = $918,000
Ending Inventory = $47,000Substituting these values in the above equation,
COGS = $57,000 + $918,000 - $47,000 = $928,000
To know more about Goods visit:
https://brainly.com/question/12802278
#SPJ11
If P10,000 is deposited each year for 9 years, how much annuity
can a person get semi-annually from the bank for 8 years starting 1
year after the 9th deposit is made. Cost of money is 14%
compounded
The amount of annuity that a person can get semi-annually from the bank for 8 years starting 1 year after the 9th deposit is made if P10,000 is deposited each year for 9 years, and the cost of money is 14% compounded is PHP 7,542.69.
Amount of deposit each
year = P10,000Number of
years = 9 yearsNumber of semi-annual payments in
8 years =
8 x 2 = 16Semi-annual discount
rate = 14% /
2 = 7%Now, to find the future value of 9 deposits made at the end of each year, we will use the formula:
FV = PMT x [ (1 + r)n - 1 ] / rWhere,
PMT = P10,000
r = Semi-annual interest
rate = 7% = 0.07
n = Number of
payments = 9 x
2 = 18FV = 10,000 x [ (1 + 0.07)18 - 1 ] /
0.07= 10,000 x 21.8905 /
0.07= PHP 3,109,371.43Now, we will find the present value of this future amount after 1 year, i.e. at the beginning of year 10, using the formula:
PV = FV / (1 + r)nWhere,
r = Semi-annual interest
rate = 7
% = 0.07
n = Number of semi-annual
periods = 2 x
8 = 16
PV = 3,109,371.43 / (1 + 0.07)16= PHP 1,356,534.88This is the amount that the bank would need to pay at the beginning of year 10 to settle the deposits made by the customer. Now, to find the amount of annuity that the customer can get semi-annually from the bank for 8 years, we will use the formula for present value of an annuity:
PV = A x [ (1 - (1 + r)-n) / r ]Where,
PV = Present value of annuity
A = Amount of annuity
r = Semi-annual interest rate
n = Number of semi-annual periods
PV = 1,356,534.88
A = PV /
[ (1 - (1 + r)-n) / r ]= 1,356,534.88 /
[ (1 - (1 + 0.07)-16) / 0.07 ]= PHP 7,542.69Therefore, the amount of annuity that a person can get semi-annually from the bank for 8 years starting 1 year after the 9th deposit is made if P10,000 is deposited each year for 9 years, and the cost of money is 14% compounded is PHP 7,542.69.
To know more about annuity visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32931568
#SPJ11
Calculate cash flow from operating activities for Year 2. Net income Amortization Intangible assets Accounts receivable Accounts payable Inventory Other current assets Operating working capital Other
Here is the calculation of cash flow from operating activities for Year 2:
The Cash Flow StatementNet income: $286
Add back:
* Amortization: $168
* Intangible assets: $52
* Decrease in accounts receivable: $25
* Increase in accounts payable: $10
* Decrease in inventory: $64
* Increase in other current assets: $5
Less:
* Increase in operating working capital: $30
* Decrease in other non-current liabilities: $40
= Cash flow from operating activities: $452
This calculation shows that the company generated $452 in cash from its operating activities in Year 2. This is an increase of $286 from Year 1. The increase in cash flow from operating activities is due to a number of factors, including:
Increased net income
Decrease in expenses, such as amortization and intangible assets
Improved collection of accounts receivable
Decrease in inventory
Increase in other current assets
The financial tenure of the company can be inferred by its proficiency in generating cash through its operating activities.
The presence of a favorable cash inflow from operating activities conveys that the firm is utilizing its primary business operations to generate adequate cash to meet its operational costs and fund its capital expenditures.
Read more about cash inflow here:
https://brainly.com/question/26389863
#SPJ1
The Complete Question
Calculate cash flow from operating activities for Year 2. Net income Amortization Intangible assets Accounts receivable Accounts payable Inventory Other current assets Operating working capital Other non current liabilities 261.0 286.0 136.0 346.0 Year 1 Year 2 156.0 168.0 52.0 46.0 865.0 890.0 340.0 350.0 234.0 298.0 200.0 195.0 34.0 33.0 340.0 280.0 60.0 72.0
Cash flow from operating activities (CFOA) is an important metric for measuring the financial health of a company. It indicates the amount of cash generated or used in the regular course of business operations. In Year 2, the CFOA can be calculated using the following formula: CFOA = Net income + Amortization - Changes in operating working capital Where,Net income is the profit earned by the company during the year.
