Please explain step by step I dont get it.

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

You can put 3 in 9 three times

Answer:

n/4-6

Step-by-step explanation:

n/4-6

This is the expression because we need to divide n by 4 and subtract 6

The number is 68

68 divided by 4= 17

17-6=11

Answer:

Hi how are you doing today Jasmine

Answer:

Summary. The Addition Property states that: a=bis equivalent toa+c=b+cora−c=b−c Basically, whatever you do to one side of the equal sign, you have to do to the other side.

Hope this helps!!! :)

Answer:

4/5 is the slope

Answer:

(-5,-4) or (-4, -5)

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](1 + \sqrt{2^{4} }) = 5[/tex]

[tex](1 - \sqrt{2^{4} } ) = - 3[/tex]5--3=8

Answer:

200

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

200

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

n+37=180

n=180-37=143°

Answer:

B) 143°

Step-by-step explanation:

Since n° is supplementary to 180°, then n°=180°-37°=143°.

Answer:

[tex]1 \to 22 \to 0.176[/tex]

[tex]2 \to 13 \to 0.104[/tex]

[tex]3 \to 18 \to 0.144[/tex]

[tex]4 \to 29 \to 0.232[/tex]

[tex]5 \to 37 \to 0.296[/tex]

[tex]6 \to 6 \to 0.048[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]n = 125[/tex]

See attachment for proper table

Required

Complete the table

Experimental probability is calculated as:

[tex]Pr = \frac{Frequency}{n}[/tex]

We use the above formula when the frequency is known.

For result of roll 2, 4 and 6

The frequencies are 13, 29 and 6, respectively

So, we have:

[tex]Pr(2) = \frac{13}{125} = 0.104[/tex]

[tex]Pr(4) = \frac{29}{125} = 0.232[/tex]

[tex]Pr(6) = \frac{6}{125} = 0.048[/tex]

When the frequency is to be calculated, we use:

[tex]Pr = \frac{Frequency}{n}[/tex]

[tex]Frequency = n * Pr[/tex]

For result of roll 3 and 5

The probabilities are 0.144 and 0.296, respectively

So, we have:

[tex]Frequency(3) = 125 * 0.144 = 18[/tex]

[tex]Frequency(5) = 125 * 0.296 = 37[/tex]

For roll of 1 where the frequency and the probability are not known, we use:

[tex]Total \ Frequency = 125[/tex]

So:

Frequency(1) added to others must equal 125

This gives:

[tex]Frequency(1) + 13 + 18 + 29 + 37 + 6 = 125[/tex]

[tex]Frequency(1) + 103 = 125[/tex]

Collect like terms

[tex]Frequency(1) =- 103 + 125[/tex]

[tex]Frequency(1) =22[/tex]

The probability is then calculated as:

[tex]Pr(1) = \frac{22}{125}[/tex]

[tex]Pr(1) = 0.176[/tex]

So, the complete table is:

[tex]1 \to 22 \to 0.176[/tex]

[tex]2 \to 13 \to 0.104[/tex]

[tex]3 \to 18 \to 0.144[/tex]

[tex]4 \to 29 \to 0.232[/tex]

[tex]5 \to 37 \to 0.296[/tex]

[tex]6 \to 6 \to 0.048[/tex]

Answer:

2,3,4, and 5

Step-by-step explanation:

#1

So all are positive

#2

In Q3

Hence all are negative

#4

Yes anything left to or bottom to zero us negative

#6

option A,B,D,F are correct

Answer:

178.2 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \sin(60) = \frac{x}{200} \\ \frac{ \sqrt{3} }{2} = \frac{x}{200} \\ x = 100 \times \sqrt{3}[/tex]

So,

[tex]h = 5 + x = 5 + 100 \times \sqrt{3} = 178.2[/tex]

Answer:

11,143.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Density measures the number of people per unit area

Density = population / area

1,579,000 / 141.7  = 11,143.30

Answer: 3n - 12

Product means multiplication. So the 3 and n are being multiplied. If 12 is less than, then that means it is being subtracted from 3n, not the other way around.

Given:

The point (5,-2) is translated 3 units to the left.

To find:

The new location of the point.

Solution:

If a point is translated 3 units to the left, then

[tex](x,y)\to (x-3,y)[/tex]

Using this rule of translation, we get

[tex](5,-2)\to (5-3,-2)[/tex]

[tex](5,-2)\to (2,-2)[/tex]

Therefore, the new location of the point is (2,-2). Hence, the correct option is C.

Answer:

I think it's 64 in

I hope it's helps you

Answer:

The 90% confidence interval for the difference in mean breaking strength between the two types of yarn is (0.08N, 0.52N).

Step-by-step explanation:

Before building the confidence interval, we need to understand the central limit theorem and subtraction of normal variables.

Central Limit Theorem

The Central Limit Theorem estabilishes that, for a normally distributed random variable X, with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the sampling distribution of the sample means with size n can be approximated to a normal distribution with mean

For a skewed variable, the Central Limit Theorem can also be applied, as long as n is at least 30.

Subtraction of normal variables:

When we subtract two normal variables, the mean is the difference of the means, while the standard deviation is the square root of the sum of the variances.

