Despite being small, the population is huge. A trillion bacteria can be found in a few handfuls of dirt, making up the population of bacteria there. Bacteria are a few micrometers in size, which is smaller than the size of a sand grain.
Large population size is a result of rapid reproduction. In a short amount of time, the bacterial population grows significantly. Bacteria can multiply in a matter of minutes to a few hours. Their growth is exponential, thus after each replication cycle, there is an increase in their population.
High genetic variation is a result of rapid reproduction rates. After a short while, the bacterial population starts to get more and more mutated. Bacteria must replicate their DNA very quickly in order to maintain their rapid reproduction rate; this causes replication errors that result in mutation. As a result of the replication machinery moving too quickly, mutations accumulate in the genome and cannot be repaired.
Bacteria may prevent growth in areas that are small and "deficient" in nutrients. This characteristic is due to the bacterial cell wall and adaptations rather than the size of the bacteria.
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excess acetyl coa that accumulates during fat breakdown is modified in the liver by which of the following pathways?
Acetyl-CoA builds up in the liver, where it mixes with other substances to create ketone bodies through a process called ketogenesis. Insufficient insulin production by the pancreas characterizes Type I diabetes mellitus.
Within 30 minutes after eating a meal containing carbohydrates, blood sugar levels increase. Acetyl CoA is redirected to produce ketone bodies if too much acetyl CoA is produced during the oxidation of fatty acids and the Krebs cycle is overburdened and unable to manage it. If the body's glucose levels are too low, these ketone bodies can act as a fuel source. A molecule known as acetyl-CoA (acetyl coenzyme A) is involved in a variety of metabolic processes in the metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids.
High levels of nucleocytosolic acetyl-CoA are indicative of a "growth" or "fed" state and encourage its use for histone acetylation and lipid synthesis.
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given the interior of the phospholipid bilayer is nonpolar, how do you think water, which is polar, is able to travel across the membrane?
Water, which is polar, is able to travel across the membrane because it is a small molecule and employs the process known as osmosis.
What is Osmosis?
This is referred to as the movement of solvent molecules from a region of low concentration to a higher concentration through a selectively permeable membrane. For example, there will be movement to an area which has a higher concentration such as salt solution thereby leading to shrinking of the cells.
Water as a compound has small molecules which is why it is able to pass through the membrane easily and the osmotic process involved also aids it thereby making it the correct choice.
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global sea level during the mid-cretaceous was over 200 m higher than today, reducing the total land size and increasing the rate of extinction of land-animal species. what caused this increase in the sea level?
The cause of this increase in the sea level is Increased rates of seafloor spreading
What happens to cretaceous when sea level increase ?The most well-studied mass extinction, which occurred 66 million years ago at the beginning of the Paleogene and the Cretaceous epochs, wiped out the nonavian dinosaurs and cleared the way for the rapid diversification and evolution of mammals and birds.
The "Big Five" extinctions are most well-known for the end-Cretaceous event, which saw the extinction of all dinosaurs except for birds. Additionally, it gave mammals opportunities. Dinosaurs ruled all land habitats during the Mesozoic Era.Contrary to earlier extinction events that were brought on by natural phenomena, the sixth mass extinction is being caused by human activity, particularly (though not exclusively) the unsustainable use of land, water, and energy, as well as climate change.Learn more about Cretaceous here:
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they started with e. coli that had been growing for many generations in medium containing 15n. they then transferred the bacteria into medium containing only 14n, and allowed the bacteria to undergo two rounds of dna replication. after each round of replication, the scientists performed density-gradient centrifugation of the dna. the scientists reasoned that each of the three models would predict different dna banding patterns after the two rounds of replication. can you identify the banding patterns predicted by each model after the first round of replication? (then, in part c, you will identify the banding patterns predicted after the second round of replication.)
The conservative model predicts different results after one replication round, while the dispersive and semiconservative models predict the same outcomes.
After being moved from 15N15N media to 14N14N medium, E. coil cells are allowed to continue to grow for two generations. These cells' DNA is ultracentrifuged in a gradient of cesium chloride density. Due to the semiconservative structure of DNA, both N isotopes will be present in the products or genomes produced after two generations. One low and one middle density band will therefore be visible in the density distribution.