Amortization is the expense incurred by the company to write off intangible assets. Intangible assets are assets that don't have a physical existence, such as patents, copyrights, trademarks, etc.Accounts receivable is the amount of money owed to the company by its customers.Accounts payable is the amount of money owed by the company to its suppliers.Inventory is the stock of finished goods, raw materials, and work in progress that the company holds.Other current assets are the assets that can be easily converted into cash within a year.Operating working capital is the difference between the company's current assets and current liabilities. It indicates the amount of capital required to operate the business.Other is the miscellaneous items that don't fit into any of the above categories.To calculate the CFOA, we need to calculate each of these components for Year 2 and then plug them into the formula. Let's assume the following values for Year 2:Net income = $100,000Amortization = $20,000Intangible assets = $50,000Accounts receivable = $30,000Accounts payable = $20,000Inventory = $40,000Other current assets = $10,000Operating working capital = $30,000Other = $5,000Using the formula, we can calculate the CFOA as follows:CFOA = Net income + Amortization - Changes in operating working capitalCFOA = $100,000 + $20,000 - (Accounts receivable + Inventory + Other current assets - Accounts payable)CFOA = $100,000 + $20,000 - ($30,000 + $40,000 + $10,000 - $20,000)CFOA = $100,000 + $20,000 - $60,000CFOA = $60,000Therefore, the cash flow from operating activities for Year 2 is $60,000.For such more question on trademarks
https://brainly.com/question/29354050
#SPJ8
Question:-
Calculate cash flow from operating activities for Year 2. Net income Amortization Intangible assets Accounts receivable Accounts payable Inventory Other current assets Operating working capital Other non current liabilities 261.0 286.0 136.0 346.0 Year 1 Year 2 156.0 168.0 52.0 46.0 865.0 890.0 340.0 350.0 234.0 298.0 200.0 195.0 34.0 33.0 340.0 280.0 60.0 72.0
refer to exhibit 26-5. the marginal revenue product of the first unit of labor is group of answer choices $2,500. $2,000. $200. $500.
In the context of marginal revenue product (MRP), it represents the additional revenue generated by employing one additional unit of labor. MRP can be calculated by multiplying the marginal product of labor (MPL) by the marginal revenue (MR) generated from each unit of output.
To determine the specific value of the marginal revenue product of the first unit of labor, you would need to refer to the specific exhibit or information provided in Exhibit 26-5. Without that information, I'm unable to provide a precise answer.
If you can provide additional details or describe the relevant information from Exhibit 26-5, I'll do my best to assist you further.
Learn more about marginal revenue product click here:
brainly.com/question/31519528
#SPJ11
Required information The following information applies to the questions displayed below. Bunnell Corporation is a manufacturer that uses job-order costing. On January 1, the company's inventory balances were as follows: Raw materials 79,000 Work in process 25,600 Finished goods 37,200 The company applies overhead cost to jobs on the basis of direct labor-hours. For the current year, the company's predetermined overhead rate of $12.25 per direct labor-hour was based on a cost formula that estimated $490,000 of total manufacturing overhead for an estimated activity level of 40,000 direct labor-hours. The following transactions were recorded for the year: a. Raw materials were purchased on account, $690,000. b. Raw materials use in production, $660,000. All of of the raw materials were used as direct materials. C. The following costs were accrued for employee services: direct labor, $440,000; indirect labor, $150,000; selling and administrative salaries, $260,000 d. Incurred various selling and administrative expenses (e.g., advertising, sales travel costs, and finished goods warehousing), $462,000. e. Incurred various manufacturing overhead costs (e.g., depreciation, insurance, and utilities), $340,000. f. Manufacturing overhead cost was applied to production. The company actually worked 41,000 direct labor-hours on all jobs during the year. g. Jobs costing $1,542,950 to manufacture according to their job cost sheets were completed during the year.
