If a company sells two products, and Product A has sales of $40,000 and a contribution margin ratio of 30% while Product B has sales of $60,000 and a contribution margin ratio of 40% then the weighted average contribution margin ratio for the firm as a whole is 36%.
Group of answer choices
True
False

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Explanation:

False. To calculate the weighted average contribution margin ratio, we need to consider the sales of each product as well as their respective contribution margin ratios.

The weighted average contribution margin ratio is calculated by multiplying the sales of each product by its contribution margin ratio, summing up these values, and then dividing by the total sales.

In this case:

Product A sales: $40,000

Product A contribution margin ratio: 30%

Product B sales: $60,000

Product B contribution margin ratio: 40%

Total sales: $40,000 + $60,000 = $100,000

Weighted average contribution margin ratio = [(Product A sales * Product A contribution margin ratio) + (Product B sales * Product B contribution margin ratio)] / Total sales

= [(40,000 * 0.30) + (60,000 * 0.40)] / 100,000

= (12,000 + 24,000) / 100,000

= 36,000 / 100,000

= 0.36 or 36%

Therefore, the statement is true. The weighted average contribution margin ratio for the firm as a whole is 36%.

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Related Questions

You are evaluating a project for The Ultimate recreational tennis racket, guaranteed to correct that wimpy backhand. You estimate the sales price of The Ultimate to be $450 per unit and sales volume to be 1,000 units in year 1; 1,250 units in year 2; and 1,325 units in year 3. The project has a 3-year life. Variable costs amount to $250 per unit and fixed costs are $100,000 per year. The project requires an initial investment of $180,000 in assets, which can be depreciated using bonus depreciation. The actual market value of these assets at the end of year 3 is expected to be $40,000. NWC requirements at the beginning of each year will be approximately 25 percent of the projected sales during the coming year. The tax rate is 21 percent and the required return on the project is 12 percent. (Use SL depreciation table)

What will the cash flows for this project be?

Note: Negative amounts should be indicated by a minus sign. Round your answers to 2 decimal places.

Answers

The tax rate is 21 percent and the required return on the project is 12 percent.  The cash flows for this project amount to $145,052.50.

Year 1:

Sales revenue: 1,000 units * $450 per unit = $450,000

Variable costs: 1,000 units * $250 per unit = $250,000

Fixed costs: $100,000

Depreciation: $180,000 (initial investment) * (1/3) = $60,000

NWC: 25% * 1,250 units * $450 per unit = $140,625 (rounded)

Taxable income: $450,000 - $250,000 - $100,000 - $60,000 = $40,000

Taxes: 21% * $40,000 = $8,400

Operating cash flow: $450,000 - $250,000 - $100,000 - $8,400 = $91,600

NWC investment: $140,625

Total cash flow: $91,600 - $140,625 = -$49,025

Year 2:

Sales revenue: 1,250 units * $450 per unit = $562,500

Variable costs: 1,250 units * $250 per unit = $312,500

Fixed costs: $100,000

Depreciation: $180,000 (initial investment) * (2/3) = $120,000

NWC: 25% * 1,325 units * $450 per unit = $156,562.50 (rounded)

Taxable income: $562,500 - $312,500 - $100,000 - $120,000 = $30,000

Taxes: 21% * $30,000 = $6,300

Operating cash flow: $562,500 - $312,500 - $100,000 - $6,300 = $143,700

NWC investment: $156,562.50

Total cash flow: $143,700 - $156,562.50 = -$12,862.50

Year 3:

Sales revenue: 1,325 units * $450 per unit = $596,250

Variable costs: 1,325 units * $250 per unit = $331,250

Fixed costs: $100,000

Depreciation: $180,000 (initial investment) * (3/3) = $180,000

NWC: 25% * 0 (no projected sales) = $0

Taxable income: $596,250 - $331,250 - $100,000 - $180,000 = -$14,000

Taxes: 21% * -$14,000 = -$2,940

Operating cash flow: $596,250 - $331,250 - $100,000 - (-$2,940) = $167,940

NWC investment: $0 (no projected sales)