Since nitrogen is a key component of DNA, Meselson and Stahl used the 14N and 15N isotopes as sources of nitrogen in the culture medium in their experiment. Furthermore, the heavier 15N isotope of nitrogen, which is by far the most prevalent, is also functional in DNA.
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Which statement is FALSE?
-When the open promoter complex is formed, sigma 1.1 is displaced from DNA channel and replaced by DNA.
-As bent DNA template is in the RNAP active site, it presses on the sigma 3.2 domain, thus releasing it from the holoenzyme.
-As DNA enters the channel in the RNAP active site, it begins to bend 90 degrees and melt as the strands open up close to start of transcription.
-In the free holoenzyme of bacterial RNAP, the N-terminal domain of sigma-70 blocks DNA channel by mimicking interaction with DNA.
As bent DNA template is in the RNAP active site, it presses on the sigma 3.2 domain, thus releasing it from the holoenzyme is wrong among other statements.
What is RNAP active site?During transcript elongation, RNA polymerase II may become halted, in which case the ternary complex is unaffected but additional RNA synthesis is prevented. The emerging transcript needs to be split off at the 3' end in order to release arrest.
Transcription continues from the freshly exposed 3' end as 7–17 nt RNAs are freed. The transcript cleavage reaction is substantially stimulated by factor SII, which boosts elongation efficiency. Here, we demonstrate how the addition of pyrophosphate can likewise result in the release of an arrest.
The same set of cleavage products are formed as by factor SII, but those produced by pyrophosphate have termini that are 5'-triphosphate.
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Why is photosynthesis and cellular respiration considered a cycle?
In your 3-4 sentence response be sure to mention the following:
Reactants of the equations
Products of the equations
How the product is being made
Answer:
A cycle is a recurrent series of events. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration is considered a cycle due to the products of one process serving the reactants of the other. Photosynthesis: Glucose+oxygen makes carbon dioxide+water. Respiration: Carbon dioxide+water makes glucose+oxygen.
5. Which organism is gaining the most energy in this pyramid?
6. Which organism is gaining the least energy in this pyramid?
7. How much energy is available to the snake?
In the given pyramid of energy, the organism gaining most energy is plants, the organism gaining least energy is eagle and according to the 10% rule of energy, the snake will have only 10% of the total energy of rat.
Pyramid of energy is the diagrammatic representation of the transfer of energy at each trophic level in a food chain. The pyramid of energy is always upright. This is because the organism at the lowermost level has the maximum energy and the organism at the topmost level will have the least.
10% rule of energy transfer states that only 10 % of the total energy is transferred from one organism to another during a food chain. The organism at first trophic level, i.e. plants will also be able to absorb only 10% of the total sun's energy. Similarly rat will have only 10 % of energy available to it because the rest gets lost in respiration, digestion, in the form of heat, etc.
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the two most basic steps of dna replication are
Explanation:
The initiation of DNA replication occurs in two steps. First, a so-called initiator protein unwinds a short stretch of the DNA double helix. Then, a protein known as helicase attaches to and breaks apart the hydrogen bonds between the bases on the DNA strands, thereby pulling apart the two strands.
compared to opium or cocaine the prevalence of marijhuana products among patent medications during the 19th centruy was
Compared to opium or cocaine the prevalence of marijuana merchandise amongst patent medicines for the duration of the nineteenth century was much lower.
Marijuana turned into used as an all-reason medication within the 1800s. infantrymen who used heroin in Vietnam were generally capable of giving up their addiction upon going back to the united states.
The Marihuana Tax Act of 1937 basically banned it nationally in spite of objections from the American medical affiliation associated with clinical utilization. This act came just a year after the movie Reefer insanity warned dad and mom that drug dealers would invite their teenagers to jazz events and get them hooked on “reefer.”
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DNA Sequence CCT CTT TAC ACA CGG AGG GTA CGC TAT TCT ATG ATT ACA CGG TTG CGA TCC ATA ATC
Create an mRNA sequence from the above DNA sequence
An mRNA sequence from the given DNA sequence is GGA GAA AUG UGU GCC UCC CAU GCG AUA AGA UAC UAA UGU GCC AAC GCU AGG UAU UAG.