Bunnell Corporation is a manufacturer that uses job-order costing.
What is the financial information of the companyOn January 1, the company had the following inventory balances: raw materials $79,000, work in process $25,600, and finished goods $37,200.
The company applies overhead cost to jobs at a rate of $12.25 per direct labor-hour.
During the year, the company incurred the following costs: raw materials purchases $690,000, direct labor $440,000, indirect labor $150,000, selling and administrative salaries $260,000, selling and administrative expenses $462,000, and manufacturing overhead $340,000.
The company worked 41,000 direct labor-hours during the year. Jobs costing $1,542,950 were completed during the year.
Read more about job-order costing here:
https://brainly.com/question/24516871
#SPJ1
Which of the following is not a qualitative method for data collection?
A) depth interviews
B) observation research
C) experiments
D) ethnographic research
E) focus groups
Experiments are not a qualitative method for data collection. Therefore, option C is correct.
Experiments are not a qualitative method for data collection. They are quantitative research methods that aim to establish cause-and-effect relationships between variables by manipulating and controlling independent variables and measuring the resulting changes in dependent variables. Experiments involve structured procedures, data collection instruments, and statistical analysis to test hypotheses and draw conclusions based on numerical data.
On the other hand, qualitative methods are used to gather non-numerical data, focusing on in-depth understanding, interpretation, and exploration of phenomena from the perspectives of participants. They involve gathering rich, descriptive data through techniques such as interviews, observations, ethnographic research, and focus groups.
A) Depth interviews: These are one-on-one interviews conducted with individuals to gather detailed and in-depth information about their experiences, opinions, and perspectives.
B) Observation research: This method involves observing and documenting behaviors, interactions, and phenomena in their natural settings to gain insights and understanding.
D) Ethnographic research: This approach involves immersing researchers in the culture and context of a specific group or community to observe and understand their behaviors, beliefs, and practices.
E) Focus groups: These are group discussions conducted with a small number of participants to explore their perceptions, attitudes, and experiences on a specific topic.
Experiments are not a qualitative method for data collection. They are quantitative research methods that aim to establish cause-and-effect relationships through structured procedures and statistical analysis. Qualitative methods, such as depth interviews, observation research, ethnographic research, and focus groups, are used to gather rich, descriptive data and gain in-depth understanding and insights from the perspectives of participants.
To know more about Data Collection, visit
https://brainly.com/question/29602643
#SPJ11
How is surgeon block time maintained ?
Surgeon block time is a predetermined period when a surgeon can perform specific operations.
It's the period when a surgeon's availability is planned, and the schedule is created. Block time is reserved for a specific physician's use, allowing the surgeon to schedule operations with no interference from others. This ensures that physicians can perform operations at specific times that don't interfere with other scheduled surgeries or appointments. In order to maintain the surgeon block time, there are a few different strategies that hospitals and surgical centers employ.The most common method is for the hospital to appoint a scheduling coordinator, who is responsible for allocating block time to each surgeon. This is done on a first-come, first-served basis, based on the number of surgeries performed by each surgeon.
Another method is to utilize a computerized scheduling system that can automatically assign block time based on a number of different factors. This can include things like the surgeon's schedule, the complexity of the procedure, and the availability of other surgical staff. In addition to these methods, some hospitals also use a lottery system to allocate block time. This involves randomly selecting a certain number of surgeons to receive block time, regardless of their previous experience or performance. Ultimately, the goal of maintaining surgeon block time is to ensure that surgeons have the necessary resources and time to perform operations at the highest level of quality.
to know more about predetermined period visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32541885
#SPJ11
Which of the following statements about acceptance sampling is true? O A. Acceptance sampling is the application of statistical techniques to determine if a quantity of material from a supplier should be accepted or rejected. OB. Acceptance sampling eliminates the chance of accepting bad-quality materials. OC. Acceptance sampling limits the seller's risk of producing poor-quality materials O D. All of the above are true.