Total cash flow: $167,940 - $0 = $167,940

Salvage value at the end of year 3: $40,000

Now, let's calculate the total cash flows for the project:

Total cash flow = Year 1 cash flow + Year 2 cash flow + Year 3 cash flow + Salvage value

Total cash flow = (-$49,025) + (-$12,862.50) + $167,940 + $40,000 = $145,052.50

Variable costs refer to expenses that fluctuate in direct proportion to the level of production or business activity. These costs vary as the volume of output changes. Unlike fixed costs, which remain constant regardless of production levels, variable costs rise or fall depending on factors such as the number of units produced, sales volume, or usage of resources.

Variable costs typically include expenses such as raw materials, direct labor, utilities, packaging, and commissions. As production increases, the consumption of these resources also increases, resulting in higher variable costs. Conversely, if production decreases, variable costs decrease accordingly. Understanding variable costs is crucial for businesses as they directly impact profitability.

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the accounting director is considering a reorganization of the department. they ask hr for support with identifying the work performed and the working conditions for each job in the department. which analysis should hr conduct to support this effort?

Answers

To support the reorganization effort and identify the work performed and working conditions for each job in the department, HR should conduct a Job Analysis.

Job Analysis is a systematic process of gathering information about the duties, responsibilities, tasks, and requirements of a specific job. It involves collecting data about the job's purpose, essential functions, necessary qualifications, and work environment. The analysis provides detailed information about the job roles and responsibilities, skills and knowledge required, and the conditions under which the job is performed.

By conducting a Job Analysis, HR can obtain accurate and comprehensive information about each job in the department. This information can be used to develop job descriptions, determine job classifications, establish performance criteria, and assess training and development needs. It will also support the accounting director in making informed decisions regarding the reorganization and structuring of the department.

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what is one reason why regional economic integration blocs have developed?

Answers

Answer:

The establishment of regional economic blocs not only strengthens member countries' positions on the global political landscape and bargaining power on international issues, but also enables countries to collectively grapple with the region's economic progress.

unenforceable service level agreements and adversarial vendor relations are risk conditions associated with which project management knowledge area?

Answers

The unenforceable service level agreements and adversarial vendor relations are associated with Project Procurement Management.

Project Procurement Management refers to the processes related to acquiring goods and services from external suppliers or vendors. It includes activities such as vendor selection, contract negotiation, and contract administration.

Unenforceable service level agreements refer to situations where the agreed-upon performance standards in the contract cannot be effectively enforced, while adversarial vendor relations imply a negative relationship between the project team and the vendors.

Both of these problems are sorted out through risk management practices within Project Procurement Management with actions like proactive planning, risk identification, risk analysis, and risk responses.

Hence, Project Procurement Management is the management that sorts out this issue.

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one of the best online sources for jobs is a company's own website.a. trueb. false

Answers

A) True, A company's website is one of the greatest places to look for employment online because it frequently has the most accurate and recent job listings as well as details on the business and the application process.

Finding vacant positions, studying possible employers, applying online, comparing salaries, and marketing yourself as a top candidate are the top five reasons for using the internet when job hunting. By contacting contacts online and submitting your application first, you can also access the untapped job market.

The largest professional networking site in the world, LinkedIn was founded in 2003 and now has 875 million registered users from all over the world and in every industry. All in one, LinkedIn functions as a directory for available jobs, a platform for online resumes, and a social networking tool.

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traditional media consists of 80 percent planning and 20 percent execution and management.a. trueb. false

Answers

The statement "traditional media consists of 80 percent planning and 20 percent execution and management" is false. Traditional media does involve planning, execution, and management, but it's not accurate to assign specific percentages to these processes, as the proportion may vary depending on the project and its specific requirements.

