in a statement of cash flows, cash goes down when the sum of cash flows from operating activities, investment activities, and financing activities are positive. True or False?

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Answer 1

False. In a statement of cash flows, cash goes down when the sum of cash flows from operating activities, investment activities, and financing activities is negative.

Positive cash flows indicate an increase in cash, while negative cash flows indicate a decrease in cash. Therefore, when the sum of cash flows from all three activities (operating, investing, and financing) is positive, it means that cash is increasing, not decreasing.

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Related Questions

what acronym can be used to remember factors that influence real property value?

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The acronym that can be used to remember factors that influence real property value is DUST, which stands for Demand, Utility, Scarcity, and Transferability.
The acronym you can use to remember factors that influence real property value is "DUST". It stands for Demand, Utility, Scarcity, and Transferability. These four factors play a significant role in determining the value of real property. The abbreviation STUD is employed as a memory aid to keep the four factors of value in mind. They are scarcity, transferability, utility, and demand. Scarcity is related to the amount of available real estate. The more rare the quantity of available real estate, the more valuable the property.

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rome Johnston, the human resource manager at the U.S.-based Swingset International, is developing an international staffing policy for the company. Jerome personally believes Swingset should send managers from the United States to manage each subsidiary. But the CEO of the company, Valerie Vermont, believes subsidiary operations ought to be managed by individuals from the host country.


An important advantage of the staffing policy recommended by Valerie is that it ________.
eliminates the high cost of relocating expatriate managers and families
distributors
market receptivity

Answers

An important advantage of the staffing policy recommended by Valerie, which is to hire managers from the host country to manage each subsidiary, is that it eliminates the high cost of relocating expatriate managers and their families.

Hiring local managers can also result in a better understanding of the local market receptivity, as they are more familiar with the local culture, customs, and language. This can help the company adapt better to the local market, establish better relationships with distributors, and improve overall performance. Additionally, local managers may also have pre-existing business connections and networks that can be leveraged to benefit the subsidiary and the company as a whole. Overall, Valerie's staffing policy can potentially result in cost savings and better performance for the company's international operations.

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Suppose the interest rate on one-year U.S. T-bills is 4% and interest rate on one-year British T-bills is 6.5%. If the dollar is at a one-year forward premium against the British pound of 3%, the covered interest differential is:
a. the same as the uncovered interest differential.
b. equally favoring investments in both the nations.
c. in favor of investments in the United Kingdom.
d. in favor of investments in the United States.

Answers

The covered interest differential is in favour of investments in the United Kingdom. Option c is the correct answer.The covered interest differential is the difference between the interest rates on two countries' T-bills adjusted for the forward exchange rate.

In this case, the interest rate on one-year U.S. T-bills is 4% and the interest rate on one-year British T-bills is 6.5%. The forward premium of the dollar against the British pound is 3%.
To calculate the covered interest differential, we need to adjust the British interest rate by the forward premium:
Covered interest differential = (British interest rate + forward premium) - U.S. interest rate
= (6.5% + 3%) - 4%
= 5.5%
To calculate the covered interest differential, subtract the forward premium from the interest rate difference: (6.5% - 4%) - 3% = -0.5%. Since the result is negative, the covered interest differential favours investing in the United States.

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.Vivian, owner of Titan Corp., uses Titan Corp. as a way to order merchandise for her personal benefit and fails to pay for the merchandise. Creditors who have shipped merchandise to Titan want to sue Vivian personally. Which of the following legal doctrines would allow a personal suit against Vivian?

A) De facto corporation

B) Corporation by estoppel

C) Piercing the corporate veil.

D) De jure corporation

Answers

The legal doctrine that would allow a personal suit against Vivian in this scenario is piercing the corporate veil. The correct option is C.

This doctrine allows creditors or other parties to hold the owner(s) of a corporation personally liable for the debts or obligations of the corporation if they can prove that the owner(s) used the corporation to engage in fraudulent or illegal activities, or if they can demonstrate that the corporation was not truly a separate legal entity from its owner(s).

In this case, Vivian has used Titan Corp. to order merchandise for her personal benefit without paying for it, which could be seen as fraudulent activity. If creditors can demonstrate that Titan Corp. was not a legitimate separate legal entity, and that Vivian used it to engage in fraudulent activity or to avoid personal liability, they may be able to pierce the corporate veil and sue Vivian personally for the unpaid debts.

It's important to note that piercing the corporate veil is not an easy task and requires strong evidence to be successful. However, if creditors can prove that Vivian was using Titan Corp. in an illegitimate way, they may be able to hold her personally responsible for the unpaid merchandise. The correct option is C.

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Your company sells $90,000 of bonds for an issue price of $91,800. Which of the following statements is correct? Multiple Choice a.The bond sold at a price of 102.00, implying a premium of $1,800. b.The bond sold at a price of 102.00, implying a discount of $1,800. c.The bond sold at a price of 51.00, implying a discount of $1,800. d.The bond sold at a price of 51.00, implying a premium of $1,800.

