Al is a senior citizen who has been experiencing more and more loss of his peripheral vision. His primary care physician recently diagnosed him with glaucoma and has sent him to see a specialist. What treatment would the specialist MOST LIKELY prescribed to receive the effects of glaucoma?
a. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors that increase fluid production in the eyes to hydrate the conjunctiva
b. beta blockers that increase the outflow of fluids from the eye and reduce pressure between the cornea and lens
c. topical antibiotics administered directly to the eyes, killing the bacteria that caused the infection
d. topical anti-inflammatory drugs that can penetrate into the eye and reduce swelling of the eye's components
Answer:
I think b. beta blockers that increase the outflow of fluids from the eye and reduce pressure between the cornea and lens
Explanation:
For example timolol
The nurse is caring for a client taking tamoxifen for breast cancer. Which client statement is most concerning and a priority to report to the HCP?
Answer: My periods have been heavy lately
Explanation:
Tamoxifen is referred to as a form of hormonal therapy that is called selective estrogen receptor modulator. When tamoxifen is inside the cells, it then prevents cancer from multiplying and growing.
Tamoxifen is typically associated with the increase in the risk of the person having endometrial cancer which has a symptom of excessive menstrual bleeding.
What is the role of the alcohol component in a tincture?
a. to limit the growth of bacteria
b. to make the drug insoluble
c. to allow for allow release of the drug
d. to avoid stomach irritation
Answer:
B- To make the drug insoluble
Answer:
A. To limit the growth of bacteria
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Which type of drug can treat otitis externa?
a. oral expectorants
b. oral antitussive drugs
c. topical mydriatic drugs
d. topical otic drugs
option c please thank my answers
How would a patient take Chlomiphene, and what would the drug do?
a. She would take it orally, and it would stimulate ovulation.
b. She would have an injection, and it would stimulate ovulation.
c. She would take it orally, and it would trigger the uterus to contract.
d. She would have an injection, and it would trigger the ulterus to contract.
Answer:
a. She would take it orally, and it would stimulate ovulation
Which term refers to l ow blood pressure?
a. hypertension
b. hypotension
c. pretensive
d. extensive
Answer:
B. Hypotension
Explanation:
I calculated logically
Answer:
b. hypotension
Explanation:
Your blood pushes against your arteries with each heartbeat. And the pushing of the blood against the artery walls is called blood pressure. Low blood pressure means that your blood pressure is lower than normal. Another name for low blood pressure is hypotension.
How can diabetes insipidus be treated?
a. Drugs that block ADH receptors can be administered to help increase urination and ensure liquid processing.
b. Drugs such as corticosteroids can reduce unnecessary inflammation caused by damage to adrenal glands.
c. Hormone reduction therapy can cause the body to reabsorb hormones that are produced in excess due to tumors.
d. Hormone replacement therapy can replace ADH to help the kidneys retain water and stop excessive urination.
Answer:
d. Hormone replacement therapy can replace ADH to help the kidneys retain water and stop excessive urination
Explanation:
Central diabetes insipidus.
Typically, this form is treated with a synthetic hormone called desmopressin (DDAVP, Nocdurna). This medication replaces the missing anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) and decreases urination. You can take desmopressin in a tablet, as a nasal spray or by injection
Which of the following is an extension of the parietal peritoneum?
A.) Greater omentum
B.) Lesser omentum
C.) Falciform ligament
D.) All of the above
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Answer:
D) all of the above.
Explanation:
they are all extensions of the parietal peritoneum
Radius bone is lateral to ulna bone *
True or False
Bacterial infections can be treated with penicillin or sulfonamide. true or false
Answer:
it's true
... hope it's helpful
Answer:
True
Explanation:
These drugs are effective for any gram positive and gram negative bacteria
Goodluck
which of the following is not true of the continuous quality improvement process?
"It appears that the increasing trend of overweight and obesity will likely overtake tobacco as the leading preventable cause of mortality in the United States" What are the primary diseases associated with poor diet and lifestyle?
Answer:
The primary diseases associated with poor diet and lifestyle are:
-Type 2 diabetes
-Obesity
-A stroke
-Hypertension
-Cancer
-Osteoporosis
-Heart problems
Explanation:
A poor diet and sedentary lifestyle impact our health. The lack of nutrients and the excess of chemicals, fat, or carbohydrates in our diets causes chronic diseases, that is to say, diseases that are not produced by a virus or bacteria. A person with an unhealthy diet and a lack of physical activity to help the body process and expel the toxins in our body have a higher probability of having one or more chronic diseases such as obesity, hypertension, diabetes type 2, cancer, osteoporosis, or strokes.