DNA consists of two types of strands. One is the coding strand and the other is the template strand. The coding strand is not transcribed to mRNA and is directed in a 3' to 5' direction. The template strand is transcribed to mRNA and is directed in a 5' to 3' direction.
Here, consider the given strand as a template strand. Our mRNA strand will be complementary to this strand. Instead of thymine, mRNA will have uracil.
According to genetic code, the nucleotides in the sequence are arranged into three codes called codons in mRNA.
Therefore,
DNA sequence: CCT CTT TAC ACA CGG AGG GTA CGC TAT TCT ATG ATT ACA CGG TTG CGA TCC ATA ATC
mRNA sequence: GGA GAA AUG UGU GCC UCC CAU GCG AUA AGA UAC UAA UGU GCC AAC GCU AGG UAU UAG
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1. What is the most astonishing forces on earth?
The strong nuclear force, additionally known as the robust nuclear interaction, is the most powerful of the 4 essential forces of nature. It's 6 thousand trillion trillion trillion (it truly is 39 zeroes after 6!) instances more potent than the pressure of gravity.
The nuclear pressure is a pressure that acts among the protons and neutrons of atoms. The nuclear pressure is the pressure that binds the protons and neutrons in a nucleus together. This pressure can exist among protons and protons, neutrons and protons or neutrons and neutrons. This pressure is what holds the nucleus together.
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the part of the endocrine system that is responsible for overseeing and regulating the release of hormones across the entire body is the responses pancreas pancreas hypothalamus hypothalamus adrenal glands adrenal glands pineal gland pineal gland thyroid
The part of the endocrine system that is responsible for overseeing and regulating the release of hormones across the entire body is referred to as hypothalamus and is denoted as option B.
What is a Hormone?This is referred to as a chemical messenger which is released directly into the bloodstream and it helps in the coordination of different functions in the body. Examples include insulin, testosterone etc which have their various purposes.
The part of the brain known as the hypothalamus is responsible for overseeing and regulating the release of hormones so as to deal with various conditions appropriately.
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an antigen-antibody reaction, also known as an immune reaction, involves: the binding of antigens to allergens the binding of antibodies to allergens the binding of antigens to antibodies the binding of allergens to antibiotics submit
An antigen-antibody reaction additionally referred to as an immune response the binding of antigens to antibodies.
Option C is the binding of antigens to antibodies.
The antigens and antibodies combine through a method known as agglutination. it's by far the essential reaction in the body through which the frame is blanketed from complex foreign molecules, including pathogens and their chemical pollutants.
The antibody binds to unique antigens. This indicates the alternative cells of the immune machine to put off the invading microbes. The electricity of binding between the antibody and an antigen at a single binding website is known as the antibody's affinity for the antigen.
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The region of the brain that encloses the third ventricle and immediately rostral to the brainstem, and includes the thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus is the.
The region of the brain that encloses the third ventricle and immediately rostral to the brainstem, diencephalon .
Brainstem is the bottom, stalklike portion of your brain. It connects your mind on your spinal cord. Your brainstem sends messages to the rest of your body to adjust stability, respiration, heart price and greater. surprising accidents, and mind or coronary heart situations may additionally have an effect on how your brainstem w
The brainstem (mind stem) is the distal a part of the mind that is made up of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. every of the 3 components has its very own specific structure and feature. collectively, they assist to adjust respiratory, coronary heart price, blood stress, and several other critical features.
A brain stem damage can purpose dizziness or lack of motor feature, with extra severe instances resulting in paralysis, coma, or dying. remedy can be extraordinarily pricey, and plenty of sufferers are not able to paintings whilst handling a mind stem harm.
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What causes the differentiation of blood stem cells into new cells with different shapes and functions?.
Signaling mechanisms cause the differentiation of blood stem cells into new cells with different shapes and functions.