Answers

The correct statement is a. The bond sold at a price of 102.00, implying a premium of $1,800.

The issue price of a bond is the price at which the bond is sold to investors, and it is expressed as a percentage of the bond's face value. In this case, the company sold $90,000 of bonds at an issue price of $91,800.

To determine whether the bond was sold at a premium or a discount, we need to compare the issue price to the face value of the bond. If the issue price is greater than 100% of the face value, then the bond is sold at a premium. If the issue price is less than 100% of the face value, then the bond is sold at a discount.

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If a country has relatively abundant unskilled labor, with scarce land and capital, it is more likely to have a comparative advantage in which of the following industries? Check all that apply.
a. Food service.
b. Textiles.
c. Agriculture.
d. Financial services.

Answers

If a country has relatively abundant unskilled labor, with scarce land and capital, it is more likely to have a comparative advantage in the industries of food service, textiles, and agriculture.

A country with relatively abundant unskilled labor, along with scarce land and capital, is more likely to have a comparative advantage in certain industries. The comparative advantage arises from the country's ability to produce goods or services at a lower opportunity cost compared to other countries.

Food service, textiles, and agriculture are industries that often rely on unskilled labor. In the case of food service, tasks such as food preparation, serving, and cleaning typically require unskilled labor. A country with abundant unskilled labor can produce food services more efficiently and at a lower cost, giving it a comparative advantage in this industry.

Textiles also require a significant amount of unskilled labor for tasks like sewing, stitching, and assembly. A country with a large pool of unskilled labor can produce textiles more competitively, especially if land and capital are scarce, making it a favorable industry for comparative advantage.

Agriculture is another industry that relies heavily on unskilled labor. Farming, harvesting, and other agricultural activities often require manual labor and less capital-intensive resources. A country with an abundance of unskilled labor can efficiently produce agricultural goods, giving it a comparative advantage in this sector.

On the other hand, financial services typically require skilled labor and capital-intensive resources. Given that the country in question has relatively abundant unskilled labor but scarce capital, it is less likely to have a comparative advantage in financial services.

In summary, based on the given factors of abundant unskilled labor and scarce land and capital, the industries where the country is more likely to have a comparative advantage are food service, textiles, and agriculture. Financial services, which require skilled labor and more capital, are less likely to be the areas of comparative advantage for such a country.

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GAAP establishes specific criteria for the treatment of leases under ASC 842. Which of the following does not accurately describe the criteria applicable to a lessee? Multiple Choice The lease agreement includes a bargain purchase option that the lessee is likely to exercise. The lease term allows the lessee to derive substantially all the remaining benefits associated with the asset The present value of the minimum lease payments is equal to or greater than 75% of the leased asset's fair value. The lease agreement transfers title of the leased asset to the lessee at the end of the lease term.

Answers

Among the criteria applicable to a lessee under ASC 842, the option that does not accurately describe the criteria is "The lease agreement transfers title of the leased asset to the lessee at the end of the lease term."

Under ASC 842, the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) provide specific criteria for the treatment of leases. These criteria help determine whether a lease should be classified as a finance lease or an operating lease for the lessee. The options provided in the multiple-choice question are:

   The lease agreement includes a bargain purchase option that the lessee is likely to exercise.    The lease term allows the lessee to derive substantially all the remaining benefits associated with the asset.    The present value of the minimum lease payments is equal to or greater than 75% of the leased asset's fair value.    The lease agreement transfers title of the leased asset to the lessee at the end of the lease term.

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6a On October 1, 2018, Milagro Company sells (factors) $700,000 of receivables to Beanfield Factors, Inc. Beanfield assesses a service charge of 3% of the amount of receivables sold. The journal entry to record the sale by Milagro will include

a debit of $700,000 to Accounts Receivable.

b a debit of $21,000 to Service Charge Expense.

c a debit of $721,000 to Cash.

d a credit of $721,000 to Cash.

6b The maturity value of a $50,000, 9%, 90-day note receivable dated July 3 is

a $50,000.

b $50,750.

c $51,125.

d $54,500.

6c A 90-day note dated April 24 has a maturity date of

a July 24.

b July 23.

c July 22.

d July 21.

6d Xenox Company had net credit sales during the year of $1,300,000 and cost of goods sold of $800,000. The balance in accounts receivable at the beginning of the year was $185,000, and the end of the year it was $140,000. What was the accounts receivable turnover?

a. 4.9

b 7.0

c 8.0

d 9.3

6e The financial statements of Gervais Manufacturing Company report net sales of $500,000 and accounts receivable of $60,000 and $40,000 at the beginning and end of the year, respectively. What is the average collection period for accounts receivable in days?

a. 29.2 days

b 36.5 days

c 43.8 days

d 57.9 days

Answers

The right response is c, which is a $721,000 debit to Cash. The journal entry for the transaction includes a debit to Cash for the amount received, which is $721,000 ($700,000 + 3% service fee), when Milagro Company sells $700,000 worth of receivables to Beanfield Factors, Inc.

