Help me. Do not send links or fake answer if not I will report you. The photo will be above¡ Thanks♡​

Answer:

no one cares

Step-by-step explanation:

simply, no one gives a sh1t!

Answer:

Step-by-step noitanalpxe:

cewl

Answer: primary waves

Step-by-step explanation: pressure waves that travel faster than other waves through the earth to arrive at seismograph stations first, hence the name "Primary". These waves can travel through any type of material, including fluids, and can travel nearly 1.7 times faster than the S-waves.

I need help with this too it’s confusing and I don’t understand it.

Answer:

(a)

[tex]\begin{array}{ccc}{} & {W} & {w} & {w} & {Ww } & {ww } & {w} & { Ww} & {ww } \ \end{array}[/tex]

(b)

[tex]White = 50\%[/tex]

[tex]Yellow = 50\%[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

See attachment for initial punnet square

Solving (a): Complete the square

Initially, we have:

[tex]\begin{array}{ccc}{} & {W} & {w} & {w} & { } & { } & {w} & { } & { } \ \end{array}[/tex]

To complete the square, we simply write the letter at the column and the letter at the row in each cell;

So, we have:

[tex]\begin{array}{ccc}{} & {W} & {w} & {w} & {Ww } & {ww } & {w} & { Ww} & {ww } \ \end{array}[/tex]

Solving (b): Percentage of each

From the question, we understand that W are dominant to w.

So:

[tex]Ww = White[/tex]

[tex]ww = Yellow[/tex]

From (a) above

[tex]Ww = 2[/tex]

[tex]ww = 2[/tex]

[tex]Total = 4[/tex]

So, the percentage of each is:

[tex]White = \frac{Ww}{Total} * 100\%[/tex]

[tex]White = \frac{2}{4} * 100\%[/tex]

[tex]White = 0.5 * 100\%[/tex]

[tex]White = 50\%[/tex]

[tex]Yellow = 100\% - White[/tex] --- Complement rule

[tex]Yellow = 100\% - 50\%[/tex]

[tex]Yellow = 50\%[/tex]

Answer:

Distance covered by Ruchi = 61.1 km

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula of the Speed is given by,

Speed = [tex]\frac{\text{Distance covered}}{\text{Time taken}}[/tex]

Since, Ruchi coves distance = 3.25 km

Time taken to cove this distance = 50 minutes

Therefore, speed of Ruchi = [tex]\frac{3.25}{50}[/tex]

                                            = 0.65 km per minute

Therefore, distance covered by Ruchi in 94 minutes,

0.65 = [tex]\frac{\text{Distance covered}}{94}[/tex]

Distance covered = 0.65 × 94

                              = 61.1 km

Answer:

explanation:

thats it

Answer:

Smallest: 15,840 ft

Largest: 16,896 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

1 mi = 5,280 ft

Setup proportion to solve for the smallest:

[tex]\frac{1mi}{5,280ft} =\frac{3mi}{xft}[/tex]

Do butterfly method and you should get this:

[tex]xft=3(5280)\\x=15,840ft[/tex]

Setup proportion to solve for the largest:

[tex]\frac{1mi}{5,280ft} =\frac{3.2mi}{xft}[/tex]

Butterfly method:

[tex]xft=3.2(5280)\\x=16,896ft[/tex]

The ladder and the top of the building form a right triangle

The building is 20.8 feet tall

The given parameters are:

The height (h) of the building is calculated using the following Pythagoras theorem

L^2 = b^2 + h^2

So, we have:

39^2 = 33^2 + h^2

Evaluate the exponent

1521 = 1089 + h^2

Rewrite as:

h^2 = 1521 - 1089

h^2 = 432

Take the square root of both sides

h = 20.8

Hence, the building is 20.8 feet tall

Read more about right triangles at:

brainly.com/question/2437195

Answer:

B. Distribute

Step-by-step explanation:

The first step is to apply the distributive property.

Please let me know if I was correct

Answer:

10 2/3 ft or approximately 10.67 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the width = w

The length is L = 2w + 2.

The perimeter is:

P = 2(L + w)

P = 2(2w + 2 + w)

P = 2(3w + 2)

P = 6w + 4 = 68

6w = 64

w = 64/6

w = 32/3 = 10 2/3

Answer: 10 2/3 ft or approximately 10.67 ft

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

...... ..... ..... .....

Answer:7 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

In a right angle triangle ABC, [tex]m\angle B=90^\circ, BC=x, AC=11, m\angle C=41^\circ[/tex].

To find:

The value of x to the nearest tenth.

