________protects coding sequences at the 5' end of mrna from degradation.

Answers

Answer 1

The cap structure or Capping protects coding sequences at the 5' end of mRNA from degradation.

The cap structure refers to a modified nucleotide structure added to the 5' end of eukaryotic mRNA molecules during transcription. It consists of a modified guanine nucleotide (known as the 7-methylguanosine cap) attached to the mRNA via a unique linkage. This cap structure plays several important roles, including protecting the mRNA from degradation by exonucleases.

Exonucleases are enzymes that degrade RNA molecules by cleaving nucleotides from the ends. By adding the cap structure to the 5' end of mRNA, it provides protection by preventing exonucleases from recognizing and degrading the mRNA from this end. Additionally, the cap structure is involved in other processes such as mRNA export from the nucleus, translation initiation, and recognition by the ribosome during protein synthesis.

In summary, the cap structure protects coding sequences at the 5' end of mRNA from degradation by exonucleases and plays crucial roles in mRNA stability and translation.

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Related Questions

regulation of the heart rate, speed of electrical conduction and strength of contraction are influenced by the brain via the _____ nervous system

Answers

Regulation of the heart rate, speed of electrical conduction, and strength of contraction are influenced by the brain via the autonomic nervous system.

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) has two separate branches: the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. The sympathetic system speeds up physiological processes in response to an emergency or stress, whereas the parasympathetic system slows them down to conserve energy and promote healing.

The nervous system is responsible for sending signals and controlling physiological functions such as heart rate, respiration, and digestion. It is made up of the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves, which communicate with the rest of the body to regulate vital processes. The autonomic nervous system is a component of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary activities.

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50 points and brainliest

Type 2 things that you learned that are unique to humans’, flatworms’, and plants’ waste removal systems.
(two each)
real answers please

Answers

Explanation:

while these infections can occur in cows and pigs, it isn't an animal-specific condition. Tapeworms can also infect humans, although it's not a common infection. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) estimates there are less than 1,000 new tapeworm infections in humans in the United States eachwhile these infections can occur in cows and pigs, it isn't an animal-specific condition. Tapeworms can also infect humans, although it's not a common infection. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) estimates there are less than 1,000 new tapeworm infections in humans in the United States each

Which of the following could be a function of a phagocyte?
Choose 1 answer:
A. Acting as a physical barrier against pathogens
B. Activating B cells
C. Engulfing a foreign pathogen
D. Making antibodies specific to a pathogen

Answers

D. Producir anticuerpos específicos para un patógeno

The following could be a function of a phagocyte, Making antibodies specific to a pathogen.

What is chemotaxis?

The process of attracting the phagocytes to the site of injury is known as chemotaxis.

The chemotaxis is a part of the inflammatory response of the body. The phagocytes once attracted to the site of the injury ingests the bacteria by attaching to the bacterial cell wall.

The ingestion of the invading bacteria is known as phagocytosis. The destroyed bacteria is then released from the phagocytes.

Thus, option D is correct, Making antibodies specific to a pathogen.

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Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is also a risk factor for ectopic pregnancies, in which a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. Explain the connection between PID and ectopic pregnancies. - Inflammation resulting from PID can accelerate the development of the fertilized egg, so that it is able to implant sooner before reaching the uterus. - PID damages the ciliated epithelium lining the uterine tubes, making it more difficult for the fertilized egg to reach the uterus. - Fertilized eggs are more likely to implant in the uterine tubes that are inflamed because of the extensive blood supply. - PID causes scarring of the uterine tubes, which can obstruct the passage of a fertilized egg to the uterus where it would normally be implanted.

Answers

The connection between pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and ectopic pregnancies is that PID can damage the ciliated epithelium lining the uterine tubes, making it more difficult for the fertilized egg to reach the uterus. Additionally, PID can cause scarring of the uterine tubes, which can obstruct the passage of a fertilized egg to the uterus where it would normally be implanted.