6b. A $50,000 note with a 9% interest rate and a 90-day maturity date is worth $50,750. The maturity value is determined by multiplying the principal amount by interest. The interest in this situation is $50,000 * 9% * 90/360 = $1,125. This results in a maturity value of $50,000 + $1,125 = $50,750 when added to the principal.

6c. A 90-day note with an April 24 due date will mature on July 21. We increase the date by 90 days to get the maturity date. April 24 plus 90 days equals July 21.

6d. By dividing net credit sales by the average accounts receivable, one can determine the accounts receivable turnover. By summing the beginning and ending balances of accounts receivable and dividing by 2, you may determine the average amount owed. The accounts receivable turnover in this instance is calculated as $1,300,000 / (($185,000 + $140,000) / 2) = 7.0. Therefore, b. 7.0 is the right response.

6e. The average collection period for accounts receivable can be calculated by dividing the number of days in the year by the accounts receivable turnover. In this case, the average collection period is 365 days / (($60,000 + $40,000) / 2) = 43.8 days. Therefore, the correct answer is c. 43.8 days.

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Do you think government spending should be increased or decreased to help the economy?

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Do you believe that government spending should be increased or decreased to stimulate economic growth and stability? The answer to this question often depends on one's political and economic beliefs, as well as the specific needs and challenges faced by a nation at a given time. Proponents of increased government spending argue that it can lead to job creation, improved infrastructure, and overall economic growth, while those in favor of decreased spending emphasize the importance of reducing the national debt and fostering a more self-reliant private sector.

Historically, prominent economists, such as John Maynard Keynes, have advocated for increased government spending during times of economic recession to help jumpstart growth and reduce unemployment. On the other hand, proponents of decreased spending, such as followers of the Austrian School of Economics, argue that reducing government intervention allows for more efficient allocation of resources and encourages innovation within the private sector. Ultimately, the debate on government spending is ongoing and depends on a variety of factors, such as the state of the economy, the effectiveness of current policies, and the priorities of policymakers and citizens alike.

True/False. maximizing shareholder wealth is often a short-sighted decision because it can harm the organization’s financial viability in the future.

Answers

False. Maximizing shareholder wealth is not inherently a short-sighted decision that harms the organization's financial viability in the future.

Maximizing shareholder wealth is a long-term objective pursued by many organizations. It involves making decisions and taking actions that increase the value of the company's stock and maximize returns for shareholders over an extended period. This approach considers the interests of shareholders who have invested their capital in the company and expect a return on their investment.

While short-term focus or unethical practices can potentially harm an organization's long-term financial viability, maximizing shareholder wealth, when done responsibly, involves considering the sustainable growth and profitability of the company. It requires strategic planning, risk management, and balancing the needs of various stakeholders, including customers, employees, and the broader community.

By aligning the interests of shareholders with the long-term success of the organization, maximizing shareholder wealth can contribute to financial stability, attract investment, and support sustainable business practices.

It's important to note that responsible management also takes into account other factors such as corporate social responsibility and ethical considerations, which contribute to the long-term sustainability and reputation of the organization.

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the risks identified in the global risks report are analyzed along which parameters:

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The Global Risks Report, which is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF), analyzes risks along various parameters to provide a comprehensive understanding of the risks facing the world. The report identifies a wide range of risks that are categorized into five main areas: economic, environmental, geopolitical, societal, and technological.

When analyzing the identified risks, the report considers their potential impact and likelihood of occurrence. The WEF uses a risk matrix that plots the likelihood of the risk occurring against its potential impact. This helps to prioritize the risks and determine the appropriate responses to mitigate them.

The report also considers the interconnectedness of risks, recognizing that risks can exacerbate one another and create systemic risks. The WEF examines the relationships between risks, assessing how they interact and identifying potential cascading effects.

Furthermore, the report considers the time horizon of the risks. The WEF distinguishes between short-term and long-term risks, recognizing that some risks may have immediate consequences, while others may take years to materialize.

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the provision that sets forth the basic agreement between the insurer and the insured

Answers

The provision that sets forth the basic agreement between the insurer and the insured is commonly known as the "policy language" or the "insurance policy."

This document outlines the terms and conditions of the insurance contract, including coverage limits, premiums, deductibles, and exclusions. It is a legal contract between the insured and the insurer that establishes the obligations and responsibilities of both parties. The policy language can vary depending on the type of insurance coverage and the specific insurance company, but it is important for insured individuals to carefully review and understand the policy before signing or making a claim. The insurance policy is a foundational document that establishes the parameters of the insurance agreement. It outlines the rights and obligations of the insured and insurer, and establishes the conditions under which the insurer will provide coverage.

This provision establishes the promises made by the insurer and the risks they agree to cover, as well as the responsibilities of the insured party, such as paying premiums and meeting specific conditions to maintain coverage.

