Find the measure of each angles:
​

Answer:

2 + 1 = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows,

Berverly already has = 2 pens

Berverly bought = 1 pen

Then to show this situation in numerical expression, we have to add both values, then

= 2 + 1 = 3

Hence, this shows that the total number of pens Berverly has after buying is 3.

A Möbius transformation is a transformation of the form f(z) = (az+b)/(cz+d), where a, b, c, and d are complex numbers and ad-bc ≠ 0. The complex number z maps to f(z).

To find the Möbius transformation f such that f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1, f([infinity]) = 2, we follow these steps:

Step 1: Map 0 to 0 We need to map 0 to 0, so we set f(0) = 0. So, we get 0 = (a(0) + b) / (c(0) + d). This gives us b = 0. Step 2: Map infinity to 2We need to map [infinity] to 2, so we set f([infinity]) = 2. So, we get 2 = (a[infinity] + b) / (c[infinity] + d). This gives us a/c = 2/d. Cross-multiplying the terms, we get ad = 2c.

Let us assume that d = 1, then we have a = 2c.

We can substitute this value of a in the Möbius transformation, and we get f(z) = (2cz) / (cz + 1).Step 3: Map 1 to 1To map 1 to 1, we evaluate the Möbius transformation at z = 1. We get f(1) = (2c) / (c + 1) = 1.

Solving this, we get c = -1/2. Therefore, the Möbius transformation is f(z) = (2z) / (z - 2).

Hence, we have found the required Möbius transformation f(z) = (2z) / (z - 2) such that f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1, and f([infinity]) = 2.

Know more about Möbius transformation:

https://brainly.com/question/32734194

#SPJ11

Complete Question

Find the circumference of the pizza to the nearest hundredth.

When Diameter = 18 in.

Answer:

56.55 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

A pizza is circular in shape.

The formula for the circumference of a circle is given as:

πD

Where D = Diameter

From the above question,

Diameter = 18 inches

Hence,

Circumference of the circular pizza = π × 18 inches

= 56.548667765 inches

Approximately = 56.55 inches

The given parabola is a downward-opening parabola, its directrix is y = -1/2, and its focus is located at (0, -1/2).

The parabola represented by the equation [tex]-2y^2 = 4x[/tex] is a downward-opening parabola.

To understand the direction of the parabola, we can look at the coefficient of the [tex]y^2[/tex] term in the equation. Since it is negative (-2), the parabola opens downwards. If the coefficient were positive, the parabola would open upwards.

The equation of the directrix of a parabola can be determined by rearranging the given equation to the standard form, which is [tex](y - k)^2 = 4p(x - h)[/tex], where (h, k) represents the vertex of the parabola and p represents the distance between the vertex and the focus.

In the given equation, [tex]-2y^2 = 4x[/tex], we can divide both sides by -2 to obtain [tex]y^2 = -2x[/tex]. Comparing this to the standard form, we can see that the vertex is at (0, 0) since h = 0 and k = 0.

The coefficient of x in the standard form equation is 4p. Therefore, in our equation, 4p = -2, which implies p = -1/2.

Since p is negative, the directrix will be a horizontal line parallel to the x-axis and situated below the vertex. The equation of the directrix can be written as y = -1/2.

The focus of the parabola can be found by adding p to the y-coordinate of the vertex. In this case, since the vertex is at (0, 0) and p = -1/2, the focus will be at (0, -1/2).

In summary, the parabola represented by [tex]-2y^2 = 4x[/tex] is a downward-opening parabola. The equation of the directrix is y = -1/2, and the focus is located at (0, -1/2).

For more such questions on parabola

https://brainly.com/question/11911877

#SPJ8

There is insufficient evidence to support the claim that the training technique is effective in raising the gymnasts scores.

In hypothesis testing, we often use significance levels such as 0.01 to determine whether or not there is enough evidence to support the hypothesis.

Here is the solution to the given problem.

The null hypothesis is that the training technique is not effective in raising the gymnasts' scores.

It is expressed as

H0: µd = 0.

The alternative hypothesis is that the technique is effective in raising the gymnasts' scores.

It is expressed as

Ha: µd > 0.

The significance level α = 0.01 is given.

Therefore, the given problem can be tested using a one-tailed t-test.

This is because the alternative hypothesis states that the mean difference between the two populations is greater than zero.

A t-test is appropriate because the sample sizes are less than 30.

The difference between the before and after competition scores of each gymnast should be calculated.

This gives us the difference scores, which are as follows:

0.1, 0.2, -0.02, -0.1, 0.1, 0.3, -0.2.

Next, we compute the mean and standard deviation of the differences. We have:

n = 7d

= 0.0714Sd

= 0.1466

Then we compute the t-statistic:

t = (d - µd) / (Sd / √n)

t = (0.0714 - 0) / (0.1466 / √7)

t = 1.5184

The degrees of freedom for this test are (n - 1) = 6.

