Answer:
Five Food Groups/MyPlate
Different food groups have different nutrients and health benefits. If you regularly skip a group, over time you won't get the best nutrition.
1. Vegetables
The vegetable portion of MyPlate is shown in green. It's the largest sections on the plate. That's because vegetables provide many of the vitamins and minerals we need for good health. Veggies are naturally low in calories, and the fiber in them helps us feel full.
Choosing variety is important when it comes to vegetables: Dark green vegetables (like broccoli, spinach, and kale) provide different nutrients from orange and red vegetables (like squash, carrots, and sweet potatoes). The "eat your colors" message that you might have learned in grade school is a good one to follow throughout your life.
2. Fruits
Like veggies, fruits have vitamins, minerals, and fiber. The red section of MyPlate is slightly smaller than the green, but together fruits and veggies should fill half your plate. Whole fruit is the best choice: Fruit juices have more sugar and calories per serving than whole fruit, and you're not getting the fiber.
As with veggies, it's good to mix up your fruit choices: a colorful fruit cup is more than just pretty — it's a nutrition powerhouse.
3. Grains
The orange section of MyPlate is about one quarter of the plate. Whole grains (like whole-wheat flour) are more nutritious and have lots of dietary fiber that can help you feel fuller longer. Refined grains (white flour) are more processed, removing vitamins, minerals, and fiber. Most refined grains are enriched, which means that some of the nutrients, but not fiber, are added back after processing.
At least half of the grains you eat should be whole grains like whole-wheat bread, brown rice, or oatmeal.
4. Protein
High-protein foods help the body build and maintain muscles, skin, blood, and other tissues. They also have important vitamins and minerals, like iron.
The purple section of MyPlate is about a quarter of the plate. Foods high in protein include beef, poultry, seafood, dry beans and peas, eggs, nuts, and seeds. Tofu and veggie burgers or vegetarian meat substitutes are also good sources of protein. When eating meats, choose lean or low-fat options.
5. Dairy
The blue circle on the MyPlate graphic represents dairy products that are rich in calcium, like milk, yogurt, and cheese. Calcium-fortified soy milk and soy yogurt are also included in the dairy group. Calcium builds strong bones and teeth. Foods from the dairy group also have protein and vitamin D. Choose fat-free or low-fat dairy products most of the time.
The blue circle shows dairy as a "side" to your meal, like a glass of milk. But dairy can be part of your meal, like a cheese quesadilla, or served as a snack or dessert. Yogurt with fresh fruit or a fruit smoothie made with low-fat milk make great desserts.
A female resident has a catheter. To prevent excess catheter movement, you need to secure it to A) Her inner thigh B) The bed C) Her abdomen D) An IV pole
A female resident has a catheter. To prevent excess catheter movement, you need to secure it to her inner thigh.
Hence, option A is correct.
What do you understand by term catheter?A catheter is a small, flexible tube used in medicine that can perform a variety of tasks. Medical devices called catheters can be implanted within the body to treat illnesses or carry out surgery. Catheters are made for specialized treatments like ophthalmic, gastrointestinal, neurovascular, urological, and cardiovascular ones. Catheterization is the action of inserting a catheter. Catheters can be put into the brain, skin, adipose tissue, a bodily cavity, duct, or vessel. Depending on the type of catheter, they can perform a wide range of different duties, including drainage, the administration of fluids or gases, access for surgical instruments, and more.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that A female resident has a catheter. To prevent excess catheter movement, you need to secure it to her inner thigh.
Hence, option A is correct.
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A myocardial infarction occurs when the coronary vessels become completely occluded and the area of heart muscle loses oxygen and dies. a. True
b. False
Answer:
true
Explanation:
which statement indicates the cause of post therapeutic neuralgia in a client with acute herpes zoster trested with antiviral medication?
The most frequent side effect of shingles is postherpetic neuralgia, which is pronounced post-hur-PET-ik noo-RAL-juh.