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a truck was acquired on july 1, 2023, for $189,000. the truck had a six-year useful life and an estimated salvage value of $21,000. the straight-line method of depreciation was used. on january 1, 2026, the truck was overhauled for $17,500, which extended the useful life of the truck for an additional two years beyond that originally estimated (salvage value is still estimated at $21,000). in computing depreciation for annual adjustment purposes, expense is calculated for each month the asset is owned.

Instructions

Prepare the appropriate entries for January 1, 2023 and December 31, 2023.

Answers

These entries reflect the acquisition of a truck on July 1, 2023, for $189,000 and the recognition of a $21,000 depreciation expense for the six-month period. The Accumulated Depreciation account will have a $21,000 balance, representing the cumulative depreciation by December 31, 2023.

To prepare the appropriate entries for January 1, 2023, and December 31, 2023, we need to consider the acquisition of the truck and its subsequent depreciation for the given period.

On July 1, 2023:

Debit: Truck (Asset) - $189,000

Credit: Cash (or Accounts Payable) - $189,000

This entry records the acquisition of the truck on July 1, 2023, at a cost of $189,000.

For the period ending December 31, 2023:

Debit: Depreciation Expense - $21,000 ([$189,000 - $21,000] / 6 months * 6 months)

Credit: Accumulated Depreciation - Truck - $21,000

This entry recognizes the depreciation expense for the truck for the six-month period from July 1, 2023, to December 31, 2023, using the straight-line method. The calculation takes into account the estimated salvage value of $21,000 and the remaining useful life of six years.

At the end of December 31, 2023, the Accumulated Depreciation account will have a balance of $21,000, representing the depreciation expense recognized for the truck from its acquisition date.

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which of the following data collection methods poses a risk that the data may not actually belong to the client?
A. Partial Interval
B. Permanent Product C. PLA-CHECK

Answers

Among the data collection methods offered is one that poses the risk that the data may not actually belong to the client:

B. Durable product

A durable is a method of data collection that involves examining or analyzing a tangible outcome or outcome of a behavior rather than directly observing or measuring the behavior itself. This method is commonly used in behavioral assessment, particularly in educational and developmental settings, to collect data on academic performance, task performance, or other observable outcomes.

However, the risk associated with the persistent product method is that the data collected does not necessarily reflect the client's own work or performance. This is because the tangible outcome or product being investigated may have been influenced or completed by someone else, such as a teacher, parent or peer.

For example, if a student is required to complete a written assignment, the durable product method would involve evaluating the final written document as evidence of the student's performance. However, there is a possibility that the student received help or even had someone else complete the task, which would result in an inaccurate representation of the data.

To mitigate this risk, it is important to combine the durable product method with other data collection methods that allow direct observation or measurement of the behavior being assessed. This helps verify the accuracy and authenticity of the data collected and ensures that it truly belongs to the client.

In short, while the perpetual product method is valuable for examining tangible results, it runs the risk that the data collected may not actually belong to the client. To address this risk, it is necessary to use other data collection methods that allow direct observation or measurement of client behavior.

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B. Permanent Product. The Permanent Product data collection method poses a risk that the data may not actually belong to the client.

The Permanent Product method involves collecting data by examining the lasting results or products of an individual's behavior, such as written records, artifacts, or tangible outcomes. In some cases, these products or outcomes may have been created by someone other than the client or may not accurately represent the client's behavior.

For example, if a researcher is assessing a student's writing skills by analyzing a sample of their essays, there is a possibility that the essays were ghostwritten or not genuinely representative of the student's abilities. Therefore, when using the Permanent Product method, it is crucial to verify the authenticity and ownership of the collected data to ensure its relevance and accuracy to the client being assessed.

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By listing numbers as (212) 555-1234, telephone companies use which technique to help people remember their own and other’s phone numbers? a. Mental rotation
b. Chunking
c. Digit span
d. Phonological similarity

Answers

Telephone companies use the technique of "chunking" to help people remember their own and others' phone numbers.

Chunking is a memory technique that involves grouping or organizing information into smaller, more manageable units or chunks. By presenting phone numbers in the format of (212) 555-1234, telephone companies facilitate chunking by breaking down the number into meaningful segments.

In this case, the number is divided into the area code, the first three digits, and the last four digits, which are easier to remember as separate chunks. By using this format, individuals can mentally organize and remember phone numbers more effectively.

Chunking helps to reduce the cognitive load and enhances memory retention by utilizing the brain's capacity to process information in meaningful patterns or groups.

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A firm's are costs that are incurred even if there is no output. In the short run, these costs as production increases. O fixed costs; do not change variable costs; increase O variable costs; do not change fixed costs:

Answers

A firm's fixed costs are costs that are incurred even if there is no output. In the short run, these costs do not change as production increases.

Fixed costs are expenses that a firm incurs regardless of the level of production or output. They are not directly affected by the quantity of goods or services produced. Examples of fixed costs include rent, salaries of permanent employees, insurance premiums, and depreciation of capital assets.

