Please help with this also

Answer:

7= 120 8= 175

Step-by-step explanation:

all you have to do is times the numbers

Answer: the answer to number 7  is 17  answer to number 8 is 24

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the pythagorean theorem

a^2  + b^2 = c^2

It's pretty easy, take the example of this fraction... [tex]\frac{2}{4}[/tex]

What you do in here is that you note down the factors of 2 and 4 over here.

Factors of 2 and 4:

2 = 1, 2

4 = 1, 2, 4

Now, you see that the GREATEST Common Factor (GCF) over here is 2.

Now that we see the GCF of 2 and 4 is 2, what you do next is, you have to divide 2 by 2 AND 4. When you do this, you will get your results. 2 = 1 and 4 = 2, now put this in the fraction form again, meaning switch 2 with 1, and 4 with 2 in the fractions... [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

So your simplified fraction is [tex]\frac{1}2}[/tex]!

Answer:

A fraction is in simplest form when the top and bottom cannot be any smaller, while still being whole numbers.

You can simplify a fraction by dividing the top and bottom by the greatest number that will divide both numbers exactly. They must stay whole numbers.

Hopefully this picture helps explain :)

Answer:: c = 10h + 6

is that u in ur pf?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1. is 2

2. is right and 10

Step-by-step explanation:

just took the test will explain if needed

From the triangles given, ∆ DEF was dilated to ∆ ABC

The dilated triangle is = ∆ ABC

To find the scale factor uses for the dilation of the triangle, the length of the triangle AC and DF are considered.

AC from the scale= -2 -(-7)

= 7-2= 5

DF= 9-6.5

= 2.5

Therefore the scale factor = 5/2.5 = 2

And since the scale factor of dilation is 2 this means that ∆ A' B' C' can be translated to the 0.5 by 2 units.

Learn more about triangles here:

https://brainly.com/question/2644832

#SPJ2

48

1st seat 6 possible for each 6 only 1 possible(spouse) for seat 2

3rd seat 4 possible for each 4 only 1 possible(spouse) for seat 4

5th seat 2 possible for each 2 only 1 possible(spouse) for seat 6

6 x 4 x 2 = 48

OR 3 couples possible arrangements 3 x 2 x1 = 6

each couple 2 possible 2 x 2 x 2 = 8

therefore 6 x 8 = 48

Answer:

correct answer is : 19 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

24 units³

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula:

Volume (V) = length (l) × width (w) × height (h)

V=3×4×2=24 units³

Answer:

the answer should be 24 units^3 because the formula for finding volume is V= lwh so we need to multiply 2 times 3 and 4 and when we do that we get an answer of 24 so a is the correct answer and have a great day.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

d≈24.49

Length 20

Width 10

Height 10

formula:

[tex]d= \sqrt{l^2+w^2+h^2} = \sqrt{20^2+10^2+10^2} = 24.4949[/tex]

Have a good day!

Answer:

Area, 199.5, Perimeter, 46.45

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Decompose it into 2 shapes; rectangle and triangle

2. Find the area of the triangle; 10cm×7.6cm=76×1/2=38

3. Find the area of the rectangle; 21.25cm×7.6cm=161.5

4. Add the products 38+161.5=199.5

Perimeter:

1. Decompose it into 2 shapes; rectangle and triangle

2. Find the perimeter of the triangle; 10cm+7.6cm=17.6

3. Find the perimeter of the rectangle; 21.25+7.6=28.85

4. Add the sums 17.6+28.85=46.45

Answer:

Use the order of operations PEMDAS:

Expression 1

  6 ⋅ 7 - 32 ⋅ 9 + 43

= 42 - 288 + 43

= -246 + 43

= -203

Expression 2

Insert parentheses around 5 + 4:

  (5 + 4) · 2 + 6 - 2 ⋅ 2 - 1

= 9 · 2 + 6 - 2 ⋅ 2 - 1

= 18 + 6 - 4 - 1

= 24 - 4 - 1

= 20 - 1

= 19

Answer:

Expression 1

 6 ⋅ 7 - 32 ⋅ 9 + 43

= 42 - 288 + 43

= -246 + 43

= -203

Expression 2

Insert parentheses around 5 + 4:

 (5 + 4) · 2 + 6 - 2 ⋅ 2 - 1

= 9 · 2 + 6 - 2 ⋅ 2 - 1

= 18 + 6 - 4 - 1

= 24 - 4 - 1

= 20 - 1

= 19

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

probability=number of favorable outcome÷total number of favorable outcome

Step-by-step explanation:

A the probability that all children are boys =3÷3 =1

same answer with the girl children

Answer:

A) 1/8 or 0.125 for three girls and three boys

B) 3/8 or 0.375 for two girls and one boy

C) 3/8 or 0.375 for two boys and one girl

D) 1/2 or 0.50, explanation provided below

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A) If a family has three children, the probability that all three children are girls can be found by first finding the probability of one child being a girl. The probability of being a girl in this case is 1/2. The probability of three girls is thus (1/2) * (1/2) * (1/2) = 1/8 or 0.125. The probability of one child being a boy is 1/2, and so rather than repeating the above steps, we can simply say that it is also 1/8 or 0.125.

Part B) For this part, it is probably easiest to list the combinations:

BBB

BBG

BGB

BGG

GBB

GBG

GGB

GGG

There are three outcomes with two girls and one boy and thus the probability is 3/8.

Part C) Looking at the combinations above, we also see that there are three outcomes with two boys and one girl, and thus the probability is 3/8.

Part D) The fact that Josh has a younger brother does not affect the probability that the third child will be a girl or boy. The probability of the third child being a boy is still 1/2.

Answer:

[tex]23=0.50r+22[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

y=total amount of money

b=cost of admission

m=cost per ride

r= amount of rides

How to solve:

Step 1: Set up the equation in [tex]y=mx+b[/tex] format.

[tex]23=22+0.50r[/tex]

Step 2: Subtract 22 from both sides of the equation.

[tex]23-22=22+0.50r-22[/tex]

Step 3: Divide both sides by 0.50

[tex]\frac{1}{0.50} =\frac{0.50r}{0.50}[/tex]

Step 4: You are left with your answer.

[tex]r=2[/tex]

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

2+2+2+3+3+4+5+7+8

=36

36/9

=4

Answer:

Naja earns 64$ per 8 hours of work

Step-by-step explanation:

2 steps:

Step 1

Divide 5 by 40 to find how much dollars per hour

[tex]\frac{40}{5} =8[/tex]

8, so that means that Naja earns $8 per hour

Step 2

Multiply 8 by 8 to get final answer

[tex]8*8=64[/tex]

$64, so that means that Naja earns 64$ per 8 hours of work

Answer:

$64 for 8 hrs.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 2 ways you could do this. The easy way is the first one.

1. Divide 40 by 5 and you get 8. 2. After you get that answer, then you have to multiply 8x8=64. So she gets $64 per hour.

Then there is the harder one. This is if they say to show your work.

1. Start by putting it in this format:

5 -- 40

6 -- 48

7 -- 56

8 -- 64

So you basically just add 8 each time to get 64.

Hope this helps! Please give brainlist!

Answer:

D. 270

Step-by-step explanation:

9 + 9 = 18

18 x 15 = 270

Answer:

270

Step-by-step explanation:

1. divide the bases into separate numbers and add them together. 18.

2. multiply by the height, which is the dotted line. The result is 270.

Answer: I think it should be about 150.5 square mm

Step-by-step explanation:

I just multiplied all the dimensions you wrote...

By the way if its wrong please tell me so I can learn.

Thanks!

Answer:

D)140.19 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

its either -8 or 8 im not sure which good luck tho!

Answer:

40 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

the diameter is just Rx2 (R being the radius)

Answer: 40

Step-by-step explanation:

480/20=960/x Cross multiply

19200=480x

x=40

Answer:

40 teachers are needed

Step-by-step explanation:

480 : 20 = 24 : 1

960/24 = 40

= 960:40

Answer:

0.3412

Step-by-step explanation:

Please look at the photo for an explanation.

Answer:

The length of a pencil is 4.5 inches. The length of a crayon is 2.1 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let pencils be p

Let crayons be c

6 pencils and 5 crayons are 37.5 inches. This will be:

6p + 5c = 37.5 ........ equation 1

7 pencils and 6 crayons are 44.1 inches. This will be:

7p + 6c = 44.1 ........ equation 2

Multiply equation 1 by 7

Multiply equation 2 by 6

42p + 35c = 262.5 (3)

42p + 36c = 264.6 (4)

Subtract 4 from 3

c = 2.1

Plug the value of c into equation 1

From equation 1

6p + 5c = 37.5

6p + 5(2.1) = 37.5

6p + 10.5 = 37.5

6p = 37.5- 10.5

6p = 27

p = 27/6

p = 4.5

hope this helps

please can i get brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

Here x and 80° are supplementary angle so...

x + 80° = 180°

x = 180° - 80°

x = 100°

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

To find true or false

Using the properties of logarithms, the left side of the given equation .logb b^2r=2r

, is equivalent to logb b^2r = 2x logb b

(use Power Rule)

=2x(1)

=2x

Hence, the given statement is a true statement.



Answer:

The answer is 6

Step-by-step explanation:

it is 6 (y = 12x / 10)