Postherpetic neuralgia: what is its cause?If you experience a shingles outbreak and your nerve fibers are injured, you may experience postherpetic neuralgia. Damaged fibers make it difficult for messages to go from your skin to your brain.Instead, the messages get muddled and amplified, resulting in persistent pain that is frequently unbearable and can endure for months or even years.Postherpetic neuralgia is the most typical chronic consequence of herpes zoster. Postherpetic neuralgia is commonly recognized as pain that lasts more than one to three months after the rash has cleared up.Trigeminal neuralgia is known to be correlated with the herpes zoster virus (TN). It is occasionally linked to the etiology of TN [1].Humans who have VZV are at risk of developing neurologic illness. Neurologic infection and illness may result from both the initial infection and its recurrence.The most common symptom of neurologic syndromes linked to acute VZV infection is cerebellar ataxia. These syndromes are brought about by aberrant immunological responses.To learn more about Postherpetic neuralgia refer to:
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Effective communication consists of __________.
Answer:
Speak clearly, maintain an even tone, and make eye contact. Keep your body language relaxed and open. Wrap up with a summary and then stop. Summarize your response and then stop talking, even if it leaves a silence in the room.
Clear, correct, complete, concise, and compassionate communication is essential for effective communication.
The process of exchanging ideas, opinions, knowledge, and facts in order to ensure that the message is received and understood with clarity and purpose is known as effective communication. The sender and the receiver are both delighted when we communicate successfully.
There are many different ways to communicate, including written, visual, auditory, and nonverbal. It can happen in person, over the phone (via applications, calls, and video), in the mail, or online (on forums, social media, and websites).
You might have something to say once you have effectively identified your audience and listened to their goals, wants, and desires. The 5 C's of communication can help you accomplish this effectively by ensuring that your message is:
ClearCorrectCompleteConciseCompassionateBe ready to communicate in a way that primarily satisfies these criteria.
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A doctor may use a(n)_____ to help diagnose an illness. A. clone B. expert system C. neural network D. knowledge base
B. Expert system, The goal of a medical expert system is to assist doctors in making diagnoses. It takes into account facts and symptoms to offer a diagnosis and assist doctors in determining what the patient's condition is.
What is the current recognized expert system in medicine?The expert system can help a doctor diagnose a patient's medical conditions or be used to evaluate the results of medical tests. The MYCIN is a traditional medical diagnosing expert system.
What advantages do expert systems offer?Applications like human resources, the stock market, and others use expert systems. Better decision quality, cost savings, consistency, speed, and reliability are key advantages of expert systems.
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Use of which of the following strategies by an APRN would best prevent ethical conflictsduring end-of-life care?
To prevent ethical conflicts during end-of-life care, the best strategy to follow is option a, Discussion with healthy patient during outpatient clinic.
What is the aim of end-of-life-care?Palliative care is commonly referred to as end-of-life care, but it has been shown to improve outcomes in patients with terminal diseases, even leading to increased survival.
Avoiding ethical conflicts with patients, families, and surrogates is best accomplished through early ethical discussions. While no scenario will result in an ethical conflict, discussion and documentation with a healthy patient allows for the avoidance of ethical conflicts in end-of-life care. Remember that the best treatment is always prevention.
The complete question is:
Use of which of the following strategies by an APRN would best prevent ethical conflicts during end-of-life care?
a. Discussion with healthy patient during outpatient clinic
b. Use of an ethics committee
c. Discussion when life-threatening disease/accident occurs
d. Discussion upon admission of a patient to a hospital
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A 3-year-old boy is seen by his pediatrician for fever, malaise, painful left underarm lymph node, and skin sloughing off his left ring finger. What is the cause?
Francisella pathogen is the cause of a 3-year-old boy is seen by his pediatrician for fever, malaise, painful left underarm lymph node, and skin sloughing off his left ring finger.
What is Francisella pathogen?A pathogenic strain of the aerobic, Gram-negative coccobacillus is Francisella tularensis. It is the cause of tularemia, the pneumonic type of which is frequently fatal without treatment. It is not spore-forming and not mobile. It is an extremely picky intracellular bacterium that needs cysteine to develop. F. tularensis, along with other possible bioterrorism agents like Yersinia pestis, Bacillus anthracis, and Ebola virus, is categorized by the U.S. government as a Tier 1 Select Agent due to its low infectious dosage, ease of aerosol transmission, and high virulence.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that Francisella pathogen is the cause of a 3-year-old boy is seen by his pediatrician for fever, malaise, painful left underarm lymph node, and skin sloughing off his left ring finger.
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Children with severe acute malnutrition may attempt to limit activity by not crying for food.
a. true
b. false
True, under nourishment known as "acute malnutrition" is characterized by a drop in food intake and/or illness that causes a quick loss of weight or oedema.
