I need help for this math question

Answer:

"The World Ocean." The Columbia Encyclopedia. CD-ROM. 2007, 6th Ed. New York: Columbia University Press. "The World ocean has an area of about 361 million sq km (139,400,000 sq mi), an average depth of about 3,730 m (12,230)

Viau, Elizabeth Anne. World Builders: Water on Earth. California State University Los Angeles. 2003.

There are two origins of water: comets (extraterrestrial bombardment) and out gassing (condensation of steam from early volcanism). These processes are continuing today.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

m + 10/100(m)

Step-by-step explanation:

So m represents the number of members in the club last year.

A 10% increase of the members = [tex]\frac{10}{100} * m[/tex] = 0.1m

Hence the number of members in the club this year = m + 0.1m

Answer:2+n

Step-by-step explanation:

1. distribute parentheses

=-(-2)-(-n)

2.apply minus-plus rules

=2+n

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

4 out of 8 of the outcomes have at least to heads so it would be 4/8, then you just simply that to get 1/2

Answer:

8 servings

Step-by-step explanation:

12 times 8 is 96 servings

Answer:

576?

Step-by-step explanation:

I think...

Answer:

5n + 60

Step-by-step explanation:

5 × (n + 12) = 5 × n + 5 × 12 = 5n + 60

Answer:

m=3, or in y-intercept form, y=3x-3

Given the position function s(t), you can get the acceleration function by differentiating s twice:

velocity = s'(t) = -5 sin(t ) + 3 cos(3t )

acceleration = s''(t) = -5 cos(t ) - 9 sin(3t )

Then when t = π, the particle's acceleration is

s''(π) = -5 cos(π) - 9 sin(3π)

… = -5 • (-1) - 9 • 0 = 5

Answer:

dial it up

2:16

simplify

1:8

now multiply 8 by the number of gigs

2:16

3:24

and so on.....

ring ring

1:9

again multiply the cost by the number of gigs

2:18

3:27

and so on....

Answer:

The servings that each of your friend received which is 1/8 is the quotient. And the servings that each of your friends got is smaller compared to the half of the round chocolate cake. Therefore, when dividing a unit fraction by a whole number, the quotient is always a unit fraction which is less than the dividend.

The statement is true because when you divide a unit fraction by a whole number greater than 1, you are essentially dividing a quantity that is smaller than 1 by a quantity that is greater than 1.

A fraction is written in the form of a numerator and a denominator where the denominator is greater that the numerator.

We have two types of fractions.

Proper fraction and improper fraction.

A proper fraction is a fraction whose numerator is less than the denominator.

An improper fraction is a fraction where the numerator is greater than the denominator.

Example:

1/2, 1/3 is a fraction.

3/6, 99/999 is a fraction.

1/4 is a fraction.

We have,

Let's consider dividing the unit fraction 1/3 by the whole number 2:

= 1/3 ÷ 2

= 1/3 x 1/2

= 1/6

We can see that the resulting quotient, 1/6, is smaller than the original unit fraction of 1/3.

This is because when we divide 1/3 by 2, we are essentially dividing 1 unit of 1/3 by 2 units.

This means that each of the resulting units is smaller than the original unit of 1/3 since it has been divided into more pieces.

In the example above, each resulting unit is 1/6, which is smaller than the original unit of 1/3.

This relationship holds true for any unit fraction and any whole number greater than 1.

The resulting quotient will always be smaller than the original unit fraction being divided.

Thus,

The statement is true because when you divide a unit fraction by a whole number greater than 1, you are essentially dividing a quantity that is smaller than 1 by a quantity that is greater than 1.

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Answer:

49z - 7

Step-by-step explanation:

like term are having same variable and power.

By these explanation 34z+15z are added and -7 is keep as it is

Answer:

The same line.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\sin L = 0.60[/tex]

[tex]tan\ N = 1.33[/tex]

[tex]\cos L = 0.80[/tex]

[tex]\sin N = 0.80[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

See attachment

From the attachment, we have:

[tex]MN = 6[/tex]

[tex]LN = 10[/tex]

First, we need to calculate length LM,

Using Pythagoras theorem:

[tex]LN^2 = MN^2 + LM^2[/tex]

[tex]10^2 = 6^2 + LM^2[/tex]

[tex]100 = 36 + LM^2[/tex]

Collect Like Terms

[tex]LM^2 = 100 - 36[/tex]

[tex]LM^2 = 64[/tex]

[tex]LM = 8[/tex]

Solving (a): [tex]\sin L[/tex]

[tex]\sin L = \frac{Opposite}{Hypotenuse}[/tex]

[tex]\sin L = \frac{MN}{LN}[/tex]

Substitute values for MN and LN

[tex]\sin L = \frac{6}{10}[/tex]

[tex]\sin L = 0.60[/tex]

Solving (b): [tex]tan\ N[/tex]

[tex]tan\ N = \frac{Opposite}{Adjacent}[/tex]

[tex]tan\ N = \frac{LM}{MN}[/tex]

Substitute values for LM and MN

[tex]tan\ N = \frac{8}{6}[/tex]

[tex]tan\ N = 1.33[/tex]

Solving (c): [tex]\cos L[/tex]

[tex]\cos L = \frac{Adjacent}{Hypotenuse}[/tex]

[tex]\cos L = \frac{LM}{LN}[/tex]

Substitute values for LN and LM

[tex]\cos L = \frac{8}{10}[/tex]

[tex]\cos L = 0.80[/tex]

Solving (d): [tex]\sin N[/tex]

[tex]\sin N = \frac{Opposite}{Hypotenuse}[/tex]

[tex]\sin N = \frac{LM}{LN}[/tex]

Substitute values for LM and LN

[tex]\sin N = \frac{8}{10}[/tex]

[tex]\sin N = 0.80[/tex]

Answer:

|-8| = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

legit just the opposite of the integer.