Traditional media does not consist of a fixed ratio of 80 percent planning and 20 percent execution and management. The allocation of time and resources between planning and execution may vary depending on the specific project, campaign, or media strategy. While planning is an essential component of any media campaign, the specific percentages can vary greatly depending on the scope, complexity, and nature of the campaign. It is not accurate to attribute a fixed ratio of 80 percent planning and 20 percent execution and management to traditional media.

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an advertiser would benefit from using affinity audience targeting if they want to reach people:

Answers

An advertiser would benefit from using affinity audience targeting if they want to reach people with a particular broad interest, for example, sports fans

As users explore pages, applications, channels, movies, and other material, you may reach them based on their individual interests by adding audiences. You may choose from a variety of categories, like sports, fashion, and travel, and it will display adverts to users who are likely to be interested.

You may opt to add various audiences to your ad groups based on your advertising objectives and the stage of the purchasing process your clients are in. Compared to our large, TV-like affinity audiences, advertisers may establish personalized affinity audiences that are more suited to their businesses. For instance, a running shoe business might choose to speak with avid marathon runners rather than sports fans.

Option D is the correct answer.

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The complete question is, "An advertiser would benefit from using affinity audience targeting if they want to reach people:

A. regardless of their particular interests

B. with a very specific interest, for example, avid marathon runners

C. who’ve already visited their website

D. with a particular broad interest, for example, sports fans"

an individual with a sales goal of 30 units in a 1 week period notices she has sold 25 units in the first 2 days. she decides she is able to up her goal to 50 units sold by the end of the week. which of the following best demonstrates the above example?

Answers

The example is an individual adjusting their sales goal based on early performance and increasing it to 50 units by the end of the week. This showcases an adaptive and ambitious approach to goal setting and performance.

By initially setting a sales goal of 30 units for the week, the individual establishes a target to strive towards. However, upon observing that she has already sold 25 units in just the first 2 days, she recognizes her capability to achieve more and decides to increase her goal to 50 units. This demonstrates a proactive mindset, where she leverages early success as motivation to push herself further and achieve higher levels of performance.

The decision to up the sales goal reflects confidence in her abilities and a desire to exceed expectations. It shows a willingness to embrace challenges and seize opportunities for growth. By adjusting the goal based on early performance, the individual demonstrates adaptability and a drive for continuous improvement.

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a building acquired at the beginning of the year at a cost of $103,200 has an estimated residual value of $6,200 and an estimated useful life of four years. determine the following.(a) The double-declining-balance rate (b) The double-declining-balance depreciation for the first year

Answers

The double-declining-balance rate is 50%, and The double-declining-balance depreciation for the first year is $51,600.

(a) The double-declining-balance rate:

To calculate the double-declining balance rate, we need to find the depreciation rate per year. The formula for the double-declining-balance method is:

Depreciation Rate = (1 / Useful Life) * 2

In this case, the useful life of the building is four years. Therefore, the depreciation rate per year is:

Depreciation Rate = (1 / 4) * 2 = 0.5 or 50%

The double-declining-balance rate is 50%.

(b) The double-declining-balance depreciation for the first year:

To calculate the double-declining-balance depreciation for the first year, we use the following formula:

Depreciation Expense = Book Value at the Beginning of the Year * Depreciation Rate

In the first year, the book value at the beginning of the year is the cost of the building, which is $103,200.

Depreciation Expense = $103,200 * 50% = $51,600

The double-declining-balance depreciation for the first year is $51,600.

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if the effective annual rate (ear) is known to be 16.08% on a debt that has quarterly payments, what is the annual percentage rate (apr)? group of answer choices a.14.50% b.10.02% c.15.19% d.4.02%

Answers

The annual percentage rate (APR) for a debt with quarterly payments and an effective annual rate (EAR) of 16.08% is approximately 15.19%.

To calculate the APR, we need to consider the compounding frequency. Since the debt has quarterly payments, the compounding frequency is also quarterly. The formula to convert the EAR to APR is:

APR = (1 + r/n)^n - 1

Where r is the EAR and n is the number of compounding periods per year. In this case, the EAR is 16.08% and the compounding is quarterly (4 quarters per year), so the calculation is as follows:

APR = (1 + 0.1608/4)^4 - 1

≈ 0.1519 or 15.19%

Therefore, the APR for the given debt with quarterly payments and an EAR of 16.08% is approximately 15.19%.