Using a t-distribution table with 6 degrees of freedom and a significance level of 0.01 for a one-tailed test, we find that the critical t-value is 2.998.

For the given problem, the test statistic t = 1.5184 is less than the critical value of 2.998.

Therefore, we do not reject the null hypothesis.

There is insufficient evidence to support the claim that the training technique is effective in raising the gymnast scores.

To know more about  hypothesis visit:

https://brainly.com/question/606806

#spJ11

Answer:

51

Step-by-step explanation:

mode is the value which appears the most than other values. In this case 51 will appear 3 times.

Answer:

5.1

Step-by-step explanation:

dont forget the decimal

Answer:

B. Sam should buy the jacket at Coats 'R Us because it is cheaper after the discount

Answer:

I suggest that sum should buy the jacket at coats 'R us because it is still cheaper after the discount even when you've not counted the discount in it is still cheaper than the other one and the other one even when it has such a high discount it is still not cheap so I suggest that the answer is choice B

Answer:

I can't able to understand this question plz check this question if it is right or not

Answer:

C. The mean number of lessons for group A is greater than the mean for group B by 2 MADs.

Step-by-step explanation:

Mean of Group A is greater than the mean of group B. The mean absolute deviation for the group A and B is 3. The different between the mean is 6 (15 - 9)

Number of mean absolute deviations is :

Difference between mean of two groups / MAD

6 / 3 = 2.

Answer:

arc BC = 132°

Step-by-step explanation:

The central angle is equal to the arc that subtends it , then

arc BC = ∠ BOC = 132°

Answer:

area of triangle =1/2 p×b=1/2×4×3=6unit²

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

it passes vertical line test and is linear

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is C. Hoped it helped.

Answer:

995.26

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm not sure but this is what I got

Answer:Using the slope-intercept form, the y-intercept is 1

Answer: $1,800

Step-by-step explanation:

600x3=1,800

Answer:

1800 is the cost.

Step-by-step explanation:

Each hoop costs 600 dollars and their are 3 hoops so multiply 600 times 3 or you can do 6 times 3 and add the zeros at the end which is 1800 dollars and btw you got this!!! don't give up. I believe in you :)

Answer:

I'm guessing it's 4 i think but sorry if it's wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

The third-degree Maclaurin polynomial for f(x) = sin(x) is P3(x) = x - (x^3) / 6.

To find the nth Maclaurin polynomial for the function f(x) = sin(x) when n = 3, we need to compute the polynomial up to the third-degree term.

The Maclaurin polynomial for a function f(x) centered at x = 0 is given by the formula:

Pn(x) = f(0) + f'(0)x + (f''(0)x^2) / 2! + (f'''(0)x^3) / 3! + ...

Let's calculate the nth Maclaurin polynomial for f(x) = sin(x) when n = 3:

First, we find the values of the function and its derivatives at x = 0:

f(0) = sin(0) = 0

f'(x) = cos(x), so f'(0) = cos(0) = 1

f''(x) = -sin(x), so f''(0) = -sin(0) = 0

f'''(x) = -cos(x), so f'''(0) = -cos(0) = -1

Using these values, we can write the Maclaurin polynomial:

P3(x) = 0 + 1x + (0x^2) / 2! + (-1x^3) / 3!

Simplifying further, we have:

P3(x) = x - (x^3) / 6.

Therefore, the third-degree Maclaurin polynomial for f(x) = sin(x) is:

P3(x) = x - (x^3) / 6.

Learn more about polynomial here

https://brainly.com/question/24662212

#SPJ11

I think the anwser for this is 60 in miles

Answer:

23

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean number of Americans who favor government spending for alternative fuels can be calculated by multiplying the percentage of Americans who favor such spending by the total sample size. In this case, 75% of Americans favor government spending, and the sample size is 140.

Mean = (Percentage of Americans who favor government spending) * (Sample size)

    = 0.75 * 140

    = 105

Therefore, the mean number of Americans who favor government spending for alternative fuels is 105.

The mean represents the average or central tendency of the data. In this context, it indicates the average number of Americans in the sample who support government spending for alternative fuels. It is obtained by multiplying the percentage of Americans who favor such spending by the sample size.

To know more about means refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30112112#

#SPJ11

Answer:

I would expect Emmy to get 8 hits in her next 16 tosses.

Emmy is to get 8 hits in her next 16 tosses.

Probability is defined as the ratio of the number of favourable outcomes to the total number of outcomes in other words the probability is the number that shows the happening of the event.

Probability = Number of favourable outcomes / Number of samples

Given that Emmy is tossing bean bags at a target. She hit the target on 9 out of her last 18 tries. Considering this data.