PID is an infection of the reproductive organs, typically caused by sexually transmitted bacteria. Inflammation resulting from PID can damage the ciliated epithelium lining the uterine tubes, impairing their ability to move the fertilized egg toward the uterus. This increases the risk of the fertilized egg implanting in the fallopian tubes or other locations outside the uterus, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy.

Furthermore, PID can cause scarring of the uterine tubes, creating physical obstructions that prevent the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus, leading to an increased likelihood of ectopic pregnancies. Therefore, the correct answer is that PID causes scarring of the uterine tubes, which can obstruct the passage of a fertilized egg to the uterus where it would normally be implanted.

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where is wind energy taken from

Answers

Answer:

The sun's uneven heating of the atmosphere, changes in the earth's temperature, and the earth's rotation all contribute to wind. Wind flow patterns are influenced by mountains, bodies of water, and plants. Wind turbines work by spinning propeller-like blades around a rotor to turn wind energy into electricity.

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Which of the following is true of ribosome rescue? A. The process produces a protein that is tagged for degradation. B. No protein is produced in the process. C. A partially translated mRNA becomes fully degraded before it can be translated further.
D. Proteases enter the A-site of the ribosome to degrade the C-terminus of the synthesized peptide.
E. Stalled ribosomes are released in the absence of a stop codon.

Answers

In the case of ribosome rescue, no protein is created throughout the procedure. The genetic code transcribed in mRNA is translated into an amino acid sequence by the ribosome, which is universally responsible for protein synthesis. Hence (b) is the correct option.

The beginning, extension, and termination of peptide synthesis are carried out by ribosomes using cellular auxiliary proteins, soluble transfer RNAs, and metabolic energy. Protein synthesis is carried out on ribosomes during translation, which takes place when mRNA from the nucleus is coupled to the ribosome and translates codons for protein synthesis in the presence of ribozyme and tRNA. Translation is the process of turning mRNA into proteins.

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the mass of a 235 92u nucleus is _____ the sum of the masses of a 141 56ba nucleus, a 9236kr nucleus, and two neutrons, all separated from each other.

Answers

The mass of a 235 92U nucleus is less than the sum of the masses of a 141 56Ba nucleus, a 9236Kr nucleus, and two neutrons, all separated from each other.

The mass of the nucleus is affected by the number of protons and neutrons it contains. The total mass of a nucleus is determined by adding up the masses of the individual protons and neutrons. The mass of a 235 92U nucleus is less than the sum of the masses of a 141 56Ba nucleus, a 9236Kr nucleus, and two neutrons, all separated from each other.The mass of the nucleus is less than the sum of its parts due to a phenomenon known as nuclear binding energy.

The energy required to break a nucleus down into its individual protons and neutrons is referred to as nuclear binding energy. When a nucleus is created, nuclear binding energy is released, which lowers the overall mass of the nucleus by a small amount.The amount of nuclear binding energy present in a nucleus is determined by the number of protons and neutrons it contains. The larger the number of protons and neutrons, the greater the amount of nuclear binding energy. The nucleus becomes more tightly bound as a result of the increased nuclear binding energy, and its overall mass is reduced slightly.

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A W E G
5 3 12
Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?
A) A and W
B) E and G
C) A and E
D) A and G

Answers

The genes E and G are located far apart on the chromosome, hence they are expected to show the highest frequency of recombination. Therefore, the correct answer is option B) E and G.

The term recombination can be defined as the process in which new combinations of alleles or genes are created through genetic exchanges that occur between homologous chromosomes or between DNA molecules. The frequency of recombination is typically expressed as a percentage of the total number of offspring in a population. The two genes that exhibit the highest frequency of recombination are usually located far apart on a chromosome. Therefore, the answer to the question is option B) E and G.

To understand the given problem statement, one must have a basic idea of gene recombination and linkage analysis. As per the given information, the given symbols A, W, E, G are symbolic notations for genes located on the chromosome. And, the numbers 5, 3, 12 indicate the frequency of recombination that occurs between two genes present on the same chromosome.The genes that are located near to each other on a chromosome tend to stay together and are said to be linked. Whereas, the genes located far apart on the chromosome exhibit a high degree of recombination between them. The probability of recombination between two genes increases with the increase in the distance between them. On the other hand, the genes that are closely located to each other exhibit a low degree of recombination as they are usually inherited together.