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Which of the following factors causes fulfillment centers to operate slightly differently when pricing online orders compared to processing orders delivered to stores?
A. Orders arrive from customers one by one.
B. Orders are handled directly by the seller
C. Orders are shipped in relatively small quantities"
D. Orders with online and offline payments

Answers

A factor that causes fulfillment centers to operate slightly differently when pricing online orders compared to processing orders delivered to stores:

A. Orders come from customers one by one.

For online orders, fulfillment centers typically process each order individually as it arrives from customers. This differs from processing orders for delivery to physical stores, where orders may be accepted in larger quantities or batches.

The individual nature of online orders requires special pricing considerations. Fulfillment centers must consider factors such as shipping costs, packaging materials, and any other services required for individual orders. This includes having to calculate shipping charges based on the destination, weight and dimensions of each package.

In contrast, when processing orders for delivery to stores, pricing considerations may differ. Bulk ordering and distribution to stores allows for cost efficiency as multiple items can be packaged together and shipped in larger quantities. Price decisions for store orders can be based on factors such as volume discounts, negotiated contracts, or standard delivery costs.

It is important for distribution centers to adapt their pricing strategies to reflect the unique characteristics of online ordering. They must consider the additional costs and logistics associated with individual packaging and shipping requirements. This ensures that online order prices are accurate, cover costs and remain competitive in the e-commerce market.

In summary, the individual arrival of customer orders is a factor that causes distribution centers to perform slightly differently when valuing online orders compared to processing orders delivered to stores. This requires special consideration of the costs of shipping, packaging and other services associated with individual online orders.

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True/False. the abbreviation of the rules an accountant has to follow when doing financial statement analysis is:

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Generally accepted accounting principles(GAAP)

refer to a comon set of accounting rules,standards,and procedures issued by Financial accounting standards board (FASB)

The information needed to prepare a statement of cash flows could come from all of the following sources, except the:
Multiple choice question.
statement of retained earnings.
cash account.
comparative balance sheets.
income statement.

Answers

Your question is about the sources of information for preparing a statement of cash flows. The answer is: statement of retained earnings. The other sources, such as the cash account, comparative balance sheets, and income statement, are typically used to prepare a statement of cash flows. Retained earnings mainly reflect the accumulated net income, and though they are an important aspect of a company's financial position, they do not directly provide information on cash flows.

The information needed to prepare a statement of cash flows could come from all of the following sources, except the statement of retained earnings. The statement of cash flows provides information about the cash inflows and outflows of a company during a specific period, categorized into operating, investing, and financing activities. The comparative balance sheets and income statement also provide important information for preparing the statement of cash flows. The cash account is also a key source of information as it tracks all the cash transactions of the company. However, the statement of retained earnings only shows the changes in the accumulated earnings of the company, and does not provide information about its cash flows.

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true or false. match types stop your ad from being shown to people who are likely to become your customers.

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False, Match types are used in pay-per-click (PPC) advertising to help you target your ads to specific groups of people based on factors such as demographics, interests, and behavior. However, they do not necessarily stop your ad from being shown to people who are likely to become your customers.

Match types can be used to help you reach a more specific audience for your ads, which can help to improve the effectiveness of your advertising campaign. However, it is ultimately up to the individual user to decide whether or not to click on your ad and become a customer.  

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Choose the statement that best describes why slavery became racialized in the Americas. a. The success of plantations was dependent on a permanent and identifiable labor supply b. The idea of chattel slavery remained rare in Africa and Europe, and the New World followed suit. c. African nations began to outlaw slavery, and slave traders sought a new market for slaves. d. African workers refused to work for a wage in the Americas, so they were enslaved.

Answers

The statement that best describes why slavery became racialized in the Americas is option A, which states that the success of plantations was dependent on a permanent and identifiable labor supply.

Plantation owners needed a large and reliable workforce to cultivate crops such as tobacco, sugar, and cotton, and they found that African slaves were a convenient source of labor. As slavery became more entrenched in the Americas, racial distinctions were increasingly drawn between enslaved Africans and their white owners. The statement that best describes why slavery became racialized in the Americas is:

a. The success of plantations was dependent on a permanent and identifiable labor supply.

Slavery became racialized in the Americas primarily due to economic and labor needs. The success of plantations, particularly in the context of cash crop production like sugar, tobacco, and cotton, relied on a consistent and identifiable labor force. As demand for labor grew, European colonizers turned to the transatlantic slave trade to meet their labor needs.

A racialized system of slavery emerged as African slaves became the primary source of labor. The transatlantic slave trade disproportionately targeted Africans, and the practice of enslavement became entrenched along racial lines. African slaves were considered a permanent and identifiable labor supply that could be acquired, owned, and exploited by European colonizers.

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In the compressed adjusted present value model, the appropriate discount rate for the tax shield is the WACC. True. False.

Answers

The statement "In the compressed adjusted present value model, the appropriate discount rate for the tax shield is the WACC" is false.

In the compressed adjusted present value (CAPV) model, the appropriate discount rate for the tax shield is not the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC). The CAPV model recognizes that the tax shield resulting from interest expense is a separate cash flow stream that needs to be discounted at a different rate.

The appropriate discount rate for the tax shield in the CAPV model is the cost of debt, which represents the rate of return required by lenders. This reflects the risk associated with the interest tax shield and aligns with the principle of discounting cash flows at a rate that reflects their specific risk.

The WACC, on the other hand, is the average rate of return required by both debt and equity holders and is used to discount the cash flows of the overall project. It incorporates both the cost of debt and the cost of equity, and it is not specifically tailored to the tax shield component.

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does a competitive firm necessarily maximize its profit in the sr at a level of output where atc is at its minimum point? why or why not? how about in the lr?

Answers

This is because, in the short run, a competitive firm can earn positive economic profits, zero economic profits, or incur losses. The firm's profit-maximizing level of output is where marginal cost (MC) equals marginal revenue (MR), rather than where ATC is at its minimum.

If the firm produces at a level where ATC is below the market price, it can earn positive economic profits. If ATC is above the market price but below the shutdown point, the firm can still operate and cover its variable costs, but it may incur losses. In the short run, a competitive firm may choose to operate even if it is not at the minimum point of ATC, as long as it can cover its variable costs and make a contribution towards fixed costs.

In the long run, however, competitive firms tend to maximize their profit at the level of output where ATC is at its minimum point. This is because, in the long run, firms have the flexibility to adjust their inputs and make changes to their production processes. Firms can enter or exit the industry, and new firms can enter if there are positive economic profits to be made. In the long run, competition forces firms to operate at the minimum point of ATC to be able to compete efficiently and maximize their profits.

Therefore, while a competitive firm may not necessarily maximize its profit at the minimum point of ATC in the short run, it is more likely to do so in the long run due to the competitive pressures and the ability to adjust its operations and resources.

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What is the order that the financial statements should be prepared?

Multiple Choice

Profit and Loss, Balance Sheet and Statement of Cash Flows.

Balance Sheet, Profit and Loss and Statement of Cash Flows.

Statement of Cash Flows, Profit and Loss, and Balance Sheet.

Profit and Loss, Statement of Cash Flows and Balance Sheet.

Answers

The correct option is: Profit and Loss, Balance Sheet, and Statement of Cash Flows.

The correct order in which financial statements should be prepared is:
1. Profit and Loss Statement (also known as Income Statement) - This statement shows the company's revenues and expenses for a specific period and calculates the net profit or loss.

2. Balance Sheet - This statement shows the company's assets, liabilities, and equity at a specific point in time.

3. Statement of Cash Flows - This statement shows the company's cash inflows and outflows for a specific period, divided into operating, investing, and financing activities.

Therefore, the correct option is: Profit and Loss, Balance Sheet, and Statement of Cash Flows. It's important to follow this order as the profit and loss statement provides the information needed to prepare the balance sheet and the statement of cash flows. Additionally, the balance sheet provides the necessary information to prepare the statement of cash flows.

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according to the contract to buy and sell real estate earnest money is held on behalf of:

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According to the contract to buy and sell real estate, earnest money is typically held on behalf of the seller.

Earnest money is a deposit made by the buyer as a sign of their serious intention to purchase the property. It is held in escrow by a third party, such as a real estate broker or an attorney, until the closing of the transaction. The earnest money serves as a form of security for the seller, providing assurance that the buyer is committed to the purchase. If the buyer fails to fulfill their obligations under the contract, the seller may be entitled to retain the earnest money as compensation for their losses.

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typically, the seed money that gets a company off the ground comes from a commercial bank. true or false

Answers

False typically, the seed money that gets a company off the ground comes from a commercial bank.

While commercial banks can be a source of funding for businesses, seed money typically comes from investors such as angel investors, venture capitalists, or even the founders themselves. These investors provide the initial capital needed to launch a company and often take on some level of equity or ownership in return.

Seed money is the initial capital that a company needs to get off the ground. It is often used to cover startup costs such as product development, marketing, and hiring initial staff. While a commercial bank can provide funding for a business, this is typically in the form of a loan, which needs to be repaid with interest. Seed money, on the other hand, is usually provided by investors who are willing to take on some level of risk in exchange for potential long-term returns. These investors can include friends and family members, angel investors, or venture capitalists. Angel investors are typically wealthy individuals who invest their own money into early-stage startups. They often provide smaller amounts of funding, ranging from a few thousand dollars to a few hundred thousand dollars. In return, they may receive equity in the company, as well as a say in how it is run.

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Jason wanted to have a virtual meeting where all participants could participate simultaneously so he opted to use A) a screen-sharing application B) the same computer C) a webinar D) videoconferencing E) discussion forum

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Jason wanted to have a virtual meeting where all participants could participate simultaneously. In this case, he has various options available to him. Jason needs to choose the option that best fits his needs and the needs of his team.

Firstly, he could use a screen-sharing application, which allows everyone to see the same thing on their computer screens. This is a useful option if Jason wants to share a presentation or document with his team.

Secondly, he could use the same computer to host the meeting. However, this option would only work if everyone is physically present in the same location.

Thirdly, he could use a webinar, which is a virtual event that allows multiple presenters and participants to interact with each other in real-time. This is useful if Jason wants to share information with a large audience.

Fourthly, he could use videoconferencing, which allows participants to see and hear each other in real-time. This is a great option if Jason wants to have a more personal meeting with his team.

Lastly, he could use a discussion forum, which is an online platform where participants can discuss and share information with each other. This option is useful if Jason wants to have a more interactive and collaborative meeting.

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A _________ is one that has multiple layers with significant vertical differentiation. a. Flat organizational structure b. Decentralized organizational structure c. Tall organizational structure d. Simple organizational structure

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A tall organizational structure is one that has multiple layers with significant vertical differentiation. Option B.

It is often also referred to as a hierarchical organizational structure. In a tall structure, there are multiple levels of management, with each level reporting to the level above it. This structure is characterized by a clear chain of command, with each employee knowing who their direct supervisor is and who they report to.

In contrast, a flat organizational structure is one in which there are few or no layers of management, and employees have more direct communication and collaboration with their colleagues. A decentralized organizational structure is similar to a flat structure, but it also involves a significant degree of autonomy and decision-making authority being delegated to lower levels of management. A simple organizational structure is one that has a small number of levels of management and a relatively straightforward chain of command.

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The following are selected data from Great White Corporation's year-end financial statements.

Net Income $350,000

Sales $815,000

COGS $425,000

Operating Income $275,000

Total Assets $215,000

Answers

Great White Corporation had a net income of $350,000, sales of $815,000, cost of goods sold (COGS) of $425,000, operating income of $275,000, and total assets of $215,000.