In the short run, a firm's fixed costs remain constant regardless of the level of production. This means that even if the firm produces more or less output, the fixed costs do not change. For instance, if a manufacturing plant is operating at full capacity or not producing anything at all, the fixed costs associated with maintaining the plant, such as rent and utilities, remain the same.

On the other hand, variable costs are costs that change in direct proportion to the level of production. They vary based on the quantity of goods or services produced. Examples of variable costs include raw materials, direct labor costs, and electricity costs directly related to production.

In summary, fixed costs are incurred by a firm even if there is no output, and they do not change in the short run as production increases. Variable costs, in contrast, vary with the level of production.

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which career position doesn’t have the authority over the project team?

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None of the above is the career position which doesn’t have the authority over the project team. The Option D.

Which career position doesn't have authority?

All the career positions mentioned including Information Security Officer, Cybersecurity Officer, and Chief Information Manager have some level of authority over the project team when it comes to information security and cybersecurity matters.

Information Security Officers and Cybersecurity Officers are typically responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of an organization's information assets while Chief Information Managers oversee the organization's entire information technology strategy.

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The following table contains actual segment data for two of​PepsiCo's geographic​ divisions: (1) Europe and​ (2) Asia, Middle​East, and Africa​ (AMEA).2012 Data (All figures are in millions of dollars) Operating Income Assets Sales RevenueEurope $ 1,330 $19,218 $13,441Asia, Middle East, and Africa (AMEA) 747 5,738 6,653Requirement 1. Compute each​ division's ROI.Select the formula for​ ROI, then calculate the ROI for each division. ​(Enter amounts in millions of dollars. Round the ROI to one tenth of a​ percent, X.X%.)____________ / _____________ = ROI Words to choose : Operating income, Sales revenue, Total assetsEurope _________ / __________ = ____%AMEA _________ / __________ = ____ %Requirement 2. Compute each​ division's sales margin.Select the formula for sales​ margin, then calculate the sales margin for each division. ​(Enter amounts in millions of dollars. Round the sales margin to one tenth of a​ percent, X.X%.)______________ / __________________ = Sales Margin Words to choose: Operating income, Sales revenue, Total assetsEurope _________ / ________________ = ________%AMEA __________ / ________________ = ________%Requirement 3. Compute each​ division's capital turnover.Select the formula for capital​ turnover, then calculate the capital turnover for each division. ​(Enter amounts in millions of dollars. Round the capital turnover ratio to two decimal​ places, X.XX.)________________ / ______________ = Capital turnover Words to choose: Operating income, Sales revenue, Total assetsEurope __________ / ______________ = _________ timesAMEA ___________ / ______________ = _________ timesRequirement 4. Fill in the blanks using the results of the preceding calculations.Europe has a higher/lower ROI than does AMEA. The reason for​ AMEA's stronger/weaker performance lies both in its ability to generate less/more operating income on every dollar of​ sales, as shown by the capital turnover / ROI / sales margin to generate less/ more sales with its​ assets, as shown by the capital turnover / ROI / sales margin To increase​ ROI, the AMEA/ Europe division needs to concentrate on becoming more efficient with its assets in order to increase its capital turnover/ sales margin At the same​ time, it needs to carefully cut​ costs, potentially through employing lean​ thinking, in order to increase its capital turnover/ sales margin.Requirement 5. Compute each​ division's residual​ income, assuming upper management desires a 25% minimum rate of return.Select the formula for residual​ income, then calculate the residual income for each division. ​(Enter amounts in millions of dollars. Do not round interim calculations. Round the residual income to the nearest million. Use a minus sign of parentheses for a negative residual​ income.)____________ - ( __________ x _________ ) = Residual Income words to choose: capital turnover, current liabilities, operating income, sales, total assets, effective tax rate, ROI, and target rate of returnEurope _______ - ( _________ x _________ % ) = ________AMEA _______ - ( _________ x _________% ) = _________

Answers

1) ROI to one tenth of a​ percent, X.X%.) Operating income / Total assets = ROI Words to choose : Operating income, Sales revenue, Total assets Europe 13330 / 19218 = 6.9% AMEA 747 / 5738 =13.0%.

2) Capital turnover ratio to two decimal​ places, X.XX.) Operating income / sales revenue  = Capital turnover Words to choose: Operating income, Sales revenue, Total assets Europe 13441 / 19218 = 0.7 times AMEA 6653 / 5738 = 1.16 times.

A ratio between net income and investment is known as return on investment or return on costs. A high return on investment indicates that the gains outweigh the costs. ROI is a performance metric that is used to evaluate an investment's effectiveness or to compare the effectiveness of multiple investments.

Requirement 1. Compute each​ division's ROI.

Operating profit/ Total assets= ROI   Words to choose : Operating income, Sales revenue, Total assets

Europe  1330 / 19218 =  6.9%

AMEA    747 /  5738 =  13.0%

Requirement 2. Compute each​ division's sales margin.

