According to the chart in 1984 and 1985, selection cutting actually conserved more water and saved more soil from erosion, than the uncut control forest.
what is soil erosion?
The top, fertile layer of soil is lost during this process. The soil loses its fertility as a result of erosion. Since the soil's top layer is so light, wind and water can readily carry it away. Soil erosion is the process by which topsoil is removed by the forces of nature.
The main factors that contribute significantly to soil loss each year are wind, rain, and flowing water. In addition to seriously reducing crop production potential, lowering surface water quality, and harming drainage systems, excessive soil erosion also results in substantial topsoil loss.
therefore, Option B is correct.
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bacteria cause diseases in humans when they multiple choice carry the genes that code for virulent factors, causing them to be harmful to humans. rearrange the genes of the host to code for specific virulence factors that determine the type and extent of the illness. carry the same genes as the host organism, causing them to be indistinguishable from the host cell. carry the genes of organisms like birds (bird flu) or pigs (swine flu). carry genes that allow them to become symbiotes.
Recombinant viruses that carry extra genes encoding for a particular immunogen can be produced using virus strains used in vaccines.
How do microorganisms spread illness?Toxins are potent compounds that many disease-causing bacteria create; they harm your cells and make you sick. Other bacteria have the ability to directly destroy tissues.
What mechanism does a virus use to transfer DNA from one bacterium to another?Transduction
Transduction. The process of transduction, on the other hand, is how a virus spreads genetic material from one bacterium to another. This procedure is dependent on a particular kind of virus known as a bacteriophage, which can infect bacterial cells and use them as hosts to manufacture other viruses.
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Which of the following would you not find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?a. Potassium
b. Glucose
c. Protein
d. Red blood cells
Answer:
d. Red blood cells is the correct answer
which of the following includes the largest number of species? answer correct animals that are unsegmented you were sure and correct animals with a body cavity animals with radial symmetry animals with a backbone animals that are segmented
Members of the Echinodermata are unsegmented, have bilaterally symmetrical larvae, and are radially symmetrical as adults.
Any member of the phylum Echinodermata is considered an echinoderm. Adults with radial symmetry include starfish, brittle stars, sea urchins, sand dollars, and sea cucumbers, as well as sea lilies or "stone lilies." They are spherical or elongated and have a star-like appearance. They are only found in the sea. The organisms have spiney skin. They are organized at the organ system level. They have a coelomic cavity and are triploblastic. Calcium carbonate makes up the skeleton. Echinoderms do not have a heart, brain, or eyes; instead, they move their bodies using a unique hydraulic system known as the water vascular system.
Sea stars, sea urchins, sea cucumbers, brittle stars, and feather stars are examples of echinoderms.
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the gene for enzyme transposase is carried by
Answer:
The gene for enzyme transposase is carried by a plasmid.
Suggest why leaves are green but roots aren’t
Answer:
plants and their leaves look green because the “special pair” of chlorophyll molecules uses the red end of the visible light spectrum to power reactions inside each cell. The unused green light is reflected from the leaf and we see that light.Leaves of plants are green because they perform photosynthesis while the roots are not because they do not perform photosynthesis is the best hypothesis based on the observation.
All of the following will cause DNA replication to occur faster except for ___?
A.) More DNA polymerases
B.) More helicases
C.) More nucleotides
Which letter is it? A, B, or C?
All of the following will cause DNA replication to occur faster except for More helicases.
Numerous DNA polymerase enzymes are working simultaneously to duplicate the complete DNA at all of the various replication forks in the various replication bubbles in order to hasten the process. Two exact copies are the outcome.
The rate of eukaryotic human DNA replication is 50 nucleotides per second. Because several polymerases can create two new strands at once utilizing each unwinding strand from the original DNA double helix as a template, replication happens so swiftly in both circumstances.
One strand from the parent strand and one recently synthesized daughter strand are present in every new piece of DNA. Semiconservative replication is the term for this.