Prescription drugs used to treat mental illness are called
a. antidepressants.
b. psychotherapy.
c. psychiatric drugs.
d. antipsychotic drugs.
Answer:
The answer correct b. psychotherapy.
Jamal was restless early in the morning. He has a million thoughts going through his mind. Which part of bipolar disorder is he experiencing, and what should he take?
a. He is experiencing mania, and he should be taking antidepressants.
b. He is experiencing mania, and he should be taking antianxiety.
c. He is experiencing depression, and he should be taking antidepressants.
d. He is experiencing depression, and he should be taking antianxiety drugs.
Answer:
I think c. He is experiencing depression, and he should be taking antidepressants
Keara is experiencing bloating and cramping a week before her menstrual cycle.
Which type of drug could help reduce Keara's symptoms?
a. An analgesic drug could reduce the bloating.
b. An antihistamine could treat the cramping.
c. A hormone agonist could treat the cramping.
d. A diuretic drug could treat the bloating.
Keara is experiencing bloating and cramping a week before her menstrual cycle. A diuretic drug could treat the bloating is a week before her menstrual cycle.
What is menstrual cycle?Menstruation is the eradication of the endometrium, that has the thickened lining of the uterus from the body via the vagina. The menstrual fluid has been comprises cells from the lining of the uterus, blood, and mucus.
Follicular phase as the follicular phase has been begins on the menstruation's first day and it will terminates with the evolution. It has the mediated by the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, which has been discharges FSH.
Ovulation is known as the release of the developed egg from the ovary surface. This has been generally takes the place mid-cycle, around two weeks or so the prior to the beginning of the menstruation.
Luteal phase at main time of the ovulation, the egg erupts from its follicle, however it has been ruptured in the follicle remains on the ovary surface. In the next two weeks, the follicle gets convert into the composition called corpus luteum.
Therefore, Keara is experiencing bloating and cramping a week before her menstrual cycle. A diuretic drug could treat the bloating is a week before her menstrual cycle.
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What causes cardiac arrest
Answer:
Some cardiac arrests occur when a diseased heart's electrical system malfunctions. This malfunction causes an abnormal heart rhythm such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Some cardiac arrests are also caused by extreme slowing of the heart's rhythm.
Explanation:
Hope this helped :)
A client is experiencing an allergy to a penicillin antibiotic. What immunoglobulin (Ig) will most directly relate to this immune response
Answer:
The correct answer is - IgE.
Explanation:
The penicillin allergy immune response is most of the time is due to the IgE mediated and only a few times its igG mediated. IgE mediated penicillin immune response occurs within one hour while others are show delayed reactions.
IgE mediated response shows specific symptoms such as shortness of breath, red or pink color itchy patches with angioedema, and anaphylaxis.
que hay que hacer para la fiebre
que hay que hacer para la fiebre?
Suficiente descanso.Use ropa ligera y cómoda.Permanezca en una habitación con aire fresco.Beba mucha agua para evitar la deshidratación.Comprimir con agua tibia.Administración de fármacos, como fármacos antifebriles.What best describes the I in the FITT formula recommended by ACSM for cardiorespiratory fitness for healthy, active individuals
Answer: INTENSITY
Explanation: FITT formula is used for health-related fitness and was designed by The American College of Sport Medicine (ACSM).
FITT is established to put together an efficient workout plan for aspiring to be healthy and healthy individuals.
I stands for Intensity in the FITT principle. Intensity describes the level of difficulty of an exercise. Low intensity level can be adopted at the early stage of an exercise programme and gradually increased to difficult level, in other to avoid burnout.
It is measured based on numbers. The number of sets completed, amount of weight lifted or number of repetitions accomplished, while finding your target heart rate zone and Max heart rate (MHR).
Identify at least four strategies that you might use to increase and maintain community involvement in solving a public health issue in your own community. (Think back to the issue you mentioned in the Getting Started Introduction assignment.) State the public health issue and the four strategies you would use.