Interest from first account is :

[tex]I_1 = \dfrac{p\times r \times t}{100}\\\\I_1 = \dfrac{509\times 3.4\times 3}{100}\\\\I_1 =\$ 51.918[/tex]

Interest form second account is :

[tex]I_2 = \dfrac{p\times r\times t}{100}\\\\I_2 = \dfrac{509\times 1.7\times 3}{100}\\\\I_2 = \$25.959[/tex]

So, total interest is :

[tex]I = I_1 + I_2 \\\\I = 51.918 + 25.959\\\\I = \$77.877[/tex]

Therefore, total interest is $77.877 .

Answer:

[tex]y = 1/3x-2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

General line equation:

[tex]\frac{y-y_{1}}{x-x_{1}} = \frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\\[/tex]

Or

[tex]y = a.x + b\\a = \frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\\b = y_{1} - a.x_{1}[/tex]

where a is the slope and b is vertical displacement.

For a line to be parallel to another, they both have to have the same slope, therefor, the parallel line's slope is 1/3.

By substituting the given point and a = 1/3 in above equation for b, b is equal to -2. Therefore,

[tex]y = 1/3x - 2[/tex]

Answer:

24 cm square

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula: ab/2. ( a* b = leg * leg)

6*8/2. (formula)

48/2 (simplify)

24 cm square ( answer)

Accuracy not garunteed

i think that's letter B & C

Hi it's Mia! '^' Give the other person brainliest, They worked hard to get the answer you needed! Have a wonderful day! :)

Given:

The shape of box is a right triangular prism.

Paper cost = 2 cents per square centimeter

To find:

The cost to cover the entire box.

Solution:

In the given right triangular prism, we have 3 rectangle surfaces and 2 triangular surfaces.

Area of a rectangle is

[tex]Area=length\times width[/tex]

Area of rectangle with length 4 cm and width 3 cm is

[tex]A_1=4\times 3=12\text{ cm}^2[/tex]

Area of rectangle with length 4 cm and width 4 cm is

[tex]A_2=4\times 4=16\text{ cm}^2[/tex]

Area of rectangle with length 4 cm and width 5 cm is

[tex]A_3=4\times 5=20\text{ cm}^2[/tex]

Area of a triangle is

[tex]Area=\dfrac{1}{2}\times base\times height[/tex]

Area of triangle with base 3 cm and height 4 cm is

[tex]A_4=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 3\times 4[/tex]

[tex]A_4=\dfrac{12}{2}[/tex]

[tex]A_4=6\text{ cm}^2[/tex]

Bottom and top triangular surfaces are equal.

[tex]A_5=A_4=6\text{ cm}^2[/tex]

Now, total surface area of the box is

[tex]A=A_1+A_2+A_3+A_4+A_5[/tex]

[tex]A=12+16+20+6+6[/tex]

[tex]A=60\text{ cm}^2[/tex]

Paper cost = 2 cents per square centimeter

Cost of 60 square centimeter paper is

[tex]60\times 2=120\text{ cents}[/tex]

Therefore, the cost to cover the entire box is 120 cents or $1.2.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2. 4x= 4*(-2)=-8

4x=4*(3)=12

4x=4*(-0.5)=-2

4x=4*3/2=6

the 3x+2

3x+2=3*(-2)+2=-6+2=-4

3x+2=3*(3)+2=11

3x+2=3*(-0.5)+2=-1.5+2=0.5

3x+2=3*(3/2)+2=9/2+2=13/2=6 1/2

Answer:

$1130.30

Step-by-step explanation:

Step one:

given data

cost of computer=  $2500

rate of loss per year= 18%

time t= 4 years

Step two:

let us computer the loss per year

Year 1 loss

worth= 2500- 2500*0.18

worth= 2500-450

worth= $2050

Year 2 loss

worth= 2050- 2050*0.18

worth= 2050-369

worth= $1681

Year 3 loss

worth= 1681-  1681*0.18

worth= 1681-302.58

worth= $1378.42

Year 4 loss

worth= 1378.42-  1378.42*0.18

worth= 1378.42-248.1156

worth= $1130.30

Answer:

$0.89 in other words 89 cents

Step-by-step explanation:

$10.68/12= 0.89

Answer:

52 ft.

Step-by-step explanation:

there are 8 side that are 3 ft: 3×8=24

there are 4 sides that are 7 ft: 7×4=28

add it and you get: 24+28= 52

The area and perimeter of this shape are 133 ft² and 52 ft respectively.

Perimeter is the distance around the outside of a shape. Area measures the space inside a shape.

Given that, a figure we need to find its perimeter and the area,

The figure we will be divided into 4 rectangles with sides 7 ft and 3 ft and a square, with side 7 ft

So, the area of the square = side²

= 7² ft²

= 49 ft²

Now, the area of a rectangle = length x width = 4 x 3 x 7 [since there are 4 rectangles]

= 4 x 3 x 7 = 84 ft²

The whole area = 84 + 49 = 133 ft²

Now, the perimeter = sum of the sides = 7 x 4 + 3 x 8 = 28 + 24 = 52 ft

Hence, the area and perimeter of this shape are 133 ft² and 52 ft respectively.

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Answer:

number b

Step-by-step explanation:

thuy should have written the ratio as 30/39

Answer:

5 im pretty sure

Step-by-step explanation:

if im right, can you mark me brainliest?

Answer:

57

Step-by-step explanation:

first do what is in the brackets then the parentheses, then multiply the 3

Answer:57

Step-by-step explanation: