PLEQSE ANSWER ASAP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Answer:

At 1:40 pm you will reach the market.

Step-by-step explanation:

Distance (d) = 11 km

Average speed (v) = 3 km/h

Formula:

[tex] \rm Average \: speed = \dfrac{Distance}{Time} \\ \\ \rm 3 = \dfrac{11}{t} \\ \\ \rm t = \dfrac{11}{3} \\ \\ \rm t = 3 \frac{2}{3} \\ \\ \rm t = 3 hr \: 40min[/tex]

It will take 3 hours 40 minutes to reach the market.

So, if you set off for the market at 10 am you will reach market by 1:40 pm (10 am + 3hr 40min).

Answer:

The Mississippi home

Step-by-step explanation:

I would get the Mississippi home because it has 5 bedrooms with 7 bathrooms, it would be a great home for a family and guest to go to. and it also depends on the condition of the home and the amount of people in you family.

Answer:

Each number is called a factor

Step-by-step explanation:

The multiplication of two numbers is equivalent to adding as many copies of one of them

Answer:

10.

here,

h=c

b=5

p=12

,we know that,

h²=b²+p²(pythagoras theorum )

c=5²+12²

c=25+144

c=169

hence the value of c is 169.

Answer:

y = -9x + 18.

Step-by-step explanation:

The general form is y = mx + c , where m = the slope and c = y-intercept.

[tex]\huge\boxed{Hi \: there! :)}[/tex]

We are given the slope of the line: -9.

We are also given its y-intercept: 18.

Slope-Intercept Form:

[tex]\huge\sf\{y=mx+b[/tex]

Where

m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.

Plug in the values:

y=-9x+18

[tex]\huge\boxed{Therefore, \: our \: equation \: is: y=-9x+18}[/tex]~An Unknown Dreamer

Good luck!

It would cost an employee $443.52 to purchase one of these laptops at the sale.

The selling price of the laptops is $720 each. The cost price is 20 percent more than the cost price.

Cost price = Selling price - 20% of cost price

Cost price = 720 - 20% * 720 = $576

At the release, the laptops are at 23% off the store's cost. Hence:

Price of laptop at release = 576 - 23% of 576

Price of laptop at release = $443.52

It would cost an employee $443.52 to purchase one of these laptops at the sale.

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Answer:

NOT CONGRUENT

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle Side Side doesnt work so it is not congruent

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Sorry no one answered your question sooner. First Let x = what the daughter receives

Then 180000 - x is what the son will receive. Notice that if you add these together you get the total, 180000. You write a proportion and cross multiply to solve. Since x = 80000, the son will receive 80000. The daughter will receive 100000.

Answer:

The first recipe - 3/4 tsp of salt in 1 cup of water

Step-by-step explanation:

1st recipe Salt per cup = 3/4 tsp / 1 cup = 3/4 tsp salt

2nd recipe Salt per cup = 1 tsp / 2 cups = 1/2 tsp salt

3/4 tsp > 1/2 tsp, hence the first recipe is saltier

Answer:

B = $140

Step-by-step explanation:

for part A, the graph is linear line with a Y intercept at (0,65) so this means that if you were to have no charms it would cost 65 dollars, since the y axis represents cost. then for every 1 increment on the x axis (number of charms) the Y value increases by 25 so the slope is [tex]\frac{25}{1}[/tex]

we also can conclude that there is no negative domain since you cannot have negative charms, and the range begins at 65 since you cannot get a bracelet for less money

for part B, y=25x+65

so for three charms, x is represented as 3 so y=25(3) +65 which is 75+65=y= $140

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculate the slope m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (6, a ) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (9, - 4 )

m = [tex]\frac{-4-a}{9-6}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-4-a}{3}[/tex]

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

2x - 3y = 6 ( subtract 2x from both sides )

- 3y = - 2x + 6 ( divide through by - 3 )

y = [tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex] x - 2 ← in slope- intercept form

with slope m = [tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex]

Parallel lines have equal slopes , then

[tex]\frac{-4-a}{3}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex] , so

- 4 - a = 2 ( add 4 to both sides )

-a = 6 ( multiply both sides by - 1 )

a = - 6 → A

Answer:

No it does not

Step-by-step explanation:

Two points simplify to 1/6 whilst the other, 1/5

Ratio:-

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto \dfrac{2}{20}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto \dfrac{1}{10}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto 1:10[/tex]