What are acute and chronic malnutrition?A relatively brief period of insufficient nourishment results in acute malnutrition, which causes wasting and, in extreme cases, may also cause oedema. Stunting is a side effect of chronic malnutrition, which results from repeated episodes of poor nutrition.
Reduced appetite, lack of interest in food and drink, feeling constantly exhausted, feeling weaker, being sick frequently and recovering slowly, and a slow healing of wounds are all signs of malnutrition.
What results in severe malnutrition?Acute malnutrition is a nutritional shortage brought on by insufficient protein or calorie consumption. In poor nations, primary acute malnutrition in children is a widespread problem due to insufficient food supply brought on by social, economic, and environmental reasons.
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Synthroid 150mcg intravenous is ordered daily after reconstitution the vial contain a total of 5ml and there is 100mcg/ml ?
After reconstitution the vial contains a total of 5 mL and there is 100 mcg/mL, 1.5 milliliters would be administered daily.
What is reconstitution of drugs?Medications are also frequently provided in dry form, such as powders or crystals, which must be reconstituted with fluid before being delivered parenterally through injection. To get a specified liquid concentration, a dry component is reconstitutioned by adding a liquid diluent.
Given that,
contain a total of 5 ml and there is 100 mcg/ml.
Thus, in the vial there are 5 ml × 100 mcg/ml = 500 mcg.
But it is prescribe that, Synthroid 150mcg intravenous is ordered daily after reconstitution.
So, we just need (150 mcg / 500 mcg ) × 5 ml = 1.5 ml daily.
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The complete question is as follows:
Synthroid 150 mcg intravenous is ordered daily after reconstitution the vial contains a total of 5 mL and there is 100 mcg/mL. How many milliliters would be administered? Round you answer to the nearest 10th.
can someone please put a skit that is 200 words about refusal skills for apex.
Refusal skills are techniques or ways or strategies by which a person can say "no" in the face of peer pressure. A person needs refusal skills to be able to withstand peer pressure and stay away from dangerous circumstances.
Which are the various refusal skills are there?1. Express disapproval.
2. Provide a justification, fact, or justification.
3. Move on foot.
4. Alter the Topic.
5. Make jokes.
6. Repeated Refusals or Broken Record
7. Give a blank stare or ignore.
8. Avoid the predicament.
9. The power of numbers.
Saying no nicely, saying no with empathy, saying no with an apology, declining to accept responsibility for another's conduct, and refusing to give in to peer pressure are a few instances of refusal abilities. In a courteous but direct approach, explain why you're declining. Avoid accepting time-stealing assignments, such as unneeded committee positions. Establish limits.
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A coworker is noted to be very organized. However, you see that he is always making lists and citing the rules of the organization. He wants all his projects to be perfect and gets very upset when things happen that make him miss his deadlines. The coworker is exhibiting signs of which personality disorder?
a. Avoidant
b. Obsessive-compulsive
c. Histrionic
d. Dependent
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder affects patients who have an obsession with control, order, and perfection. These patients could struggle to maintain their perfectionism due to anxiety. The patient information in this question exemplifies the characteristics of OCD.
How does an OCD individual behave?Obsessional symptoms, compulsive symptoms, or both may be present in OCD patients. Every element of life, including work, school, and interpersonal interactions, can be affected by these symptoms. Obsessions are anxious-inducing, recurrent thoughts, desires, or mental images. Fear of contamination or pathogens are typical symptoms.
How is OCD identified?OCD cannot be tested for. After asking you about your symptoms, a healthcare professional makes the diagnosis. The fifth edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders serves as the provider's reference (DSM-V).
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on college campuses, many women report which has the power to diminish their capability to consent to sexual activity
The likelihood of sexual victimization across all forms of sexual violence is positively correlated with participant gender, frequent hookups, and poorer sexual assertiveness.