A cell just needs to modify the genes (and consequently the proteins) that will be expressed in order for it to differentiate into its specific form and function. Transcription factors are the main process by which genes are turned "on" or "off." Cellular interactions with the surrounding matrix, growth and differentiation factors, and other environmental factors that temporally and spatially activate or inhibit cellular signaling pathways and the transcription of particular genes drive this complex process.
Pluripotent cells called embryonic stem cells (ESCs) can differentiate as a result of signaling pathways. Most growth factors, cytokines, and epigenetic processes including DNA methylation and chromatin remodeling tightly regulate them.
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ingestion refers to the group of answer choices chemical breakdown of food. mixing of nutrients with digestive enzymes. input of food into the digestive tract through the mouth. progressive dehydration of indigestible residue. absorption of nutrients in the gut.
The digestive system's initial function is to take food in through the mouth. Before anything else can happen, the process known as ingestion must occur.
Large molecules that are present in undamaged food cannot cross cell membranes. Animals must consume food that has been broken down into tiny pieces in order for them to absorb the nutrients and organic compounds. Ingestion is the initial step in this procedure. The act of ingesting food through the mouth is called ingestion.
The teeth, saliva, and tongue are crucial components of mastication in vertebrates (preparing the food into bolus). The salivary enzymes start to chemically digest the meal as it is being mechanically broken down. Large food particles are transformed into a soft mass that may be ingested and travel the entire length of the oesophagus by the combined action of several processes.
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Explain the relationship between a P and S wave that makes
it possible to determine the location of an earthquake focus.
How is the focus location determined?
Answer:Use the time difference between the arrival of the P and S waves to estimate the distance from the earthquake to the station.
Explanation:
An individual with the genotype aabb makes gametes. An individual with the genotype aabb also makes gametes. How many gamete types do they have in common with respect to these two genes?.
An individual with the genotype AaBB and an individual with the genotype AaBb both make gametes. 2 types of gametes they have in common with respect to these two genes.
A dihybrid cross is a mating experiment between two organisms that are genetically identical in two ways. A heterozygous hybrid organism is one that carries two different alleles at a specific genetic position, or locus. Mendel used a dihybrid cross to combine two opposing traits, such as the color and shape of seeds, for crossing. He crossed the wrinkled-green seed with the round-yellow seed. In the F1 generation, he only got round-yellow seeds.
The term F1 generation refers to the offspring produced by a cross between two different types.
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Kinetic energy depends on _____. Question 2 options: Position and height Heat and pressure Mass and speed Density and volume
Answer: mass and speed
Explanation:
kenetic energy is energy when moving
Can someone help me with this?
Decomposition
Displacement
Synthesis
Elimination
Answer:
displacement reaction
Explanation:
because in the chemical equation CuSO4+Mg, Cu and Mg switch places so the equation is now MgSO4+Cu. This is an example of a single replacement because only one pair of elements switch with each other
are fats and oils generally more soluable than fatty acids
Fats and oil are more soluble than fatty acids because they have more carbon chains than fats and oil.
Are fats and oil soluble in water?Lipids like fats and oil also known as triglycerides are soluble in organic solvents like petroleum ether and chloroform but are insoluble in water. They tend to come together to form a mass with each other in water.
Fatty acid on the other hand are less soluble than fats and oil because they contain more carbon hydrogen bonds than fats and oil and are non-polar bonds. Also unsaturated fatty acid has two hydrogen bonds removed from it which allows it to form a stronger double bond between two carbon atoms.
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How do bonds form between atoms?
What Is a Chemical Bond?
A chemical bond is a force of attraction between atoms or ions. Bonds form when atoms share or transfer valence electrons. Valence electrons are the electrons in the outer energy level of an atom that may be involved in chemical interactions. Valence electrons- electrons furthest from the nucleus, are the basis of all chemical bonds.
Question: How do bonds form between atoms?
Sharing or transferring neutrons
Sharing or transferring electrons
Sharing or transferring protons
Which organ system is responsible for making sure blood flows to the whole body?.
The organ system responsible for ensuring the flow of blood throughout the body is the circulatory system.
What is the circulatory system?
The circulatory system (cardiovascular system) pumps blood from the heart to the lungs to get oxygen. The heart then sends oxygenated blood through the arteries throughout the body. Veins carry oxygen-poor blood back to the heart to start the circulation process.