Answer:

Last choice

Step-by-step explanation:

First, convert (sinx)^2 to 1-(cosx)^2 via trigonometric identity derived from (sinx)^2 + (cosx)^2 = 1

[tex]\displaystyle \large{\sin^2x + \cos^2x=1 \longrightarrow \sin^2x=1-\cos^2x}[/tex]

Thus, the rewritten inequality is [tex]\displaystyle \large{1-\cos^2x>1+\cos x}[/tex]

Notice how the inequality has a quadratic pattern since we have (cosx)^2 and cosx in the inequality, simply arrange degrees in order.

[tex]\displaystyle \large{1-\cos^2x>1+\cos x}\\\displaystyle \large{0>1+\cos x-1+\cos^2x}\\\displaystyle \large{0>\cos x+\cos^2x}\\\displaystyle \large{\cos^2x+\cos x < 0}[/tex]

Then we factor cosx since the expression has cosx as a common factor.

[tex]\displaystyle \large{\cos x(\cos x+1)<0}[/tex]

Then we have to consider each inequalities which are cosx<0 and cosx+1<0 then merge both intervals once obtaining the solutions.

(1) [tex]\displaystyle \large{\cos x < 0}[/tex]

This inequality means that we have to find the x-value(s) that satisfy(ies) it.

Since cosx becomes negative after π/2 (Refer to unit circle, cosx becomes negative in second quadrant and this quadrant), that means it becomes negative until it reaches or < 3π/2.

Thus, [tex]\displaystyle \large{\frac{\pi}{2}<x<\frac{3\pi}{2}}[/tex] is the solution to cosx > 0.

The another way to solve inequality is to find the intersections by solving the equation then joint the interval together.

[tex]\displaystyle \large{\cos x<0 \longrightarrow \cos x=0}[/tex]

From the unit circle, cosx becomes 0 at x = π/2 and x = 3π/2 between interval [0,2π]

Therefore:

[tex]\displaystyle \large{\cos x = 0 \longrightarrow x = \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3\pi}{2}}\\\displaystyle \large{\boxed{\frac{\pi}{2}<x<\frac{3\pi}{2}}}[/tex]

(2) [tex]\displaystyle \large{\cos x+1<0 \longrightarrow \cos x <-1[/tex]

For this inequality, it appears that there have no solutions because cosine function is defined between [-1,1] in range hence there are no x-values in real plane that make cosx even less than -1.

Because only π satisfies cosx = -1 but not cosx < -1, we restrict π and every values.

Hence no solutions which cause a break of interval between π and π/2 < x < 3π/2

If you substitute x = π in, the inequality is false and therefore the answer is:

[tex]\displaystyle \large{\frac{\pi}{2}<x<\pi, \pi<x<\frac{3\pi}{2}}[/tex]

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

The first two don't work, so it's between the last two.

This equation doesn't work for 180, so the answer is the last choice.

:)

Answer:

the answer is

1. 11.33

2. 5.9

3. 8.1

Answer:

[tex]2\frac{6}{7}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

First you have to convert the mixed numbers to an improper fraction which first let's do the top so that would be: [tex]\frac{\frac{15}{2}}{2\frac{5}{8}}[/tex]

Next, lets do the bottom of that so that would become: [tex]\frac{\frac{15}{2}}{\frac{21}{8}}[/tex]

After that you have to apply the fraction rule [tex]\frac{\frac{a}{b}}{\frac{c}{d}}=\frac{a\cdot \:d}{b\cdot \:c}[/tex] so that would be: [tex]\frac{15\cdot \:8}{2\cdot \:21}[/tex]

Towards the end, you have to cancel out that equation so then it becomes: [tex]\frac{20}{7}[/tex]

Finally, you convert the improper fractions to mixed numbers so that is now: [tex]2\frac{6}{7}[/tex]

Have a great day!

After divide, the value in simplest form is, 20/7.

Division method is used to distributing a group of things into equal parts. Division is just opposite of multiplications. For example, dividing 20 by 2 means splitting 20 into 2 equal groups of 10.