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in a healthy cardiovascular system, the endothelium is very smooth and coated with , which prevents adherence of platelets to the endothelium. thus, unneeded blood clots do not form. multiple choice question.
Prostacyclin is the prostaglandin which prevents the adherence of platelets to the endothelium. This prevents blood clotting. Thus, the correct option is C.
What is Cardiovascular system?The Cardiovascular system or the blood circulatory system delivers nutrients and oxygen to all the cells in the body. Cardiovascular system consists of the heart and the complex network of blood vessels (arteries, veins, and capillaries) running throughout the entire body. The arteries carry blood away from the heart, the veins carry it back to the heart and the capillaries form the connection between arteries and veins.
Prostacyclin is a prostaglandin which is produced by both the vascular smooth muscle and endothelium cell layer that stimulates vasodilation, inhibits the smooth muscle growth i.e., antiproliferative effects, and also inhibits platelet aggregation.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
In healthy endothelial cells, Which of the following inhibits platelets from sticking together and forming a platelet plug.
a. Thromboxane
b. Von Willebrand factor
c. Prostacyclin
d. Epinephrine
The compounds α-D-fructofuranose and β-D-fructofuranose are ________.
A) enantiomers
B) mutamers
C) anomers
D) conformational isomers
The compound of α-D- fructofuranose and β-D-fructofuranose are anomers. Correct option is (C).
A new chiral center is created at the site of the conversion of a molecule like glucose into a cyclic form C-1. The new chiral center (C-1) is produced by the anomeric carbon, which is identified by its chemical structure. Anomers are an exception; they are epimers with only the anomeric carbon varying in configuration.
An example of an anomer is -D-glucose and -D-glucose.
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Suppose that your pressure gauge for determining the blood pressure of a patient measured absolute pressure p instead of gauge pressure. How would you write the normal value of systolic blood pressure, 120 mmhg, in such a case?.
The value of the systolic blood pressure is -640 mmHg. The pressure gauge measures the absolute pressure.
Blood pressure is known as the pressure of blood against the wall of the arteries. Systolic blood pressure indicates how much pressure the blood is exerting against the artery walls when the heart beats pumping blood out. Systolic blood pressure is the top number of the blood pressure reading.
According to the question, we can see that the gauge pressure measures the absolute pressure that is 'P'.
Therefore, P= 120 mmHg
And we know that,
Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure.
P = Pg +Patm
where, P = absolute pressure
Pg = gauge pressure
Patm = atmospheric pressure.
Since we need to find 'Pg'. We have to minus 'Patm' from 'P'.
Therefore, the equation will be:
Pg = P - Patm
Pg = 120 -760 (the value of atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHg)
Therefore, Pg = - 640 mmHg.
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taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the pacific yew tree. in animal cells, taxol prevents microtubule depolymerization, which interferes with which of the following processes?
A. the mitotic spindle
B. chromosome condensation
C. centriole duplication
D. cytokinesis
Answer:
Im Not 100% Sure But I'd Say Option:A "The Mitotic Spindle"
Explanation:
Worth A Try Hoped I HElped!
Which of the following human impacts is mismatched with the detrimental effect it has had on a biome?
A. Oil and natural gas exploration: long-lasting injury due to slow regeneration of the tundra
B. Mining, drilling for gas and oil, and farming: loss of boreal forest (deforestation)
C. Overharvesting of old-growth forest: loss of temperate rain forest habitat for endangered and threatened species
D. Off-road vehicle damage and military exercises: erosion and loss of vegetation in the desert
E. Hunting and fishing: desertification of the savanna, tropical grasslands
Local hunting and fishing can result in local extirpations and drive species to extinction. Wildlife populations have declined in forests throughout the tropics due to hunting.
What is a biome?
It is an area where species live in that location. Each biome has a unique temperature range, soil type, and amount of light and water.