The heart is a vital organ of the circulatory system. The function of the heart in the circulation process is to pump blood throughout the body. The heart cooperates with the blood vessels in the circulation process. Blood vessels have the role of circulating blood to and from the heart.
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After transformation of e. Coli with pglo, why are the cells grown in lb broth for 20 minutes before plating on amp plates?.
After transformation of E.Coli with pGLO, It takes 20 minutes to transcribe and translate the Green Fluorescent Protein.
Before RNA polymerase can bind to the Arabinose promoter, it must wait at least 20 minutes. There is a 20-minute phenotypic lag before the b-lactamase gene for Amp resistance can be expressed. The pGLO plasmid contains a gene (bla or ampR) encoding a protein known as -lactamase, which hydrolyzes antibiotics with a-lactam ring and renders host cells resistant to compounds such as ampicillin. The pGLO Lab Kits make use of Bio-pGLO Rad's plasmid, which encodes a green fluorescent protein (GFP), to give instructors a hands-on introduction to transformation, cloning, protein chromatography, and electrophoresis techniques. The pGLO plasmid contains the following genes: GFP, bla, Ori (origin of replication), araC, pBAD promoter, and a region with multiple cloning sites.
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the cribriform plate supports the - the terminus of the - and is perforated by numerous for the passage of the branches of the . b. olfactory bulbs of cn 01 i. are olfactory bulbs seated superior or inferior to the cribriform plate? ii. zoom in to see the projections on the inferior surface of the bulbs. (tip: you may need to hide the ethmoid bone to see them well.) iii. within each bulb, axons of olfactory form synapses with dendrites and cell bodies of other . iv. if you are attempting to view the olfactory bulbs on a preserved specimen, they may be missing or incomplete. why do you think this is? c. olfactory tracts of cn 01 - olfactory tracts are formed by axons/dendrites (circle one). d. lateral stria of cn 01 - follow this tract to see which region of the brain it terminates in: e. medial stria of cn 01 - follow this tract to see which region of the brain it terminates in: f. signals transmitted along the olfactory tracts terminate in the area in the lobe of the cerebral cortex. 3. based on your learning, how do you think damage to this nerve would present clinically? 4. what
The cribriform plate, that is pierced by several passageways of a (b) olfactory bulbs, serves as support for it (ii). View a protrusion on the underside of the bulbs by zooming in.
What is cribriform plate ?At the skull base, on the ethmoid bone, is the cribriform plate. The most inferior part of the skull is referred to as the the skull's base. It is made up of pieces of the temporal bone, occipital bone, sphenoid bone, ethmoid bone, and frontal bone. The cribriform plate, also known as the horizontally lamina and lamina cribrosa in mammals, is a component of the ethmoid bone. It is taken up by the frontal bone's ethmoidal notch and ceilings of the nasal cavities. It support the olfactory bulb and has olfactory foramina that allow the olfactory nerve to pass through and reach the roof of a nasal cavity, where they transmit smell to the brain. While a foramina just at lateral portion of the groove transmit nerves to a superior nasal concha, those who are at the middle portion of the groove allow nerves to travel to the upper section of the nasal septum.
Where is the cribriform plate and what function is it associated with?The anterior cavity as well as the nasal cavity are separated by a structure like a sieve called the cribriform plate, which is also often referred to as the laminar cribrosa of such ethmoid bone. The olfactory bulb, that is located in the olfactory fossa, is supported by this ethmoid bone component. The olfactory nerves which carry the smell sense are transmitted by this bones, the cribriform plate.
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Which of the following host defenses is considered the most effective in combating S. aureus infection?
Phagocytic response is considered the most effective host defenses in combating S. aureus infection.
What is phagocytic response?Phagocytosis is a type of cell response that plays a key role in the course of an immune response as well as in the remodeling of tissues and the healing of wounds. Professional phagocytes are specialized cells that can carry out this task quite effectively.