The highest frequency of recombination is expected between the genes that are located far apart on the chromosome. Thus, as given in the options, the genes E and G are located far apart on the chromosome, hence they are expected to show the highest frequency of recombination. Therefore, the correct answer is option B) E and G.

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in beta oxidation of linoleic acid, what is the cost in total atps for the presence of the two double bonds compared to the saturated carbon chain stearic acid?

Answers

When stearic acid is subjected to beta-oxidation, it passes through 8 cycles, creating 8 molecules of acetyl-CoA.

Each beta-oxidation cycle results in the production of acetyl-CoA, which may then enter citric acid cycle to create ATP. The number of beta-oxidation cycles necessary to thoroughly oxidise fatty acid accounts for a difference in ATP output among saturated and unsaturated fatty acids, such as stearic acid and linoleic acid with two double bonds. A saturated fatty acid containing 18 carbon atoms is called stearic acid. Stearic acid is subjected to beta-oxidation eight times, creating eight molecules of acetyl-CoA.

Each acetyl-CoA molecule in citric acid cycle may provide roughly ten ATP molecules, for a total of about 80 ATP molecules. Linoleic acid goes through nine cycles of beta-oxidation, yielding nine molecules. The ATP yield per beta-oxidation cycle is slightly lower than stearic acid because each double bond requires an extra step. Therefore, linoleic acid's beta-oxidation produces a slightly lower total ATP production than stearic acid's.

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In which situation is light refracted?
A When light hits a wall
B When light hits a mirror
C When a light wave hits another light wave
D When light travels from air into water

Answers

it’s B i’m pretty sure

Explain why only certain substrate can combine with enzymes.
Help me please​

Answers

Answer:

sry i cant i too dubm need points tho

Explanation:

describe the stretch-shortening cycle (ssc), and explain how it relates to exercise.

Answers

The Stretch Shortening Cycle (SSC) is a reactive power storage and release process that occurs in muscles and tendons during exercise. It is a neuromuscular phenomenon that has been shown to improve muscular power output and improve muscle contractile properties in response to rapid, explosive movements.

The Stretch Shortening Cycle (SSC) is the action of contracting a muscle after it has been stretched, such as when jumping, hopping, or running. The process is initiated when a muscle is pre-stretched prior to the concentric phase of a movement, allowing for elastic energy to be stored in the muscle-tendon complex. This stored energy is then used to produce more power during the concentric phase of the movement, leading to an overall increase in muscular force production. The stretch reflex is a critical component of the SSC, as it helps to facilitate the transition from the eccentric to the concentric phase of the movement. Some exercises that utilize the SSC include plyometrics, which involve rapid, explosive movements such as jump training, sprints, and agility drills. These exercises are designed to enhance muscle power and reactive strength, which can improve athletic performance in sports that require explosive movements, such as basketball, soccer, and volleyball. In conclusion, the SSC plays a significant role in improving muscle power output and contractile properties during exercise. It is a neuromuscular phenomenon that is facilitated by the stretch reflex and is critical for producing rapid, explosive movements in sports and other athletic activities.

The stretch-shortening cycle (SSC) is a neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs during certain types of movements, particularly in activities involving jumping, running, and throwing. It involves a sequence of muscle actions that consists of three phases: eccentric, amortization, and concentric.

1. Eccentric Phase: The SSC begins with the eccentric phase, during which the muscle lengthens under tension. This phase occurs when a muscle is stretched or loaded prior to a contraction. For example, when you prepare to jump, your leg muscles lengthen as you lower yourself into a squatting position.

2. Amortization Phase: Following the eccentric phase, there is a brief transition called the amortization phase. This phase is crucial and time-sensitive, as it represents the transition between muscle lengthening and muscle shortening. The muscle quickly changes direction and prepares for the subsequent concentric contraction. It is characterized by a rapid isometric pause, meaning the muscle does not change length significantly during this phase.