How can sexual assault be stopped on college campuses?Campus safety teams may build a safer and more aware student body that watches out for one another by implementing a safety escort program, enhancing security or campus police presence, starting a bystander intervention training program, and using technology.Health issues that include sadness, anxiety, and post-traumatic stress disorder may affect women who have been sexually assaulted. However, students could also find it difficult to report the abuse or receive the assistance they are entitled to from the school.In college, one in five women and one in every sixteen men experience sexual assault. 91% are not recorded. Students who identify as LGBTQ+, Black, and Students with Disabilities3 are more likely to experience sexual assault on college.To learn more about sexual assault be stopped on college campuses refer to:
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Mrs. Drake recently fractured her left hip after falling out of bed. Her recent hip replacement surgery was successful. She was admitted to a sub-acute unit of a SNF for rehabilitation, but is responding poorly to attempts for treatment. She continually cries and the PT reports that Mrs. Drake has been expressing a fear of standing and is resistant to ambulate. According to the COTA, she is also having difficulty getting to the bathroom, showering and going to the dining room for meals. She rejects trying antidepressants and is developing poor endurance and muscle weakness
Mrs. Drake's strength lies in enjoying a comparatively good health with no presence of chronic diseases. Mrs. Drake's problems lie in having a medical condition of mild depression and a slight hearing loss. She also faces movement issues along with a fear of standing.
What is SNF?An inpatient facility type known as a skilled nursing facility (SNF) offers senior patients short- or long-term rehabilitation treatments. Following a necessary hospital stay for illness, accident, or surgery, these facilities offer patients who need transitional care round-the-clock medical treatment. Seniors typically stay at an SNF for up to 100 days, where they are attended to by trained medical personnel.
What is a COTA?A COTA, or Qualified Occupational Therapy Assistant, does all the tasks of an OTA but has gone above and beyond to get certified in their area of expertise. They signed up with the National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy (NBCOT) and passed the required certification test.
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A nonhuman carrier of disease that transports and serves the process of disease transmission is called an ____
An infectious agent is transmitted from an affected animal to a human or another animal by a vector, which is a live entity. It is a disease-carrying nonhuman animal that facilitates the spread of diseases.
What is the term for disease transmission?The most frequent method of spreading viruses and illnesses is through direct contact. Direct and indirect transmission are the two different types. When an infected individual and a sensitive person come into direct physical touch, the infection is transmitted directly.
What three different ways do diseases spread?The use of one of the three forms of transmission-based on precautions —contact, droplet, or airborne—depends on how a particular disease is spread.
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Dominique has a BMI of 35. What does the BMI
indicate about Dominique?
Dominique has a BMI of 35. This indicate that Dominique has an increased risk of heart disease and diabetes.
Functional foods are divided into four categories: modified foods, conventional foods, medical foods, and
2. All these should not be co-administered with an SSRI except?
A. Theophylline
B. Propranolol
C. Clozapine
D. None of the above
All these should not be co-administered with an SSRI except option D. None of the above
What is SSRI about?
All of the above medications can potentially be co-administered with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), but it is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any combination of medications.
Theophylline is a bronchodilator used to treat asthma and other respiratory conditions. Propranolol is a beta blocker used to treat high blood pressure, angina, and other conditions. Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia.
Therefore, Each of these medications can have potential interactions with SSRIs and other medications, and a healthcare provider should be aware of all medications a person is taking in order to determine the most appropriate treatment plan.
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What are some possible causes of Lindsey’s discomfort?
Some possible causes of Lindsey’s discomfort may be determined by the fact that the infants can start weaning off supplement foods at 4 to 6 months.
What is Lindsey’s discomfort?Lindsey’s discomfort may be characterized as a type of circumstance in which any individual whether it is small or adult has to face some sort of discomfort due to moderate to severe diseases or disorders.
According to the context of this question, food allergies can occur when we introduce food to our child other than breast milk. It is the most probable cause of Lindsey’s discomfort with the infant. Apart from this, it also reduces their level of immunity which increases the chance of other diseases in their entire lifetime.
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collinses are sour drinks, served in a tall glass, to which _____ is added: A. soda B. cola
C. lime D. juice E. bitters
Option A Soda
Collenses are sour drinks, served in a tall glass, to which Soda is added.
A typical group of mixed drinks is called a sour. Jerry Thomas' 1862 book How to Mix Drinks? includes a description of sour drinks, which are a member of the older families of the first cocktails. Lemon or lime juice, a base liquor, and a sweetener are the ingredients in sours.
Some sours also contain egg whites.
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Males typically begin puberty before females. True False
Answer:
False as Females begin puberty around 2 years eralier the boys
The ____ theory describes how people can produce new resources and allocate them effectively to the tasks they want to master.Selective Optimization with Compensation theory.
