Explain this picture ​

Answer:

Change the sign

Step-by-step explanation:

Asumming you are talking about the keep change flip method for dividing fraction, you would 1) keep 3/1, 2) flip the / symbol into * and 3) flip the 2nd fraction

Answer:

Actually, Corresponding angles are congruent.

Step-by-step explanation:

They are only supplementary in the special case where they are both 90°

Answer:

Option D

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we know that measure of corresponding angles are equal. So, corresponding angle are congruent to each other

Answer:

292.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D. [tex]-5 \frac{5}{6}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Add the values:

[tex]-3\frac{2}{3}+\left(-2\right)\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

[tex]=-\frac{11}{3}+\left(-2\right)\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

[tex]=-\frac{11}{3}-\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

[tex]-5 \frac{5}{6}[/tex]

Answer:

C. - 1 ½

Step-by-step explanation:

-3⅔ - x = - 2⅙

x = -3⅔ + 2⅙

x = -11/3 + 13/6

x = -22/6 + 13/6

x = -9/6

x = -1 ½

Answer:

1) Multiply the whole number part by the fraction's denominator.

2) Add that to the numerator.

3) Then write the result on top of the denominator.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Explanation

|

Step-by-step explanation:

you you multiply the whole number by the denominator and then add the numerator to that number.

Answer:

55.56%

Step-by-step explanation:

55/99=.5555555...

.55555...*100=55.555...%

55.56%

a) If f(y) is a probability density function, then both f(y) ≥ 0 for all y in its support, and the integral of f(y) over its entire support should be 1. eˣ > 0 for all real x, so the first condition is met. We have

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(y) \, dy = \frac14 \int_0^\infty e^{-\frac y4} \, dy = -\left(\lim_{y\to\infty}e^{-\frac y4} - e^0\right) = \boxed{1}[/tex]

so both conditions are met and f(y) is indeed a PDF.

b) The probability P(Y > 4) is given by the integral,

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^4 f(y) \, dy = \frac14 \int_0^4 e^{-\frac y4} \, dy = -\left(e^{-1} - e^0\right) = \frac{e - 1}{e} \approx \boxed{0.632}[/tex]

c) The mean is given by the integral,

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty y f(y) \, dy = \frac14 \int_0^\infty y e^{-\frac y4} \, dy[/tex]

Integrate by parts, with

[tex]u = y \implies du = dy[/tex]

[tex]dv = e^{-\frac y4} \, dy \implies v = -4 e^{-\frac y4}[/tex]

Then

[tex]\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty y f(y) \, dy = \frac14 \left(\left(\lim_{y\to\infty}\left(-4y e^{-\frac y4}\right) - \left(-4\cdot0\cdot e^0\right)\right) + 4 \int_0^\infty e^{-\frac y4} \, dy\right)[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle \cdots = \int_0^\infty e^{-\frac y4} \, dy[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle \cdots = -4 \left(\lim_{y\to\infty} e^{-\frac y4} - e^0\right) = \boxed{4}[/tex]

Answer:

10.5

Step-by-step explanation:

A=a+b

2h=2+5

2·3=10.5

Answer:

solution given:

let's see only in a right-angled triangle Δ ACD.

AC=3 units

AD=5 units

since Δ ACD is a right-angled triangle. It satisfies Pythagoras law

[tex]AD^{2}=AC^{2}+CD^{2}[/tex]

25=9+[tex]CD^2[/tex]

[tex]CD^2[/tex]=25-9=16

[tex]CD=\sqrt{16} =4 units[/tex]

Now

Area of rectangle Δ ACD=[tex]\frac{1}{2} CD*AC=\frac{1}{2}*4*3=6\: square \:units[/tex]

similarly,

[tex]\frac{1}{2} AD*CE=6\: square \:units\\ 5*CE=6*2\\CE=\frac{12}{5}=2.4 units[/tex]

since AB=CE=2.4 units

Δ ACE is a right-angled triangle. It satisfies Pythagoras law.

[tex]AC^{2}=AE^{2}+CE^{2}\\3^2=AE^2+2.4^2\\9-5.76=AE^2\\AE and BC=\sqrt{1.24} =1.11 units[/tex]

now

area of trapezoid=area ofΔACD+Area of ΔABC

=6+[tex]\frac{1}{2}AB*BC=6+\frac{1}{2}*2.4*1.11=6+1.33 =7.33\: square \:units[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: store b because you can get more ground beat.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the perimeter of the figure is 27.4 mi

Step-by-step explanation:

rectangle perimeter = 6+6+6 = 18

half circle perimeter = 1/2 2πr = 3.14 × 3 = 9.42

the perimeter of the figure is 18+9.42 = 27.42 --> 27.4 mi

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Pluck in the values, we have:

4.5/2.4 - 6 = 20/2 = 10

150−28w

i think i dont know

Step-by-step explanation:

Two t-shirts that are(31.80) plus a hat(6.20) cost £38.00.

which means that one t-shirt costs £15.90 :)

Answer:

the answer is number 1 !!

• correct me if I'm wrong

Answer:

66n-31m

Step-by-step explanation:

26n-7m+4(10n-6m)

26n-7m+40n-24m

66n-31m

Answer:

I feel like something is wrong with the equation but the answer is a = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

a + 3a - 3 = 6 + 3 = 9

--> 4a = 12 --> a = 3

Answer:

A. 511; 6

Step-by-step explanation:

The margin of error would be [tex]\pm\frac{517-505}{2}=\pm\frac{12}{2}=\pm 6[/tex]

The sample mean would be [tex]505+6=511[/tex] (or [tex]517-6=511[/tex])

Answer:

this is do confusing I do not understand

Answer:

-5.

Step-by-step explanation:

5 + -5 = 0, so i's -5.

Answer:

gek

Step-by-step explanation:

So basically what you have to do is first identify all of the sides or angles that equal eachother then you can see if you did a side side and side in a row etc, like 44 would be SAS because the vertical angles would be inbetween the two sides. 46 would be SSS because after you make the line in the middle for reflexive property you can see that there are three sides in a row. If this didnt help i recommend looking on Khan Academy

Answer: If angle A is congruent to angle E

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

P(A) = probability a student buys lunch = 60% = 0.6

P(B) = probability a student buys lunch and dessert = 10% = 0.1

We are looking at the probability that a student buys lunch and dessert on the condition that they already bought lunch. Therefore, we are looking at a conditional probability.

P(B given A) = P(A and B) / P(A)

= 0.1 / 0.6

= 1/6 ≈ 0.167

Answer:

70% right, 30% wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

3 is 30% of 10

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Drake has 2 houses and makes $50,000,000