3. Concentric Phase: The final phase of the SSC is the concentric phase, during which the muscle contracts and shortens, generating force. In the context of jumping, this is when the leg muscles rapidly contract to propel the body upward.

The SSC is essential for enhancing the efficiency and power of various athletic movements. It leverages the elastic properties of muscles and tendons, as well as the stretch reflex, to generate greater force and power output. Here's how it relates to exercise:

1. Increased Power and Force: The SSC allows muscles to store and release energy, resulting in enhanced power production. When the muscle is eccentrically loaded, it stretches the tendons and stores elastic energy. This stored energy is then rapidly released during the subsequent concentric contraction, resulting in greater force production and movement efficiency. Exercises that utilize the SSC, such as depth jumps or plyometric exercises, can help improve power and explosiveness in athletes.

2. Improved Muscular Performance: By training the SSC, individuals can enhance their neuromuscular coordination, timing, and muscle activation patterns. The rapid transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions improves the neural pathways involved in coordinating muscle contractions, leading to improved motor performance and efficiency.

3. Injury Prevention: Proper utilization of the SSC can also contribute to injury prevention. The rapid eccentric loading and subsequent concentric contraction help strengthen the tendons, making them more resilient to forces encountered during dynamic movements. Training the SSC can enhance joint stability, decrease the risk of muscle strains, and improve overall movement mechanics.

It's important to note that the SSC should be trained with care, as it places greater stress on the muscles, tendons, and joints. Proper technique, progression, and appropriate training volume should be considered to ensure safety and maximize the benefits of incorporating the SSC into exercise routines. Consulting with a qualified exercise professional can provide personalized guidance based on individual fitness levels and goals.

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When a normal cell undergoes mitosis it produces two, identical cells that are clones of the “mother” cell. How is that different from what sex cells do when they undergo meiosis?

Answers

Answer:

when a sex cell undergoes meiosis, it producs two haploid cells each having half the chromosome number of the "mother" cell

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Pinta Island tortoises because they appear more similar to Hood island tortoises.

Answer:

The hood island tortoise.

Explanation:

It has the longest neck (adaptation), and will be able to reach food that is higher up, like a vine growing on a tree.

It is also because of it's saddle-shaped shell, that will make it easier to stretch.

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During a field trip, an instructor touched a moth resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its forewings to reveal large eyespots on its hind wings. The instructor asked why the moth lifted its wings. One student answered that sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in the contraction of certain muscles. A second student responded that the behavior might frighten predators. Which statement best describes these explanations?

Answers

Answer:

The first explanation refers to proximate causation, whereas the second refers to ultimate causation.

Explanation:

The first example refers to proximate causation, whereas the second example to ultimate causation.

What is ultimate causation?

The ability of one variable to impact another is known as causality, also known as causality. The first variable might create the second or might change the incidence of the second variable.

Correlation, which shows how much two variables tend to rise or fall together, and causation are frequently misconstrued. Correlation does not, however, automatically imply causality. The variations in both variables could be caused by a third component, for instance.

A statistically significant association has been shown between yellow cars and a reduced accident frequency. Just because there are fewer accidents involving yellow cars does not mean that they are any safer. A third element, such as the person's personality type.

Therefore, The first example refers to proximate causation, whereas the second example to ultimate causation.

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Choose the best definition for an ecosystem.


a place where one type of organism lives.


a place where organisms are interacting with other organisms and with their environment


a place where a group of organisms is interacting with another group of organisms


all of the nonliving things in the environment

Answers

Answer:

a place where organisms are interacting with other organisms and with their environment

Explanation:

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THANKYOU

Answer:

a place where one type of organism lives.