Given that;

⇒ 7 1/2 divided by 2 5/8

Now, Divide the numbers as;

⇒ 7 1/2 divided by 2 5/8

⇒ 15/2 ÷ 21/8

⇒ 15/2 × 8 / 21

⇒ 15×8 / 2×21

⇒ 5×4/7

⇒ 20 / 7

Learn more about the divide visit:

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Answer:

rectangle= 22*9 = 198ft

triangle=11*10 = 110 ft

110+ 198 = 308 polygon

Answer:

increse X-inefficiency is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:  im here to help

Answer:

2p/q

2q/p

q/p=2

p/q =2

Step-by-step explanation:

Here are some possible answers. The way your statement is formated in does not ask a question nor does it provide enough information for one to deduce what the question was.

Answer:

48

Step-by-step explanation:

There are various multiples of 6 that are greater than 40, but less than 90. Including 42, 48, 54, 60, 66, 72, 78, and 84. :)

Answer:

[tex]y=x+7[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's simply rearrange bringing y to the RHS, -7 to the LHS and reading right to left:

[tex]x+7=y \rightarrow y=x+7[/tex]

Answer:

Approximately [tex]\text{$0.26$ radian}[/tex] every minute.

Step-by-step explanation:

Convert the unit of velocity (kilometers-per-hour) to meters-per-minute so as to match the unit of radius (meters) and angular velocity (per-minute.)

[tex]\begin{aligned}v &= 11\; \rm km \cdot h^{-1} \\ &= 11 \times \frac{1000\; \rm m}{1\; \rm km} \times \frac{1\; \rm h}{60\; \text{minute}} \\ &\approx 183.33\; {\rm m} \cdot\text{minute}^{-1}\end{aligned}[/tex].

Calculate the circumference of this circle:

[tex]\begin{aligned}c &= 2\,\pi\, r \\ &= 2 \, \pi \times 700\; \rm m \\ &\approx 4398.2\; \rm m\end{aligned}[/tex].

Find the time required (in minutes) for this vehicle to go around this circle:

[tex]\begin{aligned}\frac{4398.2\; \rm m}{183.33\; {\rm m} \cdot \text{minute}^{-1}} \approx 23.990\; \text{minute}\end{aligned}[/tex].

A full circle corresponds to an angle of [tex]2\, \pi \; \text{radian}[/tex] ([tex]360^{\circ}[/tex].) In other words, this vehicle would have turned [tex]2\, \pi \; \text{radian}\![/tex] in approximately [tex]23.990\; \text{minute}[/tex] if it travels at a constant speed. The rate at which this vehicle turn would be:

[tex]\begin{aligned}\frac{2\, \pi}{23.990\; \text{minute}} \approx 0.26\; \text{minute}^{-1}\end{aligned}[/tex].

In general, for angular velocity [tex]\omega[/tex], radius [tex]r[/tex], and velocity [tex]v[/tex], [tex]v = \omega\, r[/tex]. After updating the units, the angular velocity of this vehicle (the rate at which it turns) may also be found as:

[tex]\begin{aligned}\omega &= \frac{v}{r} \\ &\approx \frac{183.33\; \rm m \cdot \text{minute}^{-1}}{700\; \rm m} \\ &\approx 0.26\; \text{minute}^{-1}\end{aligned}[/tex].

Answer: 31.57

Step-by-step explanation:

41% of 77 is what?

41% of 77 is Y

Equation: P% * X = Y

Solving our equation for Y

Y = P% * X

Y = 41% * 77

Converting percent to decimal:

p = 41%/100 = 0.41

Y = 0.41 * 77

Y = 31.57

[tex]\huge\boxed{Hi\: there!}[/tex]

[tex]\huge\mathfrak{Question:}[/tex]

Is 7,301,771 divisible by 6?

[tex]\huge\mathfrak{Answer:}[/tex]

No.

Remember, divisible by means the given number can be divided by a number without a remainder.

If we divide 7,301,771 by 6, we will get a remainder.

[tex]\huge\boxed{Therefore,\: 7,301,771 \: isn't \: divisible\: by 6.}[/tex]

[tex]\huge\mathfrak{Good\: luck!}\\\huge\bold {~CheerfulTeen}[/tex]

Answer:

2,1,0,1,2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/15

Step-by-step explanation:

2/3 x 1/10 = 2/30 or 1/15

Answer:

1/15

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

So we will use combinations, as it does not matter what order they get chosen in.

The combinitoric that you will plug in to your calculator is: nCr(12,7)

Therefore, the answer is 792