The probability is,

P = 9 / 18

P = 0.5

The expected number of the hits on the target in 16 tosses will be;-

Number = 16 x 0.5

Number = 8

Therefore, Emmy is to get 8 hits in her next 16 tosses.

To know more about probability follow

brainly.com/question/24756209

#SPJ6

Given that (xn) and (yn) are Cauchy sequences, then for any ε > 0, there exist N1 and N2 such that |xn - xm| < ε/2, for all n, m ≥ N1 and |yn - ym| < ε/2, for all n, m ≥ N2. Then, for all n, m ≥ max{N1, N2},

we have: |xnyn - xmym| = |xnym - xmym + xmym - xnym| ≤ |xn - xm||ym| + |ym - yn||xm| ≤ |xn - xm|ε/2 + |ym - yn|ε/2 < εThis shows that (xnyn) is a Cauchy sequence.

Moreover, for any ε > 0, there exists N such that |xn - xm| < ε/2 and |yn - ym| < ε/(2max{|x1|, |x2|, . . . , |y1|, |y2|, . . . , |yn|}) for all n, m ≥ N. Then, for all n, m ≥ N,

we have: |xnyn - xmym| = |xnym - xmym + xmym - xnym| ≤ |xn - xm||ym| + |ym - yn||xm| + |ym - yn||yn| ≤ |xn - xm|ε/(2max{|x1|, |x2|, . . . , |yn|}) + |ym - yn|ε/(2max{|x1|, |x2|, . . . , |yn|}) + |yn|ε/(2max{|x1|, |x2|, . . . , |yn|}) < ε.

This shows that (xn)(yn) is also a Cauchy sequence.

Therefore, from the given definition, it has been shown that if (xn) and (yn) are Cauchy sequences, then (xn) (yn) and (xnyn) are Cauchy sequences.

To know more about Cauchy sequence. click here.

https://brainly.com/question/13160867

#SPJ11

Answer:

Reminder to eat drink and take care. :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8,255 reminder to eat today

Answer:

I think 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D, F.

Step-by-step explanation:

D and F contain x^2.

The cost function for each of the given scenarios are as follows:

1) Cost function for chain-saw rental firm = $25 + $5h

2) Cost function for trailer hauling service = $95 + $8m

1.)

Cost function for chain-saw rental firm = $25 + $5h

Where, h is the number of hours the chainsaw is rented

Variables used in this scenario are:

Cost = C ($), Renting time = h (hours),

Charge per hour = c ($)

2.)

Cost function for trailer hauling service = $95 + $8m

Where, m is the number of miles the trailer has traveled.

Variables used in this scenario are:

Cost = C ($),

Distance traveled = m (miles),

Charge per mile = c ($)

Therefore the two cost functions are:

1) Cost function for chain-saw rental firm = $25 + $5h

2) Cost function for trailer hauling service = $95 + $8m

Learn more about cost function here:

https://brainly.com/question/32591145

#SPJ11

Answer:

17 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

An 18-foot ladder leaning against a wall makes an angle of elevation of 70° with the ground. How far up the wall is the ladder, to the nearest foot?​

We solve the above question using the Trigonometric function of Sine

sine theta = Opposite/Hypotenuse

theta = Angle of elevation = 70°

Hypotenuse =Length of the ladder = 18ft

Opposite = Height of the wall = x

Therefore

sin 70 = x/ 18 ft

Cross Multiply

x = sin 70 × 18 ft

x = 16.914467174 ft

Approximately = 17 ft

Answer:

96730322328

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps

The eigenvalues of the given matrix A are 1, 2, and -2.

To find the eigenvalues of the matrix A:

A = [1 0 0]

[0 -4]

[0 4]

To find the eigenvalues, we need to solve the characteristic equation |A - λI| = 0, where λ is the eigenvalue and I is the identity matrix.

The matrix A - λI is:

A - λI = [1 - λ 0]

[0 -4]

[0 4 - λ]

Taking the determinant of A - λI:

|A - λI| = (1 - λ)(-4 - λ(4 - λ))

Expanding the determinant and setting it equal to zero:

(1 - λ)(-4 - λ(4 - λ)) = 0

Simplifying the equation:

(1 - λ)(-4 - 4λ + λ²) = 0

Now, we can solve for λ by setting each factor equal to zero:

1 - λ = 0 or -4 - 4λ + λ² = 0

Solving the first equation, we get:

λ = 1

Solving the second equation, we can factorize it:

(λ - 2)(λ + 2) = 0

From this equation, we get two additional eigenvalues:

λ = 2 or λ = -2

Therefore, the eigenvalues are 1, 2, and -2.

To know more about eigenvalues refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/29861415

#SPJ11