Solution:

In a right angle triangle,

[tex]\cos\theta =\dfrac{Adjacent}{Hypotenuse}[/tex]

In the given right angle triangle ABC,

[tex]\cos \angle C =\dfrac{BC}{AC}[/tex]

[tex]\cos (41^\circ) =\dfrac{x}{11}[/tex]

[tex]11(0.7547) =x[/tex]

[tex]8.3017 =x[/tex]

Round the answer to the nearest tenth.

[tex]x\approx 8.3[/tex]

Therefore, the value of x is 8.3 units.

Answer:

either B or C I think

Answer:

1. 0.0469 (4.d.p)

2. 0.05

Step-by-step explanation:

1. First we'll find the probability of drawing a blue marble.

P = (No. favourable events)/(Total events)

In this case it's:

P = (No. blue marbles)/(Total Marbles)

Therefore P(Blue) = 4/16 = 0.25

Now we find the probability of drawing a yellow marble:

The total number will be the same because the blue marble will have been put back.

P(Yellow) = 3/16 = 0.1875

Now, since we are calculating the probability of both happening we multiply together the two individual probabilities to get the combined probability of both:

0.25 x 0.1875 = 0.0469 (4.d.p)

2. The probability of drawing a blue marble is still the same so we can keep that: P(Blue) = 0.25

But this time, the marble is not replaced. This means that the total number of marbles has changed when drawing the yellow marble:

P(Yellow) = 3/15 = 0.2

Now we multiply them together again to find the combined probability of both happening:

0.25 x 0.2 = 0.05

Hope this helped!

Answer:

(7,4)

Step-by-step explanation:

Midpoint Formula = [tex](x_{1} + x_{2}/2)=[/tex] x coordinate of midpoint

same for y coordinate of midpoint

so

2=-3+x/2

4=-3+x

x=7

for y

5=6+y/2

10=6+y

y=4

therefore B(7,4)

[tex]\mathfrak{\huge{\orange{\underline{\underline{AnSwEr:-}}}}}[/tex]

Actually Welcome to the concept of logarithms.

Since here the log is on both sides, we take antilog on both sides, so we get as,

==> 2-x = -5x - 18

==> -x + 5x = -18 -2

==> 4x = -20

==> x = -20/4

==> x = -5

hence, x = -5

Answer with step-by-step explanation:

Let us find the perfect cubes between 1 to 100.

We know that, 1

3

=1,2

3

=8,3

3

=27,4

3

=64 and the rest numbers i.e. 4,5,6,.... have their cubes greater than 100.

So, only these four numbers have their cubes between 1 to 100.

Thus, there are 4 perfect cubes from 1 to 100.

Now, let's find the cubes between −100 to 0

We know, 0

3

=0,(−1)

3

=−1,(−2)

3

=−8,(−3)

3

=−27,(−4)

3

=−64 and the rest numbers have their cubes less than −100

So, only these 5 numbers have their cubes between −100 to 0 and 4 perfect cubes are there from 1 to 100.

Thus, there are 9 perfect cubes from −100 to 100.

plz mark me as brainliest.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3

=1,2

3

=8,3

3

=27,4

3

=64

The rest numbers i.e. 4,5,6,.... have their cubes greater than 100.

So, only these four numbers have their cubes between 1 to 100.

Thus, there are 4 perfect cubes from 1 to 100.

Now, let's find the cubes between −100 to 0

3

=0,(−1)

3

=−1,(−2)

3

=−8,(−3)

3

=−27,(−4)

3

=−64 and the rest numbers have their cubes less than −100

So, only these 5 numbers have their cubes between −100 to 0 and 4 perfect cubes are there from 1 to 100.

Thus, there are 9 perfect cubes from −100 to 100.

Answer:

expresion happy

Step-by-step explanation:

it will be 20 squares in step four

Answer:

32

Step-by-step explanation:

count each cube and it equals 32

Answer:

I think that you multiply the 2 numbers by x and b,

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.1 x 2 = 0.2

Step-by-step explanation:

when you multiply, you move the decimal once because there is one decimal place.

Answer: 34.3

Step-by-step explanation:

23+42+38+67+15+51+22+9+42=309

309/9

34.333333

34.3

Answer:

9, 15,22,23,38,42,42,51,67

Answer:

15 , 20

Step-by-step explanation:

6 × 8 = 48

48 + 72 = 120

120 ÷ 48 = 2.5

>>>>>>>

6 × 2.5 = 15

8 × 2.5 = 20

Answer:

15 , 20

Step-by-step explanation:

6 × 8 = 48

48 + 72 = 120

120 ÷ 48 = 2.5

>>>>>>>

6 × 2.5 = 15

8 × 2.5 = 20