Explanation:
Four strategies that I would use to increase and maintain community involvement in solving the public health issue in my community. 1) healthy drainage pattern which involves
While having an eye examination one day, Charity's ophthalmologist places drops in her eyes before examining them. The doctor says that these drops are to help dilate her eyes. What type of drug is Charity's ophthalmologist MOST LIKELY using during the examination?
a. a topical anaesthetic
b. an otic drug
c. an antihistamine
d. a mydriatic drug
Answer:
The answer correct d. A mydriatic drug
Which BEST matches the drug to the disease it treats? Check all that apply.
a. zolpidem: given to patients with insomnia
b. dopamine agonists: given to patients with dementia
c. lorazepam: given to patients that experience seizures
d. MAO inhibitors: given to patients with Pakinson's
e. neostigmine: given to patients to cure myasthenia gravis
f. clonazepam: given to patients with neuropathy
Answer:
neostigme : given to patients to cure myssthenia gravis
Answer:
a. zolpidem: given to patients with insomnia
e. neostigmine: given to patients to cure myasthenia gravis
It is generally agreed that consumption of caffeine is not good for prenatal development. If Mary wants to avoid caffeine, which should she choose to drink?
Answer:
Decaffinated coffees and teas. Maybe some lightly caffinated teas. Stick to mostly water or maybe pressed juices
Explanation:
Decaffinated coffees and teas. Maybe some lightly caffinated teas. Stick to mostly water or maybe pressed juices.
What is Decaffinated coffees?
Coffee that has been decaffeinated is similar to ordinary coffee but contains less caffeine. Since caffeine can never be totally eliminated, decaf coffee still has a very little quantity of caffeine (around 3% compared to regular coffee), as was already explained.
For instance, a cup of regular coffee contains approximately 95 milligrams of caffeine, whereas a cup of decaf coffee contains only about 2 mg.
When carbon dioxide is forced through coffee beans, it can separate various chemical compounds, such as caffeine from coffee.
Therefore, Decaffinated coffees and teas. Maybe some lightly caffinated teas. Stick to mostly water or maybe pressed juices.
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A pharmacist is preparing an order of heparin for a new patient. The patient is MOST LIKELY suffering from a case of
a. anemia.
b. iron deficiency.
c. hemophilia.
d. thrombosis.
Answer:
D. Thrombosis
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
2. The pituitary gland does not release any hormones
The iPledge Program of 2006 mandates a drug known as its generic name _______________ and its trade/brand name _______________.
True or false: It is likely that the boy’s earlier bouts of pneumonia were due to complications stemming from CGD.
Answer:
true
Explanation:
thats the correct answer
It is likely that the boy’s earlier bouts of were due to complications stemming from CGD is True.
Are neutrophils part of the adaptive immune system?Neutrophils are capable of modulating adaptive immune reaction through interactions with T, B cells and possibly APCs.
Thus, the correct option is true.
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30 points!!!
Match each part of the eye with the correct label.
-lens
-fovea
-iris
-vitreous gel
-macula
-optic nerve
-retina
-cornea
-pupil
Answer:
1- vitreous gel, 2- optic nerve, 3- macula, 4- fovea, 5- retina, 6- lens, 7- pupil, 8- cornea, 9- iris
Explanation:
-
What is a characteristic of total body fat?
O It includes stored fat in body tissue.
O It includes essential fats harmful for cell function.
O It can be used to determine a person's body weight.
It can be used to determine body mass percentage
It includes stored fat in body tissue.
The body fat percentage is the total mass of fat divided by total body mass, multiplied by 100.Total body fat include essential body fat and storage fat.What is essential fat?Essential fat is necessary for normal body functions.Fat in the bone marrows, in the heart, lungs, liver, spleen, kidneys, intestines, muscles, and lipid-rich tissues throughout the central nervous system.What is storage fat?Storage fat is located around internal organs and directly beneath the skin called subcutaneous storage fat. It provides bodily protection and serves as an insulator to conserve body heat.To know more about body fat here
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Interrupted or restricted breathing associated with breathing-related sleep disorders can also cause disrupted sleep and daytime sleepiness. Extreme cases involve short periods in which a person may stop breathing altogether, referred to as sleep apnea. If the cessation of breathing is due to a complete lack of respiratory activity, a person is experiencing?
A. Mixed Sleep Apnea
B. Obstructive Sleep Apnea
C. Central Sleep Apnea