Terrestrial biomes include grasslands, deserts, and tropical forests
Freshwater biomes include polar freshwaters, large lakes, tropical and sub-tropical coastal rivers.
Marine biomes include continental shelves, tropical coral, and kelp forests.
Excessive heat and droughts result from an increased average global temperature and contribute to the desertification of the savannas.
Threats to biome:
aquatic pollutionintroduction of invasive speciesfloods and droughtsdesert-pollution damagewildfiresloggingHence hunting and fishing causes local extirpations and drive species to extinction.
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how can you describe deep sea trench
Explain how heart attack survivors get out of breath easily (6 marks)
Heart attack survivors get out of breath easily because the heart did not work properly.
Why do cardiac patients get short of breath?
If your heart is not pumping enough oxygen-containing blood into the body, your body reacts by breathing faster to get more oxygen into the body, making us feel short of breath. Heart attacks have caused great damage which means the heart can not pump blood to all parts of the body. This can leads to heart failure, which can include the symptoms of breathlessness.
Shortness of breath is a symptom of the problems with the heart and lungs. But it can also be a symptom of other conditions such as asthma, allergies, and anxiety. Intense exercise or having a cold can also lead to breathless.
So we can conclude that the heart did not work properly which leads to heart attack survivors getting out of breath easily.
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When you consider causes of behavior, which of the following are correctly matched? Ultimate causes? Proximate causes?
Ultimate causes: an evolutionary explanation for behavior.
Proximate causes: mechanisms that underlie behavior
In terms of the influences of evolution, ultimate causation explains features.
As an illustration, female animals frequently show preferences for male display features, including songs. The most conclusive theory is that females who exhibit preferences have more virulent or more handsome male progeny.
In terms of direct physiological or environmental elements, proximate causation describes how biological processes work.
Example: In a mate choice trial, a female animal decides to mate with a specific male. One theory for the closest explanation is that one male produced a stronger signal, which caused the female to have higher hormone levels and exhibit copulatory behavior.
Although the behavior in these two examples is the same, the explanations are based on several reasons, some of which are evolutionary and some of which are physiological.
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Dr. Ara B. Dopsis and Dr. C. Ellie Gans are performing genetic crosses on daisy plants. They self-fertilize a blueflowered daisy and grow 100 progeny plants that consist of 55 blue-flowered plants, 22 purple-flowered plants, and 23 white-flowered plants. Dr. Dopsis believes this is the result of segregation of two alleles at one locus and that the progeny ratio is 1:2:1. Dr. Gans thinks the progeny phenotypes are the result of two epistatic genes and that the ratio is 9:3:4.
The two scientists ask you to resolve their conflict by performing chi-square analysis on the data for both proposed genetic mechanisms:
1. Calculate the chi-square value for hypothesis of segregation of two alleles at one locus.
2. Calculate the chi-square value for hypothesis of interaction of two epistatic genes.
3. Based on chi-square analysis, what is your conclusion regarding these two genetic hypotheses?
4. Based on chi-square analysis, what is your conclusion regarding these two genetic hypotheses?
a. Hypothesis of segregation of two alleles at one locus can be rejected.
b. Hypothesis of interaction of two epistatic genes can be rejected.
c. Neither hypothesis can be rejected.
d. Both hypotheses can be rejected
1. The blue color flower is self-crossed with each other and gives rise to 100 progenies.
2. Out of 10p progeny 22 are purple 55 are blue color and 23 are white color.
3. When the gene shows segregation the chi-square value is as:-
So, the Chi-square value is 1.02 for the hypothesis of the segregation of two alleles.
4. When genes show epistatic:
So, the chi-square value for the hypothesis of the interaction of the twp epistatic gene is 0.750.
The statistic is used in genetics to indicate whether there are deviations from the expected outcome of alleles within a population. A common assumption in statistical tests is that there is no significant difference between the measured and predicted results. Epistasis is determined by the self-progeny of F2 animals. Gene B is epistatic to gene A if animals of phenotype A produce offspring of phenotypes A and B, and animals of phenotype B produce only offspring of phenotype B.