What is S. aureus infection?It has long been known that S. aureus is one of the most significant germs that harm humans. It is the main contributor to skin and soft tissue infections such cellulitis, furuncles, and abscesses (boils). Boils are the most typical staph infection form. This is a pus-filled pocket that forms in an oil gland or hair follicle. Typically, the skin around the infected area turns red and swells. To treat staph infections, doctors frequently administer cefazolin, nafcillin, oxacillin, vancomycin, daptomycin, and linezolid. Vancomycin may be necessary for staph infections that are severe. This is due to the fact that a large number of staph bacterium strains have developed resistance to other common antibiotics.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that phagocytic response is considered the most effective host defenses in combating S. aureus infection.
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: crispr-cas9 may be used as a gene-editing tool to repair mutant genes (such as the gene that causes huntington's disease in humans). this technique has been used in bacteria, mice, and even human embryos. first, crispr-cas9 is used to target and remove the mutant gene. second, naturally occurring repair enzymes will add the wild-type gene into the gap left from the site where the mutant gene was removed. which of these bacterial repair mechanisms would most likely be responsible for repairing the dna when used to edit bacterial genes? choose one: a. nucleotide excision b. methyl mismatch repair c. base excision d. umudc translesion bypass synthesis in sos e. reca recombination repair
The majority of DNA damage is repaired by removing the harmed bases and then resynthesising the excised area.
Briefing:
However, some DNA lesions can be directly reversed, which may be a more effective method of handling some types of DNA damage that happen frequently.
The three major types of polymerases found in prokaryotes are known as DNA pol I, DNA pol II, and DNA pol III. DNA pol III is now understood to be the enzyme needed for DNA synthesis, whereas DNA pol I and DNA pol II are mainly needed for repair.
In order for the cells to repair the DNA damage, at least five major DNA repair pathways—base excision repair (BER), nucleotide excision repair (NER), mismatch repair (MMR), homologous recombination (HR), and non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)—are active at various times during the cell cycle.
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developmental scientists are interested in the role of culture in development. according to their findings, which of the following cultural groups is most likely to focus holistically on interrelationships rather than analytically?
East Asians tend to prefer holistic thinking to analytical thinking.
What is the difference between Holistic thinkers and Analytic thinkers?Holistic thinking is a complex study of the whole. For business organizations, holistic thinking considers their purpose, values, functions in the environment, processes and structures. It is the basis for developing business design structures, systems thinking, and strategy formation. Analytic thinking is to identify and define problems, extract key information from data, develop viable solutions to identified problems, test and validate root causes of problems, and provide solutions for identified problems You should be able to develop a solution.Analytical thinkers focus on individual objects and classify them based on their attributes. Holistic thinkers see the context as a whole and focus on the relationships between objects.
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An animal's metabolic rate is best defined as?
Metabolic rate refers to the rate at which an animal burns calories to produce energy. Among vertebrate species, [tex]10^{7}[/tex] fold of the range of metabolic rate are present.
Even among vertebrate species of the same weight and higher taxon, there are large differences in metabolic rate, with various explanatory factors postulated such as energy content, latitude, altitude, temperature and precipitation. A consistent underlying factor may be the availability of food, which is controlled by the net primary productivity (NPP) of the animal's natural environment.
To test this possibility, we examined five of his Peromyscus mice in North America. All of these have similar diets (common omnivores) and gut morphology, but differ up to 13-fold in his NPP in native habitats. We maintained breeding colonies of all five species in the laboratory under identical conditions and on identical diets. Basal metabolic rate (BMR) and daily uninterrupted food intake were both increased with NPP, accounting for 88% and 90% of the difference, respectively.
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What precautions or steps can a phlebotomist take to limit their exposure to blood-borne pathogens?.
The precautions to be taken by phlebotomist to limit their exposure to blood-borne pathogens are: wearing personal protective equipment such as safety glasses, gloves and laboratory coats. In case of cuts or abrasions on the skin of hands, cover them with adhesive dressing.
Phlebotomist is a healthcare worker who performs phlebotomy. Phlebotomy is the process of performing a puncture in a vein, usually in the arm, with a cannula so as to extract blood so that certain tests can be performed.
Blood-borne pathogens are the harmful microorganisms that reside in the blood of living organisms and cause diseases. The most common examples of such pathogens are: HIV, HBV, HCV, etc.
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