A sample of 125 pieces of yarn had mean breaking strength 6.1 N and standard deviation 0.7 N.

This means that [tex]\mu_1 = 6.1, s_1 = \frac{0.7}{\sqrt{125}} = 0.0626[/tex]

In a sample of 75 pieces of yarn from the new batch, the mean breaking strength was 5.8 N and the standard deviation was 1.0 N.

This means that [tex]\mu_2 = 5.8, s_2 = \frac{1}{\sqrt{75}} = 0.1155[/tex]

Distribution of the difference:

[tex]\mu = \mu_1 - \mu_2 = 6.1 - 5.8 = 0.3[/tex]

[tex]s = \sqrt{s_1^2+s_2^2} = \sqrt{0.0626^2+0.1155^2} = 0.1314[/tex]

Confidence interval:

We have that to find our [tex]\alpha[/tex] level, that is the subtraction of 1 by the confidence interval divided by 2. So:

[tex]\alpha = \frac{1 - 0.9}{2} = 0.05[/tex]

Now, we have to find z in the Ztable as such z has a pvalue of [tex]1 - \alpha[/tex].

That is z with a pvalue of [tex]1 - 0.05 = 0.95[/tex], so Z = 1.645.

Now, find the margin of error M as such

[tex]M = zs[/tex]

[tex]M = 1.645*0.1314 = 0.22[/tex]

The lower end of the interval is the sample mean subtracted by M. So it is 0.3 - 0.22 = 0.08N

The upper end of the interval is the sample mean added to M. So it is 0.3 + 0.22 = 0.52N

The 90% confidence interval for the difference in mean breaking strength between the two types of yarn is (0.08N, 0.52N).

Answer: 7/17

add all the marbles to get the total

6 + 7 + 4 = 17

there are 7 blue marbles so

7/17

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

19 of 22 participants (86.36%) from the high-power posing group took a gambling risk to double their money, while 12 of 20 (60%) from the low-power posing group took the gambling risk. Use a calculator tool from Module 10 to determine the p-value associated with the hypothesis test examining if there is a statistically significant difference between the proportion of people willing to take risks in the two groups. Round to 3 decimal places

H0 : P1 - P2 = 0

H1 : P1 - P2 ≠ 0

P1 = 0.8636

P2 = 0.6

q1 = 1 - P1 = 0.1364

q2 = 1 - P2 = 0.4

Tstatistic = (p1 - p2) ÷ √(p1q1)/n1 + (p2q2)/n2]

Tstatistic = (0.8636-0.6) ÷ √0.01735432]

Tstatistic = 0.2636 ÷ 0.1317357

Test statistic = 2.0009761

Test statistic = 2

The Pvalue from t statistics :

Tscore = 2 ; df = 20 + 22 - 2 = 40

This is in contrast to theoretical probability where it's what we think would happen, or predict to happen.

For example, the theoretical probability of getting heads on a coin is 1/2 = 0.50 = 50%. If you flip a coin say 1000 times and get 400 heads, then the empirical or experimental probability of getting heads is 400/1000 = 0.40 = 40%. The experimental probability is what actually happens when you do the experiment. The theoretical probability is what you predict what would happen given some list of assumptions and rules about the object.

According to the law of large numbers, the experimental probability should get closer and closer to the theoretical one assuming the theoretical probability has been calculated properly (and all assumptions are correct). If we got say 475 heads instead of 400, then we might have fairly good evidence that we have a fair coin (since 475/1000 = 0.475 is fairly close to 0.500); however, if we got something like 300 heads then we might suspect that the coin is biased toward tails than it is toward heads. The more trials you do, the better a picture you can get of it.

Answer:

xxyy2578

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

you need more information to answer this, it's either 84 or 56 since it's in acute angle. looks closer to 84

Answer:

tan theta = 8/15

Step-by-step explanation:

Sin is equal to opposite over hypotenuse. So it means that the side opposite from theta is 8, and the hypotenuse is 17.

To find the value of the adjacent side from theta, use the Pythagorean Theorem.

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

8^2 + b^2 = 17^2

64 + b^2 = 289

Subtract 64.

b^2 = 225

Take the square root.

b = 15.

So that means:

the side opposite from theta is 8,

the side adjacent from theta is 15,

the hypotenuse is 17.

Now we take tan, opposite over adjacent, and use the values from the triangle.

tan = opposite / adjacent

tan = 8/15.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

When you are taking off percentages from numbers, you first want to make the percent a number. This step is super simple. Just divide the 18 by 100

This gets you 0.18

Now multiply

84 * 0.18 = 15.12

So 15.12 is the discount

Then take 84 and subtract 15.12

84 - 15.12 = 68.88

So 68.88 is the sell price

Answer:

63

Step-by-step explanation:

Mode is the number that is repeated the most, in this case its 63

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

40.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the formula if you have one, (AS = 2Ab (a+b+c)h)

Then apply.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The other graphs are functions.

Graph A is a linear function, and C is an Absolute Value Function.

Graph B also seems to be a function.

However- I can only narrow it down to B or C.  I apologize if my answer is not correct.