According to the Selective optimization with compensation hypothesis, individuals can create new resources and successfully assign them to the tasks they desire to master.
Properly manage the team's workload and its resources. Join for no cost. 2. Establish resources and give them tasks to do. Set working hours for your resources and allocate as many as you need to each assignment. It would lessen the likelihood of staff burnout by preventing overwork or downtime. resource allocation, often known as the distribution of productive assets among various purposes. Resource allocation is a problem because a society's resources are finite, although people's demands are often limitless, and since any given resource may be put to a variety of different purposes.
Complete question:
The ____ theory describes how people can produce new resources and allocate them effectively to the tasks they want to master.
a.Activity
b.Selective Optimization with Compensation theory
c.socioemotional selectivity
d.Psychoanalytical
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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for varenicline for smoking cessation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. "if I fail to stop smoking after 12 weeks, I will have to try another product"
b. "I will take the medication for 7 days before I try to stop smoking"
c. "the medication will cause me to lose weight as I stop smoking"
d. "I will take the medication after eating a meal"d. "I will take the medication after eating a meal"
*taking w/ a meal will minimize the associated nausea
The statement by the client who has a new prescription for varenicline for smoking cessation. that indicates an understanding of the teaching by the nurse is: (d) "I will take the medication after eating a meal". *taking w/ a meal will minimize the associated nausea.
Varenicline is a medication used by people to stop their habit of smoking as well as it is also used to treat the dry eye disease. The work involved inside the body for smoking cessation is that it blocks the pleasant effects of nicotine on the brain.
Nausea is the uneasiness of the stomach that makes a person feel like he/she wants to vomit. Nausea is the feeling before the beginning of vomiting.
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select the incorrect statement concerning type i hypersensitivity. group of answer choices ige is produced by plasma cells after th2 cell activation through the il-4 receptor antigen-specific ige attaches to fc receptors found on autoreactive b and t cells re-exposure to the same antigen results in cross-linking of the cell-bound ige release of inflammatory mediators occurs within minutes
b. Antigen-specific IgE attaches to fc receptors found on autoreactive B and T cells is the incorrect statement concerning type I Hypersensitivity.
Mast cells, not B or T cells, are where the Fc receptors for IgE antibodies are located.
A typical Type I Hypersensitivity reaction is allergy.
It happens after being exposed to the allergen.
Il-4 is needed in order to change classes. This interleukin is secreted by T helper cell type 2, which prompts the B cells to make IgE antibodies.
When IgE antibodies bind to mast cells, the mast cells degranulate and release histamine and leukotriene, which constrict the airways.
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Correct Question:
Select the incorrect statement concerning type i hypersensitivity. group of answer choices
a. IgE is produced by plasma cells after th2 cell activation through the il-4 receptor
b. Antigen-specific IgE attaches to fc receptors found on autoreactive b and t cells
c. Re-exposure to the same antigen results in cross-linking of the cell-bound IgE
d. Release of inflammatory mediators occurs within minutes
e. It requires the formation of IgE antibodies
American Heart Association focuses on ICH rather than mortality rates, ICH means:
A:Ideal Cardiorespiratory Health
B: Ideal Cardiovascular Health
C: Idea of Cardioexercise Health
Answer:
The correct answer is B: Ideal Cardiovascular Health.
Explanation:
The American Heart Association (AHA) is a nonprofit organization that focuses on promoting cardiovascular health and reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease. Cardiovascular disease refers to conditions that affect the heart and blood vessels, such as coronary artery disease, heart failure, and stroke. The AHA promotes a variety of strategies for improving cardiovascular health, including lifestyle changes (such as eating a healthy diet and getting regular physical activity), management of risk factors (such as high blood pressure and high cholesterol), and access to medical care.
Let me know if you have any questions.
Jason is feeling anxious; the rent at his apartment recently increased, and his hours at work have been reduced. What type of stress is Jason experiencing?
A. Financial stress
B. Economic stress
C. Emotional stress. D.Occupational stress
Answer: It should be D sorry if I'm wrong
Explanation:
From what I seen job stress in apart of this.