What are two different ways that
weathering can happen?
Chemically & Physically(mechanically)
erosion & physically (mechanically)
chemically & deposition

Answers

Answer:

Chemically & Physically(mechanically)

Explanation:

Weathering is the wearing away of rock found at the surface of the earth. There are different ways weathering can occur and they include;

1. Mechanical weathering: This is the breakdown of rock into bits or fragments. Physical factors such as water can lead to this breakdown. When water falls into the pores and cracks of rocks, pressure can be created that will eventually result in the breakdown of these rocks.

2. Chemical weathering: This type of weathering causes a change in the physical makeup of the rock. The new form of rock created is more prone to erosion. Temperature is factor that can speed up chemical weathering.

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Give an example of a chemical reaction that is caused when reactants cool.

Answers

Answer:   iron and oxygen combining to make rust. vinegar and baking soda combining to make sodium acetate, carbon dioxide and water.

Explanation:

s achieved when there is an equal concentration of water and electrolytes inside and outside the body's cells. 2. Charged ions such as sodium, potassium, and chloride are called . 3. The feeling of dry mouth experienced during dehydration is part of the body's . 4. The process by which water moves in and out of cells from an area of lower concentration of solutes to an area of higher concentration of solutes is called . 5. If you are not consuming enough water, or if you are excreting too much water from your body, can occur. 6. are substances that cause the body to lose water via urine. 7. The liquid that is between cells is called . 8. occurs when the extracellular concentration of sodium is too low.

Answers

Answer:

1. Fluid or water balance

2. Electrolytes

3. Thirst mechanism.

4. Osmosis

5. Dehydration

6. Diuretics

7. Interstitial fluid

8. Hyponatremia

Explanation:

1. Fluid or water balance is achieved when there is an equal concentration of water and electrolytes inside and outside the body's cells. The thirst mechanism of the body serves to maintain fluid balance of the body state by ensuring that enough fluid is consumed to allow for an equal concentration of electrolytes between the intracellular and extracellular fluid compartments.

2. Charged ions such as sodium, potassium, and chloride are called electrolytes. They are the molecules which help the body to maintain fluid balance when they are pumped in or out of the cell.

3. The feeling of dry mouth experienced during dehydration is part of the body's thirst mechanism.

4. The process by which water moves in and out of cells from an area of lower concentration of solutes to an area of higher concentration of solutes is called osmosis.

5. If you are not consuming enough water, or if you are excreting too much water from your body, dehydration can occur.

6. Diuretics are substances that cause the body to lose water via urine.

7. The liquid that is between cells is called interstitial fluid.

8. Hyponatremia (low sodium concentration) occurs when the extracellular concentration of sodium is too low. It can occur when too much water is consumed over a short period of time, or it can occur due to sodium loss from the body due to kidney diseases.

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Answers

Answer:

Subscribe Single-3 FF on yt

1. Which equation best represents the dissociation of water molecules into hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions?

Answers

The first one
Your welcome

when nonhomologous chromosomes exchange parts, a(n) _____ has occurred. mismatch reciprocal translocation inversion base exclusion closed reading frame

Answers

When nonhomologous chromosomes exchange parts, a reciprocal translocation has occurred.

What is reciprocal translocation?

Reciprocal translocation refers to a chromosomal aberration where two non-homologous chromosomes swap parts, resulting in an exchange of chromosomal materials between the two chromosomes. This type of translocation is seen in a number of genetic diseases and is one of several chromosomal rearrangements that occur.

A reciprocal translocation, for example, can result in two chromosomes breaking, exchanging parts, and rejoining. While neither chromosome has lost or gained any genetic material, each chromosome has a distinct arrangement of genes. A translocation can cause abnormalities in offspring due to the effects of gene duplication or gene loss, as well as the alteration of gene regulation.

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Explain how organisms in both of the ecosystems are dependent on their environmental interactions with other living things and with nonliving factors.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:Organisms, and populations of organisms, are dependent on their environmental interactions both with other living things and with nonliving factors. ... Mutually beneficial interactions, in contrast, may become so interdependent that each organism requires the other for survival.

