The first principle of diet planning is that the foods we choose must provide energy and the essential nutrients, such as: fibre.
Fibre is made up of the indigestible parts of plants, which pass unchanged through our stomach and intestines. Fibre is mainly a carbohydrate which are gound in vegetables, cereals, fruits etc.Soluble fiber, which dissolves in water, can help lower glucose levels as well as help lower blood cholesterol. Foods with soluble fiber include oatmeal, chia seeds, nuts, beans, lentils, apples, and blueberries.Insoluble fiber, which does not dissolve in water, can help food move through your digestive system, promoting regularity and helping prevent constipation. Foods with insoluble fibers include whole wheat products (especially wheat bran), quinoa, brown rice, legumes, leafy greens like kale, almonds, walnuts, seeds, and fruits with edible skins like pears and apples.
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The aspect of hearing that declines most significantly in midlife is the ability to __________.
The aspect of hearing that declines most significantly in midlife is the ability to hear a high-pitched sound
Why does the ability to hear a high-pitched sound decline significantly in midlife? Since men are more likely to work in noisy jobs, they experience hearing loss rather than women in their midlife. A high-pitched sound is the first influenced by hearing loss. The condition where middle-aged adults tend to have difficulty hearing in conditions of background noise is characterized as Presbycusis. It might happen due to old hearing.There are some symptoms of hearing loss in middle-aged adults such as reading the lips of others while they are speaking, increasing the volume on the television or radio, and speech difficulty in crowded or noisy environments
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jessica is a 28 yr old established patient that is seeing her gynecologist for her routine annual check up. jessica has no complaints or issues. her doctor performs a complete preventative medical check up. what e/m code do i use?
The age range for the 99385 e/m code is 18–39.
For a 28-year-old adult female, E/M preventive services might include a pelvic exam, which might involve getting a pap smear, a breast exam, and a blood pressure check.
What is e/m code?E&M codes, often known as E&M codes or E and M codes, are a classification scheme that uses CPT codes that fall between the ranges of 99202 and 99499 to reflect services rendered by a doctor or other competent healthcare practitioner.Counseling is offered with relation to eating habits, physical activity, drug usage, and sexual behavior.Because these services are seen as being a component of comprehensive preventive medicine E/M services, it would not be appropriate to independently report for a pelvic exam, which includes getting a pap smear, nor for a breast exam based on this information.A medical coding procedure used to support medical billing is called evaluation and management coding.To learn more about e/m code refer to:
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Scientists have concluded that repeated exposure to high doses of x-rays can lead to cancer in individuals. How does the x-ray exposure result in cancer?.
Repeated exposure to high doses of x-ray can lead to cancer because the low-dose radiation may accumulate over the years to substantial cancer-causing doses.
Ionizing radiation, which is what an X-ray is, can damage the DNA. When this damage is improperly repaired by our calls, it may result in DNA mutations that may end up as cancer in the following years.
As answered above, repeated exposure to X-rays will accumulate the dose of ionizing radiation in one's body. While it may contribute to cancer over time, long-term radiation exposure can also result in a reduction in platelets, loss of white blood cells, fertility problems, and kidney function changes.
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Match each type of cardiomyopathy with its description.
a. Dilated
b. Hypertonic
c. Restrictive
d. Arrhythmogenic
1. One of the pumping chambers (ventricles) of the heart is enlarged. This is more common in males and is the most common form.
2. The heart muscle is thickened. This often presents in childhood or early adulthood and can cause sudden death in adolescents
3. The disease causes irregular heartbeats or rhymes. This is often inherited and more common males.
4. Heart muscle is stiff or scarred, or both. It can occur with amyloidosis or hemochromatosis, and other conditions. This is the...
Matching of each type of cardiomyopathy of Dilated, Hypertonic, Restrictive, and Arrhythmogenic with its description is given below.
Dilated is One of the pumping chambers (ventricles) of the heart is enlarged. This is more common in males and is the most common form.