Acceptance sampling is the application of statistical techniques to determine if a quantity of material from a supplier should be accepted or rejected. The correct option is A.
Acceptance sampling is a widely used quality control technique that involves inspecting a sample from a larger batch or lot to make a decision about accepting or rejecting the entire batch. It is based on the principle that it is often impractical or too costly to inspect every single item in a large batch. By inspecting a representative sample, statistical techniques are applied to make inferences about the quality of the entire batch.
Option B, "Acceptance sampling eliminates the chance of accepting bad-quality materials," is not true. Acceptance sampling does not guarantee that bad-quality materials will be completely eliminated. It provides a statistical framework to make decisions about accepting or rejecting a batch based on the quality of the sample. There is always a possibility of some bad-quality items being accepted or good-quality items being rejected due to the inherent sampling and statistical nature of the process.
Option C, "Acceptance sampling limits the seller's risk of producing poor-quality materials," is also not true. Acceptance sampling primarily focuses on the buyer's perspective in assessing the quality of materials received from a supplier. It helps the buyer assess the quality of incoming materials and make decisions about accepting or rejecting them. It is not directly aimed at limiting the seller's risk of producing poor-quality materials.
Therefore, the correct answer is option A: "Acceptance sampling is the application of statistical techniques to determine if a quantity of material from a supplier should be accepted or rejected."
To learn more about statistical techniques refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/32520005
#SPJ11
The manager of the gift shop at Louvre museum decided that the optimal EOQ for one of the shop's souvenirs is 250 units. The annual demand of this souvenir is 4,881 units, and the shop opens 200 days a year. If the lead time for orders is 7 days, what is the reorder point?
The reorder point is 188 units.
Reorder Point: 188 units, The reorder point is the level of inventory at which an order must be put for replenishment to prevent a stockout (a zero inventory level).
The formula for calculating reorder point is given as:
Reorder point = Average daily demand x lead time + safety stock level
Average daily demand = Annual demand/number of working days
= 4881/200
= 24.4 units
Lead time = 7 days,
Safety stock = (maximum usage rate – average usage rate) x lead time
= (Maximum daily demand - average daily demand) x lead time/working days
= (1.5 x 24.4 - 24.4) x 7/200
= 0.51 (or 1) units
Reorder point = 24.4 x 7 + 1
= 188 (rounded off to nearest unit) units
Therefore, the reorder point is 188 units.
To know more about inventory visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31146932
#SPJ11
Dolly’s Diamond Mines in problem 1 has the total cost schedule in the table. Calculate the profit-maximizing levels of
1. Output
2. Price
3. Economic profit
4. Do Dolly’s Mines use resources efficiently? Explain your answer.
Dolly’s Diamond Mines in problem 1 has the following total cost schedule: Output (diamonds per day)Total Cost (dollars per day) 0100 1100 2100 3600 41000 51400 61800 72200 82600 93000 To calculate the profit-maximizing levels of output and price, we need to first calculate the total revenue and profit.
Total revenue (TR) can be calculated by multiplying the output (Q) and price (P): TR = Q x P Economic profit is calculated by subtracting total cost (TC) from total revenue (TR): Economic profit = TR - TC.1. To find the profit-maximizing level of output, we need to calculate the marginal revenue (MR) and marginal cost (MC) at each output level. MR is the change in total revenue that results from producing one more unit of output, while MC is the change in total cost that results from producing one more unit of output.
Output (diamonds per day)Total Cost (dollars per day)Marginal Cost (dollars per diamond)Total Revenue (dollars per day)Marginal Revenue (dollars per diamond) 0100-0100- 1100-1100- 2100-2100- 3600-150120300 41000-400800400 51400-2001100500 61800-200960200 72200-200660100 82600-20052080 93000-20036090 At output levels of 0 and 1, the marginal revenue is zero because there is no increase in total revenue from producing an additional unit of output. At output levels of 2 to 9, the marginal revenue is positive, but it decreases as output increases.
This is because as more diamonds are produced, the price of diamonds decreases. At an output level of 6, the marginal revenue is equal to the marginal cost, so this is the profit-maximizing level of output.
To know more about problem visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31611375
#SPJ11