Net income is the amount of profit after all expenses have been deducted from revenue. Sales represent the total amount of revenue generated from selling goods or services. COGS is the direct cost incurred in producing the goods sold, such as materials and labor. Operating income is the income generated from the company's normal business operations, excluding any non-operating expenses or income.

1. Determine the Net Income: $350,000 is the net income in this instance.

2. Determine the Total Assets: In this instance, there are $215,000 in total assets.

3. Calculate the ratio of net income to total assets:

ROA = Net Income / Total Assets

ROA = $350,000 / $215,000

ROA ≈ 1.6279 or 162.79%

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Evaluation of cost centers usually focuses on first determining variances from standard costs or budgets and then deciding which variances to investigate. Which of the following criteria is not important when making the decision of which variances to investigate? Group of answer choices whether the variance is significant whether the variance is favorable or unfavorable whether the variance is controllable whether the variance occurs frequently

Answers

When evaluating cost centers, the decision of which variances to investigate is based on several criteria. These criteria include whether the variance is significant, whether it is favorable or unfavorable, whether it is controllable, and whether it occurs frequently.

When evaluating cost centers and determining which variances to investigate, it is crucial to consider several criteria. The first criterion is the significance of the variance. Significant variances, whether they are positive or negative, indicate a deviation from the expected or standard costs and may warrant further investigation. The second criterion is whether the variance is favorable or unfavorable. Both types of variances can provide valuable insights into cost control and performance, and investigating them helps identify areas for improvement or potential inefficiencies.

The third criterion is whether the variance is controllable. Controllable variances are those that can be influenced or managed by the managers of the cost center. Investigating these variances allows for identifying managerial actions that can be taken to address the deviations and improve performance. However, the fourth criterion, whether the variance occurs frequently, is not as important when deciding which variances to investigate. Frequent occurrences of variances do not necessarily imply a need for investigation if they are not significant, not controllable, or do not provide valuable insights into cost control or performance.

In conclusion, when evaluating cost centers, the decision of which variances to investigate is primarily based on the significance of the variance, whether it is favorable or unfavorable, and whether it is controllable. The frequency of the variance, although worth considering, is not as important in determining which variances to investigate.

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What is the price elasticity of demand for generic shoes if for every 10% price increase clothing demand decreases by 15%?____ The price elasticity of demand would be___a) -1.5; elastic b) -.5; inelastic c) - 1.0 d) -.67; inelastic

Answers

The price elasticity of demand for generic shoes is -1.5.

The price elasticity of demand for generic shoes can be calculated using the formula:

Price Elasticity of Demand = (% Change in Quantity Demanded) / (% Change in Price)

Given that for every 10% price increase, clothing demand decreases by 15%, we can determine the price elasticity of demand as follows:

% Change in Quantity Demanded = -15% (since there is a decrease in demand)

% Change in Price = 10% (since there is a 10% price increase)

Price Elasticity of Demand = (-15%) / (10%) = -1.5

Therefore, the price elasticity of demand for generic shoes is -1.5. Since the absolute value of the price elasticity is greater than 1, we classify it as elastic.

So, the correct answer is option a) -1.5; elastic.

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T/F:defenses raised in a suit based on a sales contract differ greatly from defenses used in regard to any other type of contract.

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Defenses raised in a suit based on a sales contract do not differ greatly from defenses used in regard to any other type of contract. Both types of contracts share common defenses, such as mistake, fraud, duress, and unconscionability. While specific elements may vary, the general principles of contract law apply to both sales contracts and other contracts.

True. Defenses raised in a suit based on a sales contract can differ from defenses used in regard to any other type of contract. In a sales contract, the primary issue is whether or not the goods or services provided meet the standards outlined in the contract. Common defenses used in sales contract cases include the failure of the buyer to pay for the goods or services provided, breach of warranty, and misrepresentation. It is important for parties to a sales contract to carefully review the terms and conditions outlined in the contract before signing, and to seek legal advice if necessary, to ensure that they understand their rights and obligations.