Hypertonic is The heart muscle is thickened. This often presents in childhood or early adulthood and can cause sudden death in adolescents.
Restrictive is Heart muscle is stiff or scarred, or both. It can occur with amyloidosis or hemochromatosis, and other conditions.
Arrhythmogenic is The disease causes irregular heartbeats or rhymes. This is often inherited and more common males.
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when creating a retention schedule for medical records a medical assistant should consult which of the following
A medical assistant should consult state guidelines.
In the United States, medical errors are a major cause of death and a critical public health issue. Finding a reliable cause of mistakes and then offering a reliable, workable solution that reduces the likelihood of a reoccurring problem are difficult tasks. Patient safety can be raised by acknowledging unfavorable incidents when they occur, learning from them, and attempting to prevent them.
To eliminate the blame culture and maintain accountability, governmental, legal, and medical institutions must cooperate.
To help organizations and healthcare professionals create a safer practice environment for patients and providers, The Joint Commission has proposed many patient safety goals.
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a 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department in the late stages of active labor. assessment reveals she received no prenatal care. as part of her examination, a rapid hiv screen indicates she is hiv positive. to reduce the perinatal transmission to her infant, which intravenous medication would the nurse anticipate administering?
The drug should be administered to the 19-year-old-woman to reduce the perinatal transmission of AIDS to the infant is zidovudine.
Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS. It is also sometimes used to treat other viral infections such as hepatitis B.
It is used intravenous drug nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that is used to treat AIDS. It works by blocking the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate.
Zidovudine can cause side effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and headache. It can also cause a decrease in white blood cells, which can lead to infections.
Thus administering Zidovudine drug can eventually help prevention of perinatal transmission of HIV from the 19-year-old woman to the infant.
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Which of the following statements is true about sexual dysfunction?
a. Sexual dysfunctions are extremely rare.
b. Sexual dysfunctions are not as common as other conditions such as depression or schizophrenia.
c. Sexual dysfunctions are among the most prevalent of all disorders.
d. Sexual dysfunctions are equally common to other conditions such as depression.
The statements which is true about se-x.ual dysfunction is d. Se-x.ual dysfunctions are equally common to other conditions such as depression.
Among alternative issues, se-x.ual dysfunction will scale back your want for s-e-x, or your ability to become se-xually aro-used. It's going to forestall you from achieving a se-x.ual climax, cause eja-cul.ation, or it's going to cause pain throughout inter-co.ur.se . Se-x.ual dysfunction will have causes that are not due to underlying sickness. Examples embody stress, drug use, alcohol consumption, tobacco use, sport or relationship factors.
Depression is a mood disorder that causes a persistent feeling of disappointment and loss of interest. additionally referred to as major clinical depression or depressive disorder, it affects however you are feeling, suppose and behave and might cause a range of emotional and physical issues.
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one in 1000 anesthetized patients vomit for unknown reasons, and pre-op procedures always ask if a patient has eaten in the previous 12 hours. given that the swallowing reflex is abolished by anesthesia, why is it so dangerous for these patients to vomit?
Anesthesia inhibits the reflex to swallow. Laryngeal and upper airway reflexes must return quickly after anesthesia recovery in order to prevent aspiration into the lower airway.
What swallowing reflex is abolished by anesthesia?Disinhibition, madness, irrational behavior, lack of the eyelid reflex, hypertension, and tachycardia are characteristics of this stage. During this stage, airway reflexes are still functional and frequently sensitive to stimulation.
A child's ability to move their jaw, tongue, voice box, and throat muscles with strength and/or range of motion may be affected by swelling (edema) near the site of surgery (head and neck).
Therefore, It can cause your youngster to have trouble swallowing. Swallowing discomfort caused by structural alterations or edema.
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A patient i receiving a tube feeding formula called Vivonex, which i infued at a rate of 85ml/hr. What i the total volume of the formula that will be infued per day?