The organism that considered for an ecosystem that should be dependent on the environmental interactions should be explained below,

Environmental interactions:

The organism and the organism population should be based on the environmental interactions along with the other living things also even with the non-living things of factors.

On the other hand, Mutually beneficial interactions should be considered as the independent where each and every organism should needed other for the survival purpose.

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The energy needed for the changes in the water cycle to take place comes
from__.
A. wind
B.green plants
C.nitrogen
D.the sun

Answers

It’s D. I got it right lol

which product of aerobic cellular respiration could not form in an anaerobic environment
A.) ATP
B.) Acetyl CoA
C.) Carbon Dioxide
D.) Water

Answers

The answer to your question is ATP

The percentage of crossing over events is used to develop a map of chromosomes. View the chromosome map on the last page. How far apart are the alleles for black body and vestigial wings? (Do the math!) View the proportion of flies from your data that indicate crossover occurred (VG and BL flies) and multiple it by 100. Based on your data, how far apart are these alleles?

Answers

Based on the data you provided, the alleles for black body and vestigial wings are estimated to be 1 unit apart on the chromosome map.

To determine the distance between the alleles for black body and vestigial wings on a chromosome map, we need to use the percentage of crossing over events between them. Let's assume you have conducted a genetic experiment and obtained the following data;

Proportion of flies showing crossover (VG and BL flies); X%

The distance between the alleles can be estimated using the formula;

Distance = (Percentage of crossover events / Total progeny) × 100

Let's say the percentage of crossover events between black body (BL) and vestigial wings (VG) alleles is 10%, and you obtained a total of 1,000 progeny from your experiment.

Distance = (10 / 1000) × 100 = 1 unit

Therefore, based on the data you provided, the alleles for black body and vestigial wings are estimated to be 1 unit apart on the chromosome map.

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What type of muscle tissue is this

Answers

Answer:

It is skeletal muscle tissue also if you see my comment spread the word.

Explanation:

What is the biggest difference when comparing a prokaryotic and a eukaryotic cell?

Answers

Answer:

Well, the primary distinction between these two types of organisms is that eukaryotic cells have a membrane-bound nucleus and prokaryotic cells do not. ... Prokaryotes, on the other hand, have no membrane-bound organelles. Another important difference is the DNA structure.

Answer:

The biggest difference between the two are that eukaryotic cells have a membrane-bound nucleus and prokaryotic cells do not.

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What does this table show?

Answers

Answer:

doesn't it just show metals and non metals and their atomic number and mass number?

Explanation:

What is the force of a 3 kg skateboard accelerating at a rate of 4m/s2? Plug in the numbers: Force = mass x acceleration