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Select four flowering plants.
tiger lily
pine tree
fir tree
pear tree
fig tree
cedar tree
cactus
Answer: The correct choices are:
tiger lily
cactus
pear tree
cedar tree
Explanation: These answers have been confirmed correct.
An ecologist makes a list of every species known to exist in an ecosystem. Which type of biodiversity is he/she studying?
Responses
ecosystem diversity
genetic diversity
species diversity
biosphere diversity
can be defined as an interaction between organisms or species, in which the fitness of one is lowered indirectly by the presence of another due to limited resource such as food, water, and space.
This type of inetraction between organisms called intraspecific completetion.
Intraspecific competition is competition between individuals of the same species (interspecies). The impact of competition on each individual within a species depends on the type of competition taking place. "Competition-competition" can be passive or active, with different results.
For example, two male birds of the same species may compete for mates at the same location. This type of competition is a fundamental element of natural selection. It leads to the development of better adaptations within the species.
A species is a group of organisms made up of similar individuals whose genes can be exchanged or interbred. Species is the primary natural taxonomic unit, ranked under the genus and represented by the Latin binomial.
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Giant tube worms living near vents on the ocean floor do not have a functioning intestine. Instead they have a modified gut full of bacteria that provide the worms with carbohydrates. What is the energy that the bacteria use to make the carbohydrates?.
In giant tube worms, symbiotic bacteria are housed in an organ called a trophosome. Because the symbiotic bacteria dwelling in the trophosome may supply organic nutrients and other chemicals for energy and growth, this organ replaces its digestive system.
Instead of having a mouth, a gut, or an anus, the worms obtain their sustenance from symbiotic bacteria that use hydrogen sulfide and energy to fix carbon to produce the food that the worm consumes.
Red plumes that resemble feathers on the tubeworms serve as gills, taking in oxygen from the sea and hydrogen sulfide from vent fluids. They can do this because of a unique form of hemoglobin in their blood that can carry oxygen and sulfide simultaneously (human hemoglobin transports only oxygen).
So, we can define a trophosome as an organ that houses symbiotic bacteria in tube worms. The symbiotic bacteria can produce organic nutrients and other compounds for energy and growth.
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which of the following does not describe the anatomical characteristics of the kidney? a. partially tucked under the ribs for protection b. protected by the perirenal fat capsule c. anterior to psoas major d. located in a retroperitoneal position e. left kidney is below the right kidney
"left kidney is below the right kidney" does not describe the anatomical characteristics of the kidney.
What is anatomical characteristics?The human body is made up of billions of smaller structures of four primary types: cells, tissues, organs, and systems. An organ is a grouping of several different types of tissues that work together to accomplish a certain function. The body is erect, squarely facing the spectator, feet flat and front in the anatomical posture. All definitions presented here assume that the human skeleton is in conventional anatomical posture, i.e., standing erect, gazing ahead, feet near and parallel to each other, arms at sides, palms facing front.
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A mutation may affect the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide only if it occurs within the.
Only if it appears within the Result of repeated of a structural gene, the amino acid structure of a polypeptide.
Amino acids can I take every day?When used sparingly and in moderation, amino acids in particular are usually safe to eat daily. It is difficult to determine with certainty what the top limit for amino acid residues in general might be due to the large variations in dietary requirements across various persons.
When ought I to consume amino acids?Between meals and right after an exercise are often the two ideal periods for most individuals to take supplements of vital amino acids. Supplementing somewhere between meal may be particularly helpful for older persons to offset the greater rates of breakdown of proteins that come with age.
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which of the following are true regarding marine heat waves (mhws)?
A. Risk factors for death during heat waves are well defined.
B. Heat waves in recent years have been most severe near the equator, and mild in norther latitudes.
C. Heat wave preparedness planning is ineffective in reducing deaths during heat waves.
D. Heat waves are more severe in rural areas than in urban areas.
The true statement regarding marine heat waves (mhws) is that risk factors for death during heat waves are well defined.