Operating income / sales revenue = Sales Margin   Words to choose: Operating income, Sales revenue, Total assets

Europe  1330 / 13441 =  9.9%

AMEA  747 /  6653 =  11.2%

Requirement 3. Compute each​ division's capital turnover.

Sales revenue/ total assets = Capital turnover  Words to choose: Operating income, Sales revenue, Total assets

Europe  13441 / 19218 = 0.70 times

AMEA  6653/ 5738 =  1.16 times

Requirement 4. Fill in the blanks using  the results of the preceding calculations.

Europe has a lower return for money invested than does AMEA. The Europe division needs to concentrate on becoming more efficient with its assets in order to increase its capital turnover. At the same time, it needs to carefully cut costs in order to increase its sales margin, possibly through the use of lean thinking. Both of these factors contribute to AMEA's ability to generate more operating income on every dollar of sales, as evidenced by the sales margin, and to generate more sales with its assets, as evidenced by the capital turnover.

Requirement 5. Compute each​ division's residual​ income, assuming upper management desires a 25% minimum rate of return.

Europe  1330 - ( 19218 x 25% )  = $ 3475

= 1330 – 4804.5

= $- 3474.50  or $ 3475

AMEA    747 - ( 5738 x 25% ) = $ 688

= 747 – 1434.5

= $ - 687.5 or $ 688.

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When both short-run aggregate supply and aggregate demand increase, which of the following can be said for certain?
A. The price level rises, but real GDP falls.
B. Both the price level and real GDP rise.
C. The price level rises, but the change in real GDP is uncertain.
D. The price level falls, but real GDP rises.
E. Real GDP rises, but the change in the price level is uncertain.www.crackap.com
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Source Url:https://www.crackap.com/ap/macroeconomics/test35.html

Answers

Option C) The price level rises, but the change in real GDP is uncertain.

When both short-run aggregate supply and aggregate demand increase, the impact on the price level can be determined with more certainty than the change in real GDP.

An increase in short-run aggregate supply implies that the number of goods and services supplied in the economy at each price level increases. This would typically result in a decrease in the price level. On the other hand, an increase in aggregate demand indicates that the total spending on goods and services in the economy increases, which can lead to an increase in the price level.

The change in real GDP, however, is uncertain because it depends on the relative magnitude of the increase in aggregate demand compared to the increase in short-run aggregate supply. If the increase in aggregate demand is larger, it can lead to both an increase in the price level and an increase in real GDP. However, if the increase in short-run aggregate supply is larger, it may offset or dampen the impact of aggregate demand on real GDP.

Therefore, the most certain outcome in this scenario is that the price level will rise, but the change in real GDP is uncertain, making option C the correct answer.

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if spain is said to have an absolute advantage over mexico in the production of computer chips, this means that, given the same resources,___. a) spain must have an absolute advantage over mexico in producing all goods. b) spain has an absolute advantage in all goods that are complements to computer chips. c) spain can produce more computer chips than mexico. d) mexico must have an absolute advantage in producing some good other than computer chips. e) mexico must have a comparative advantage over spain in the production of computer chips.

Answers

If Spain is said to have an absolute advantage over Mexico in the production of computer chips, it means that Spain can produce more computer chips using the same amount of resources as Mexico. The correct answer is option c.

This does not necessarily mean that Spain must have an absolute advantage over Mexico in producing all goods (option a), or that Spain has an absolute advantage in all goods that are complements to computer chips (option b). It only means that Spain can produce more computer chips than Mexico with the same amount of resources. Additionally, it does not necessarily mean that Mexico must have an absolute advantage in producing some good other than computer chips (option d), or that Mexico must have a comparative advantage over Spain in the production of computer chips (option e).
Therefore, the correct answer is option c) Spain can produce more computer chips than Mexico.

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when private benefits are less than social benefits: multiple choice positive externalities are present in the market. positive externalities are not present in the market. negative externalities are not present in the market. no externality of any kind is present in the market.

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When private benefits are less than social benefits, positive externalities are present in the market.

Positive externalities occur when the social benefits associated with a particular activity or good exceed the private benefits received by the individuals involved. In this scenario, the multiple-choice option that accurately reflects the situation is "positive externalities are present in the market."

When private benefits are less than social benefits, it indicates that there are additional positive effects or benefits that spill over to society beyond what individuals directly experience or account for. These positive externalities create social value that is not fully captured by the private market participants.

Examples of positive externalities include education, healthcare, environmental conservation, and scientific research. For instance, when an individual receives education, the benefits extend beyond that person, positively impacting society as a whole through a more educated workforce, increased productivity, and overall societal well-being.

Recognizing and addressing positive externalities is important for achieving efficient resource allocation and maximizing overall social welfare. Policies such as government subsidies, grants, or public investments are often implemented to incentivize activities that generate positive externalities and ensure their proper consideration in the market.