Answers

Here is the answer:
Mass= 3kg
Acceleration =4m/s
Putting the formula:
F=m*s
F=3*4
F=12N( Newton is the S.l unit of force)
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Find the required confidence interval for population proportion In a sample of 1626 patients who underwent a certain type of surgery, 23% experienced complications. Find a 99% confidence interval for the proportion of all those undergoing this surgery who experience complications. Select one: O 0.2133 < p < 0.2467 O 0.1981 < p < 0.2619 O 0.2031 < p < 0.2569 O 0.2196 < p The radioactive isotope carbon-14 is present in small quantities in all life forms, and it is constantly replenished until the organism dies, after which it decays to stable carbon-12 at a rate proportional to the amount of carbon-14 present, with a half-life of 5557 years. Suppose C(t) is the amount of carbon-14 present at time t.(a) Find the value of the constant k in the differential equation C=kC.k=(b) In 1988 three teams of scientists found that the Shroud of Turin, which was reputed to be the burial cloth of Jesus, contained about 91 percent of the amount of carbon-14 contained in freshly made cloth of the same material[1]. How was old the Shroud of Turin in 1988, according to these data?Age = Summarize the current state of the economy (AS-AD curves).Explain proposed fiscal, monetary, and legislativechanges.Identify the economic impact of the fiscal, monetary andlegislative changes.Det A 15.0 kg rigid rod 1.00 m in length joins two particleswith masses 4.00 kg and 3.00 kgat its ends. The combination rotates in the xy plane about a pivot through the center of the rod. If the particles are moving with a speed of 12.0 m/s, what torque applied to the system would be needed to bring the system to rest in 8.0 s? 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What is the specificity of the test? Part 2: the company anticipates that of the women who will use the pregnancy-test kit, 10% will actually be pregnant. c) What is the PV+ (predictive value positive) of the test? consider a bu ffer solution prepared from hio and liio. which is the net ionic equation for the reaction when naoh is added to this buffer? Let f: R R be a function and let a R. (i) What is the e-d definition of lim f(x) = L? xa (ii) What is the e-8 definition of continuity of f at a? A deer and bear stumble across a sleeping skunk. They run away from itin opposite directions. The deer runs at a speed of 8 feet per second, andthe bear runs at a speed of 5 feet per second. How long will it be untilthe deer and the bear are 156 yards apart? Problem 12-1 (algo) Identify which of the three functions of money is most relevant in the following situations. a. A business traveler does an online search of fares offered by airlines for her upcoming trip. The most relevant function of money in this situation is as a (Click to select) + b. A borrower uses an electronic transfer to pay off a debt to a friend. The most relevant function of money in this situation is as a means of exchange c. A bondholder cashes a Canada Savings Bond and keeps the proceeds for a time in currency. The most relevant function of money in this situation is as a (Click to select) + d. A reader compares prices of electronic and hard copy versions of a new book. The most relevant function of money in this situation is as a (Click to select) e. A cafe customer uses currency to pay for a cup of coffee. The most relevant function of money in this situation is as a (Click to select) + f. A retailer temporarily keeps monthly sales revenue in a business bank account. The most relevant function of money in this situation is as a (Click to select) ______ stock is the number of shares that a corporation's charter allows it to sell. multiple choice question. TRUE / FALSE. 1. Payment from negotiating bank under a L/C is final and cannot be reclaimed.2. If a credit is subject to UCP 600 and doesn't indicate whether it is irrevocableor not, it is a revocable L/C.3. A draft showing "Pay to Mary White and debit my No.2 account" representsan unconditional order to pay.4. Once a draft is accepted, its primary debtor is changed from drawer to acceptor.5. An uncrossed cheque implies that the cheque amount should be paid into a bank account and can not be exchanged for cash over the counter.6. For a confirmed credit, the confirming bank holds the same liability as the issuing bank.7. If the remittance is made by a banker's demand draft, this payment is based on bank credit.8. The drawer of the draft used under L/C is generally the issuing bank.9."Dishonor"means the refusal to the acceptance or payment of a duly presented draft.10. In L/C, the advising bank is responsible for examining the documents presented by the beneficiary. For each of the following independent circumstances, calculate both the FUTA and SUTA tax owed by the employer: NOTE: For simplicity, all calculations throughout this exercise, both intermediate and final, should be rounded to two decimal places at each calculation.An employer in Albuquerque, New Mexico, employs two individuals, whose taxable earnings to date (prior to the current pay period) are $8,350 and $21,400. During the current pay period, these employees earn $3,350 and $1,700, respectively. The applicable SUTA tax rate is 1%, and the New Mexico SUTA threshold is $23,400. if the ladder was defectively assembled, and mauricio's neighbor eliza, who borrowed the ladder, was injured, under a strict liability theory, who can eliza bring a lawsuit against? which are the three main reasons firms make acquisitions? multiple select question. to increase potential for legal repercussions to preempt rivals to gain access to new distribution channels and markets to reduce flexibility to gain access to a new capability or competency A fly has two alleles for the color of its eyes. The green allele is recessive, and is represented by q. The blue allele is dominant, and is represented by p. If 11 of 100 organisms are green, what is q? A. 0. 82 B. 0. 11 C. 0. 33 D. 0. 66 which is not considered as a function of fat in the body? select one: a. contribute to body heat preservation b. major storage form for energy c. provide cellular building materials d. provide support for certain vital organs e. none of above