So option A is correct.
What are marine heat waves?A marine heatwave is described as a period of abnormally high temperatures relative to the average seasonal temperature in a particular region of a sea or ocean.
Statistics in the United States has said that due to increased greenhouse gas emissions, extended periods of extreme warming in seas and oceans have increased in frequency by 50% in the past 10 years and are becoming more severe causing marine heatwaves.
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At resting membrane potential, why does a small amount of sodium leak into the cell instead of out?.
A small number of sodium leaks into the cell instead of out due to the electrochemical gradient favors the entry of sodium into the cell while it is at rest. In the cell, the negatively charged ions and molecules are drawn to the positively charged sodium ions.
At a typical resting membrane potential, potassium is carried into the cells while sodium is pushed away. This necessitates the sodium-potassium exchange pump, which functions by using ATP. Every two extracellular potassium ions will be exchanged for three intracellular sodium ions.
An ATP-driven pump (Na/K-ATPase) causes the passage of potassium ions into the cell and sodium ions out of the cell to restore the proper balance of ions. When various ions pass across the neuron membrane, action potentials are produced. Sodium channels first open as a result of the stimulation.
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lipolysis increases when which of the following are released: 1) cortisol, 2) epinephrine and norepinephrine, 3) glucagon, 4) growth hormone.lipolysis increases when which of the following are released: 1) cortisol, 2) epinephrine and norepinephrine, 3) glucagon, 4) growth hormone.
Lipolysis increases when the following hormone is released (1) cortisol.
Lipolysis is the process of breakdown of lipids triglycerides. In this process, the triacylglycerols breakdown by the phenomenon of hydrolysis into their monomeric units glycerol and free fatty acids. The process can happen in all cell types, but the white and brown adipose tissues are more prominent for lipolysis.
Cortisol is a hormone also known as the stress hormone. It is steroidal in nature. The adrenal glands are responsible for the secretion of these hormones. It elevates the blood pressure of the body and also enhances the energy levels.
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in the process of carbon fixation, rubp attaches a co2 to produce a six-carbon molecule, which is then split to produce two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate. after phosphorylation and reduction produces glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (g3p), what more needs to happen to complete the calvin cycle? in the process of carbon fixation, rubp attaches a co2 to produce a six-carbon molecule, which is then split to produce two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate. after phosphorylation and reduction produces glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (g3p), what more needs to happen to complete the calvin cycle? regeneration of atp from adp addition of a pair of electrons from nadph regeneration of rubp regeneration of nadp
Regeneration of rubisco. This ensures that the cycle continues to take place and continue to fix CO2.
What is carbon fixation ?RuBP and CO2 react, and RuBisCO catalyses the formation of a six-carbon compound that is quickly split into two three-carbon compounds. Because CO2 is "fixed" into organic molecules during this process from its inorganic form, it is known as carbon fixation.
The fixation reaction is catalysed by an enzyme called RuBisCO, which combines RuBP and CO2. The resulting six-carbon compound is split into two three-carbon compounds, which are then transformed into G3P by ATP and NADPH using their stored energy.RuBP and CO2 react through the catalysis of RuBisCO. Three molecules of 3-phosphoglyceric acid (3-PGA) are created for each CO2 molecule that interacts with one RuBP molecule. 3-PGA contains one phosphate and three carbons. One RuBP and one carbon dioxide are all that are needed for each cycle turn to produce two 3-PGA molecules.Learn more about Carbon fixation here:
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hydrophilic substances have an easier time passing through membranes than do hydrophobic substances.
Membranes can be crossed by hydrophilic substances more easily than by hydrophobic ones. Proteins that enter a membrane from both sides frequently puncture it.