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Which of the following lists the steps to ensure active listening in the correct​ order?-Focus on what a speaker​ says, work to​ interpret/evaluate the​ content, and then respond to acknowledge understanding-Respond to acknowledge​ understanding, work to​ interpret/evaluate the​ content, and then focus on what a speaker says-Focus on what a speaker​ says, respond to acknowledge​ understanding, and then actively work to​ interpret/evaluate the content-Work to​ interpret/evaluate the​ content, focus on what a speaker​ says, and then respond to acknowledge understanding-Respond to acknowledge​ understanding, focus on what a speaker​ says, and then work to​ interpret/evaluate the content

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Focus on what the speaker is saying, make an effort to analyze or assess the information, and then give a response to show that you understand. This is the right answer that outlines the steps to ensure active listening in the right sequence. Here option A is the correct answer.

Active listening involves several key steps to fully understand and engage with the speaker's message. The first step is to focus on what the speaker says. This means giving your full attention to the speaker, avoiding distractions, and maintaining eye contact. By actively focusing on their words, you can better absorb the information being conveyed.

After focusing on what the speaker says, the next step is to work to interpret and evaluate the content. This involves analyzing the information, identifying key points, and understanding the speaker's perspective. It may also involve asking clarifying questions or seeking additional information to ensure a comprehensive understanding.

Finally, once you have interpreted and evaluated the content, it is important to respond to acknowledge understanding. This can be done by paraphrasing or summarizing the speaker's message to confirm comprehension. Responding also includes providing appropriate verbal and non-verbal cues, such as nodding, smiling, or using encouraging gestures, to indicate your engagement and understanding.

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Complete question:

Which of the following options lists the steps to ensure active listening in the correct order?

A. Focus on what a speaker says, work to interpret/evaluate the content, and then respond to acknowledge understanding.

B. Respond to acknowledge understanding, work to interpret/evaluate the content, and then focus on what a speaker says.

C. Focus on what a speaker says, respond to acknowledge understanding, and then actively work to interpret/evaluate the content.

D. Work to interpret/evaluate the content, focus on what a speaker says, and then respond to acknowledge understanding.

E. Respond to acknowledge understanding, focus on what a speaker says, and then work to interpret/evaluate the content.

T/F : scheduling the workforce so that the available capacity better matches demand is using time flexibility from the workforce.

Answers

True. Scheduling the workforce so that available capacity better matches demand is indeed using time flexibility from the workforce.

Time flexibility in the workforce is an essential aspect of efficient workforce management. It involves adjusting employees' schedules to ensure that available capacity aligns with demand, leading to optimal resource utilization. By implementing flexible work schedules, organizations can reduce idle time, improve productivity, and better meet customer needs. This may involve strategies like shift rotation, part-time work, and varying start and end times to accommodate demand fluctuations.

Moreover, this approach enables businesses to operate smoothly and maintain high levels of customer satisfaction by ensuring that the right number of employees is available when needed. Overall, time flexibility plays a crucial role in managing workforce capacity and meeting demand effectively.

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an individual covered under a group life insurance policy is considered to be a(n):___

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An individual covered under a group life insurance policy is considered to be a member or participant.

Group life insurance policies are typically provided by employers or organizations to offer life insurance coverage to a group of individuals under a single policy. These individuals, also known as insured members or participants, benefit from the coverage provided by the group policy.

The coverage under a group life insurance policy is usually offered as a benefit to employees or members of a specific organization or association. It provides financial protection to the insured individuals and their beneficiaries in the event of the insured member's death.

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you+buy+a+5.7%+coupon+semi-annual+corporate+bond+and+owe+1.457%+(of+face)+accrued+interest+at+settlement.+how+many+days+interest+does+the+accrued+interest+represent

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The accrued interest of 1.457% (of face) represents approximately 186.65 days of interest.

To calculate the number of days of accrued interest represented by the 1.457% (of face) accrued interest on a semi-annual corporate bond, we need to know the coupon frequency and the bond's coupon payment schedule.

Assuming that the bond pays coupons semi-annually, we can calculate the number of days of accrued interest using the following steps:

Determine the coupon rate per period: Divide the annual coupon rate by the coupon frequency. In this case, the coupon rate per period would be 5.7% / 2 = 2.85% (since it's a semi-annual bond).

Calculate the daily interest rate: Divide the coupon rate per period by the number of days in a year. Since there are 365 days in a year, the daily interest rate would be 2.85% / 365 = 0.00780822 (rounded to 8 decimal places).

Determine the number of days of accrued interest: Divide the accrued interest rate by the daily interest rate. In this case, 1.457% / 0.00780822 ≈ 186.65 days.