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Which of the following is not an​ income-producing asset on a​ bank's balance​ sheet? A. Treasury bills. B. Bank reserves. C. Treasury notes.

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B. Bank reserves. Bank reserves are not income-producing assets on a bank's balance sheet.

Bank reserves refer to the funds that banks are required to hold with the Federal Reserve or central bank. These reserves are primarily for meeting the bank's liquidity needs and for fulfilling regulatory requirements, rather than generating income for the bank. On the other hand, both Treasury bills and Treasury notes are income-producing assets that banks can hold as part of their investment portfolio.

Bank reserves are not considered income-producing assets on a bank's balance sheet because they are held as a requirement by the central bank to ensure the bank's liquidity and stability. Treasury bills (A) and Treasury notes (C) are income-producing assets as they generate interest income for the bank.

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all of the following are metrics you need to track in your social media audit except: The posts with the most engagement (things like comments and likes) The bounce rate The types of content that have the best and worst performance The publish time of posts that have the best engagement

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In order to conduct a thorough social media audit, there are several metrics that need to be tracked.

These include the posts with the most engagement, the types of content that have the best and worst performance, and the publish time of posts that have the best engagement. However, one metric that is not necessary to track in a social media audit is the bounce rate. While bounce rate is an important metric for website analytics, it is not relevant to social media platforms. Therefore, when conducting a social media audit, it is important to focus on metrics that are specifically related to social media engagement and performance. By tracking these metrics, you can gain valuable insights into how your social media strategy is performing and make adjustments as needed to improve your results.

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brand managers assess the focus of a social media website and its visitors primarily to blank . multiple choice question. a) choose one or more that will generate increased b) sales and profits reduce the need to change marketing c) strategies and tactics understand these phenomena as an external trend, d) important to company strategy determine the social media strategy of the company's competitors

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Brand managers assess the focus of a social media website and its visitors primarily to determine the social media strategy of the company's competitors.

Brand managers analyze the focus of a social media website and its visitors to gain valuable insights into the social media strategy of their competitors. By examining the content, engagement levels, and audience demographics of a competitor's social media presence, brand managers can identify successful tactics and trends used by their rivals. This analysis helps them understand how their competitors are effectively connecting with their target audience and shaping their brand image through social media. Armed with this knowledge, brand managers can refine their own social media strategy, identify potential gaps or areas for improvement, and develop innovative approaches to stay competitive in the market.

Additionally, understanding the social media strategy of competitors enables brand managers to assess industry trends and external factors that may impact their own marketing efforts. By identifying the patterns and preferences of the target audience across different social media platforms, brand managers can make informed decisions about the allocation of resources, content creation, and audience engagement strategies. This analysis also helps them stay updated with emerging trends and adapt their marketing strategies accordingly, reducing the need for sudden and drastic changes in their marketing tactics.

In summary, assessing the focus of a social media website and its visitors provides brand managers with crucial insights into their competitors' social media strategies, industry trends, and audience preferences. This information allows them to make data-driven decisions, improve their own social media presence, and effectively engage with their target audience while maintaining a competitive edge in the market.

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which of the following is one of the primary driving forces behind racial disparities in wealth?

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One of the primary driving forces behind racial disparities in wealth is historical and ongoing systemic racism.

For centuries, Black Americans and other people of color have faced discriminatory policies and practices that have hindered their ability to accumulate wealth. For example, redlining, a practice that denied mortgage loans to Black Americans in certain neighborhoods, prevented them from purchasing homes in areas with increasing property values, leading to limited opportunities for wealth accumulation through property ownership. Additionally, discriminatory lending practices and job discrimination have further limited opportunities for wealth accumulation. These systemic issues have led to a significant wealth gap between white Americans and people of color, with white families having a median wealth of $171,000 compared to just $17,150 for Black families. Addressing these systemic issues is crucial to closing the racial wealth gap and promoting equity and justice.

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