Why does water become hydrophobic?Water's polarity and its ability to create strong hydrogen bonds with other polar molecules are what lead to the hydrophobic interactions. The polarity of water makes it simple for it to create hydrogen bonds with the other polar molecules, which makes it possible for it to dissolve additional polar molecules.
What liquids are hydrophobic?Among the hydrophobic molecules are those that can be found in aromatics, oils, fats, and other typically greasy substances. Hydrophobic materials are employed in the removal of oil from water, the cleanup of oil spills, and chemical separation techniques to separate polar molecules from non-polar ones.
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what is the ratio of dominate to recessive phenotypes likely to result from this cross?
2:2
0:4
4:0
0:2
If A is dominant to a and B is dominant to b, then a cross between AaBb x AaBb, would be give you a ratio of 9:3:3:1, this has because this is a dihybrid cross. That is both parents are heterogenous for both traits and therefore the ratio of the phenotypes will be 9:3:3;1.. This is an example of independent assortment.
What is gene?
The term "gene" has been known as the variety of meanings in the subject biology. The molecular gene has the sequence of the nucleotides in the DNA that has transcribed to form the functional RNA, whereas the Mendelian gene has the fundamental unit of inheritance.
Genes in the different chromosomes has been assort independently during meiosis. Genes that has very close together in the same chromosome has been linked.
Therefore, If A is dominant to a and B is dominant to b, then a cross between AaBb x AaBb, would be give you a ratio of 9:3:3:1, this has because this is a dihybrid cross. That is both parents are heterogenous for both traits and therefore the ratio of the phenotypes will be 9:3:3;1.. This is an example of independent assortment.
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What is the function of the dendrites?
a) They carry impulses towards the cell body.
b) They carry impulses away from the cell body.
c) They carry information into and out of the brain stem.
d) They carry motor and sensory signals between the spinal cord and the boc
Answer:
No C
Explanation:
they carry information into and out of the brain stem.
I hope it helps.
Which of the following arrangements would yield the greatest reduction in gamete viability?
A. An inversion homozygote for a small inversion
B. An inversion heterozygote for a large inversion
C. An inversion homozygote for a large inversion
D. An inversion heterozygote for a small inversion
An inversion heterozygote for a large inversion
In order for the chromosomal pairs to line up during meiosis, an inversion heterozygote must create a loop with one chromosome. Note that the term "heterozygote" used here refers to chromosomes rather than genes. Even with an inversion heterozygote, all of its genes could still be homozygous. Due to the loss of half of their gametes, inversion heterozygotes do not have as high a level of fitness (underdominance) as non-inverted people.
More genes will be duplicated or deleted when there is a crossing over if the heterozygous inversion is big. In the majority of pericentric inversion heterozygote carriers with balanced rearrangement, there is no phenotypic effect. The homologous chromosomes in an inversion heterozygote pair gene by gene and form a loop configuration that can be seen at pachytene if the inverted region is large enough.
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Which of the following terms associated with transcription describe regions of nucleic acid?
a. terminator
b. gene
c. promoter
Promotor, gene, terminator are all 3 phrases/terms related to transcription. Promoters and terminators are stretches of DNA upstream and downstream (respectively) of genes that manage each the fee at which the gene is transcribed and the fee at which mRNA is degraded.
As a result, each of those factors manage internet protein expression from a artificial construct. The terminator series in DNA includes a 20 basepair GC-wealthy area of dyad symmetry observed through a quick poly-A tract or "A stretch" that is transcribed to shape the terminating hairpin and a 7–nine nucleotide "U tract" respectively. This is the area this is transcribed through RNA polymerase, additionally referred to as the RNA coding area. As defined below, it can consist of introns, sequences which are eliminated from the mature RNA molecule throughout RNA processing.
The transcribed area is demarcated through promoter and terminator sequences. A promoter is a area of DNA wherein RNA polymerase starts offevolved to transcribe a gene. Normally, promoter sequences are generally placed at once upstream or on the 5′ quit of the transcription initiation site.
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