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which of the following tools is typically used to compare work practices? (select the best answer) a. brainstorming b. 5 whys/why-why analysis c. voice of the customer d. benchmarking

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The tool typically used to compare work practices is benchmarking. Option d

Benchmarking involves comparing an organization's practices to those of similar organizations in the same industry or sector. This process helps organizations identify areas where they are performing well and areas where improvements can be made. It can involve analyzing various aspects of an organization's operations, such as productivity, quality, cost-effectiveness, and customer satisfaction.
Brainstorming, on the other hand, is a creative problem-solving tool that involves generating a large number of ideas in a short period of time. It is typically used to identify potential solutions to a problem or challenge.
whys/why-why analysis is a root cause analysis tool used to identify the underlying causes of a problem. It involves asking a series of "why" questions to identify the root cause(s) of a problem.
Voice of the customer is a tool used to gather feedback from customers about their experiences with a product or service. It involves collecting and analyzing customer feedback to identify areas where improvements can be made.
In summary, benchmarking is the most appropriate tool to use when comparing work practices. It allows organizations to learn from the best practices of others and identify areas where they can improve their own practices.

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micro-perspectives focus on quality of services at the point of delivery.

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Micro-perspectives focus on the quality of services at the point of delivery by examining individual interactions, experiences, and satisfaction levels.

This approach allows for a detailed analysis of service quality, enabling improvements and adjustments to be made based on specific client needs and expectations. Micro-perspectives refer to a specific approach to analyzing service delivery that emphasizes the quality of services at the point of delivery. This means that the focus is on the actual interaction between the service provider and the customer, with the goal of identifying areas where improvements can be made to enhance the customer experience.

Therefore,  By examining the quality of services at this micro level, organizations can gain insights into the specific challenges and opportunities that exist within their service delivery processes, which can help them to identify strategies for improving overall service quality and customer satisfaction.

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Which of the following is true in the short run when comparing an increase in government spending to an increase in private investment spending? O The increase in investment spending will result in a greater increase in employment than the increase in government spending O Government spending is inflationary, private investment spending is not. O Government spending must equal taxes; private investment spending must equal saving. O They will both increase aggregate demand.

Answers

Answer:

The statement "They will both increase aggregate demand" is true in the short run when comparing an increase in government spending to an increase in private investment spending.

Both an increase in government spending and an increase in private investment spending will increase aggregate demand, which is the total amount of goods and services that consumers, businesses, government, and foreign entities are willing to buy.

In the short run, an increase in government spending will increase aggregate demand through a direct increase in government purchases of goods and services. An increase in private investment spending will increase aggregate demand through an increase in demand for investment goods, such as machinery and equipment.

While the other statements may be true in certain contexts, they do not directly address the comparison between an increase in government spending and an increase in private investment spending.

Explanation:

sd q is the product supply curve after an import quota is imposed. a quota of y−w will result in an increase of domestic producer surplus equal to area(s)

Answers

An import quota is a limit set on the quantity of a particular product that can be imported into a country. When a quota is imposed, the supply of the imported product is reduced, which affects the overall supply of the product in the market.

Now, let's consider the product supply curve after an import quota is imposed. The quota limits the amount of imported products that can be sold in the domestic market. This means that the supply curve will shift to the left, reducing the quantity of the product available in the market.

As a result of the quota, the price of the product will increase as the domestic producers will be able to charge higher prices for the reduced supply. This increase in price will lead to an increase in domestic producer surplus. The increase in domestic producer surplus can be measured by the area between the new supply curve and the original supply curve up to the quantity limit of the quota.

So, the answer to your question is that a quota of y-w will result in an increase of domestic producer surplus equal to the area between the new supply curve and the original supply curve up to the quantity limit of the quota. This increase in producer surplus is due to the higher prices that domestic producers can charge for the reduced supply of the product.

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Hamilton, a member in public practice, is a sole-practitioner who operates her accounting practice as a corporation and has been in practice since 2005. Which of the following would be considered an act discreditable to the profession: a. Hamilton filed her personal tax return for 2013 prior to the filing deadline of April 15, 2014. b. Hamilton filed the corporate tax return for 2013 for her business prior to the filing deadline of March 15, 2014. c. Hamilton put her personal tax return for 2012 on extension and filed it prior to the extended filing due date of October 15, 2013. d. Hamilton filed an extension for her 2010 personal tax return but did not file it by the extended due date of October 15, 2011. When she received a delinquency notice from the IRS in April 2012, she immediately filed the return and paid all taxes, interest, and penalties due. e. None of the above would be considered an act discreditable to the profession.

Answers

The act discreditable to the profession in this scenario is **option d**: Hamilton filed an extension for her 2010 personal tax return but did not file it by the extended due date of October 15, 2011.

When she received a delinquency notice from the IRS in April 2012, she immediately filed the return and paid all taxes, interest, and penalties due.

Failing to meet tax filing deadlines and failing to timely file tax returns is considered an act discreditable to the accounting profession. It reflects negatively on the practitioner's professionalism, integrity, and adherence to professional and legal obligations.

Options a, b, and c indicate that Hamilton filed her personal and corporate tax returns within the prescribed deadlines or extended deadlines, which is in line with professional and legal requirements.

Therefore, the correct answer is **option d**.

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