Jason is feeling anxious; the rent at his apartment recently increased and his hours at work have been reduced, and he is experiencing the financial stress that is present in the option A
What is the result of the stress?When a person does not get the desired result, he or she experiences stress, which can lead to a variety of diseases such as nervous system imbalances, digestive issues, and improper metabolism, and it produces free radicals that further harm the human body system. There are many types of stress, such as financial stress when the person does not have the desired money for house rent, food, etc., or occupational stress when the work place is not cooperative with the work, etc.
Hence, Jason is feeling anxious; the rent at his apartment recently increased and his hours at work have been reduced, and he is experiencing the financial stress that is present in the option A
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how many calories of energy are in the following cereal? new super sweeties have 25 total grams of carbohydrates including: 15 g sugar, 9 g complex carbohydrates and 1 g dietary fiber
Each 100 calories of energy is made up of 25 grams of total carbohydrates, including 15 grams of sugar, 9 grams of complex carbohydrates, and 1 gram of dietary fiber.
What do calories in food mean?Your body might have greater energy if a meal has more calories. Your body stores excess energy as body fat when you eat more than you need. Despite having no fat, some foods may be high in calories.calories should I have each day:As stated by the U.S. According to the Department of Agriculture, adult males need about 2,000 to 3000 calories per day to lose fat, whereas adult females need about 1,600 to 2,400 calories daily.Each 100 calories of energy is made up of 25 grams of total carbohydrates, including 15 grams of sugar, 9 grams of complex carbohydrates, and 1 gram of dietary fiber.To learn more about calories refer to:
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What is the name of the tissue that covers the outside of the lungs
Answer:
"pleura" it's a large thin sheet that wraps around the outside of you lungs
The majority of intervertebral disk herniations occur between which vertebral levels (cervical,C; thoracic, T; lumbar, L; sacral, S)?a. C1-C3b. T1-T4c. T12-L3d. L4-S1
An intervertebral disc (or intervertebral fibrocartilage) lies between adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column. thus the correct answer d. L4 to S1.
The 26 bones that make up the vertebral column support the trunk axially. The spinal cord, which passes through the central hollow of the vertebral column, is shielded. An intervertebral disk is located between each vertebra.
The nucleus pulposus, which is a gelatinous material that fills the disks, cushions the spinal column. The nucleus pulposus is surrounded by a fibrocartilaginous ring called the annulus fibrosus, which protects it from damage when forces are applied to the spinal column.
The intervertebral disks give the vertebral column flexibility and serve as shock absorbers when people walk, run, or jump on a regular basis.
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Full Question: The majority of intervertebral disk herniations occur between vertebral levels (cervical, C; thoracic, T; lumbar, L; sacral, S):
a. C1 to C3.
b. T1 to T4.
c. T12 to L3.
d. L4 to S1.
Ideas that are important to American society such as loyalty to country and freedom would be considered:
Material culture
Non-material culture
Sanctions
Cultural integration
Answer:
Non-material culture.
Explanation:
Non‐material culture refers to the nonphysical ideas that people have about their culture, including beliefs, values, rules, norms, morals, language, organizations, and institutions. This includes loyalty to the country and freedom.
The influence of non-material culture on material culture. Although there are many material objects connected to religion, such as places of worship and books of devotion, religion, and faith are two examples of non-material culture. Thus, option B is correct.
What Non-material culture in American society such loyalty?The non-material culture refers to the thoughts or concepts that make up a culture. Non-material culture is distinct from material culture in that it lacks any tangible artifacts or items. Any goals, ideas, beliefs, values, or customs that may help create society are examples of non-material culture.
Languages, terminology, clothing norms, manners, rituals, commercial and social interactions, religion, laws, penalties, values, and ethics are a few examples of nonmaterial culture.
Therefore, The term "non-material culture" refers to people's non-material conceptions of their culture, such as their beliefs, values, conventions, and linguistic, organizational, and institutional systems. This encompasses adherence to the constitution and freedom.
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Some couples in long-term relationships have abandoned _____ rituals, activities that arouse sexual interest in both partners.
Some couples in long-term relationships have abandoned seduction rituals, activities that arouse sexual interest in both partners.
Among older adults, the lack of a partner and soreness with one's personal ageing can make a contribution to sexual problems. The lack of ability of someone to enjoy sexual arousal or to acquire sexual pride under suitable circumstances, due to both bodily ailment or, extra commonly, mental problems.
Thus, seduction rituals have been abounded in long-term relationships.
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