3,240 ml of fluid are injected in total each day, and will be infused.
What is a tube-feeding formula?Given that a patient is getting a normal saline solution that is constantly infused at 85 ml per hour and a tube feeding formula called Vivonex that is continuously infused at 50 ml per hour, the following calculation must be made to estimate the total volume of fluids infused each day:
(85 x 24) + (50 x 24) = X
1,920 + 1,200 = X
3,240 = X
Therefore, as a result, 3,240 ml of fluids are infused altogether each day.
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Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?
A. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated.
B. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.
C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
D. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver.
The statement regarding the acute abdomen which is correct is C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
An acute abdomen is a condition that demands imperative attention and treatment. The acute abdomen is also caused by associate infection, inflammation, tube occlusion, or obstruction. The patient can sometimes gift with fast onset of abdominal pain with associated nausea or innate reflex.
Evaluating abdominal pain needs associate approach that depends on the probability of sickness, patient history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies. the situation of pain may be a helpful place to begin and can guide more analysis. as an example, right lower quadrant pain powerfully suggests appendicitis.
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a patient who suffers from migraine headaches wants to take feverfew to prevent their recurrence. what adverse effect has been associated with the use of feverfew?
The usage of feverfew has not been linked to any severe negative effects. Consequences can include bloating, digestive issues, and nausea.
What negative consequences does Tanacetum parthenium (feverfew) have?If dried leaves are consumed, the common adverse effects of Tanacetum parthenium are mouth ulcers and sore tongue. It may result in fast heartbeats, lightheadedness, anxiety, restlessness, nausea, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.
The liver is affected by feverfew?Consult your healthcare practitioner. The liver's ability to break down some drugs more quickly may be slowed by feverfew. Feverfew might intensify the effects and negative side effects of some drugs that are metabolized by the liver.
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a client informs the nurse that he is having a difficult time coping with seasonal allergies and has taken some over-the-counter medications to assist with control of symptoms. what results would indicate to the nurse that the client does have allergies?
The results would indicate to the nurse that the client does have allergie is that of elevated eosinophils.
Eosinophils phagocytize overseas material. Their numbers growth in allergies, a few dermatologic disorders, and parasitic infections. Basophils also are able to phagocytosis; they're energetic in allergic touch dermatitis and a few not on time allergic reaction reactions.
Monocytes engulf microbial invaders and show the antigenic floor to T lymphocytes. Neutrophils are a first-rate thing of the inflammatory reaction and protection in opposition to bacterial infection.
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after performing an ecg on an adult client, the nurse reports that the pr interval reflects normal sinus rhythm. what is the pr interval for a normal sinus rhythm?
The pr interval for a normal sinus rhythm is three to five small squares or 0.12 to 0.20 seconds.
What is PR interval?This is a term which is referred to as the time taken for the electrical impulse to travel from the SA node to the AV node and is commonly used during the process of electrocardiography.
We were told that the nurse reports that the pr interval reflects normal sinus rhythm which means that it is most likely within the range of three to five small squares or 0.12 to 0.20 seconds thereby making it the correct choice.
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a nurse has performed an assessment of a patient and subsequently administered the patient's scheduled dose of ramipril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ace) inhibitor prescribed for the treatment of the patient's longstanding heart failure (hf). the nurse understands that this drug will aid in the treatment of the patient's disease by:
The treatment of the deases by heart failure.
What is deases?
A deases is a particularly abnormal condition the negatively affects their structure or function of all or any part of an organism, and the is not immediately due to the any external injury.
Sol-Heart failure (HF) affects more than 6.5 million people in the United States and has a 50% mortality rate of within five years of the diagnosis.1 The lifetime risk of that of HF at 45 years of age is 30% for white men and 32% of the for white women.2 HF is a progressive disease that is the can result in the from any structural or the functional changes of the heart, leading to the relative impairment of the ventricular filling or ejection of blood.
Imaging playing an important role in the potential diagnosis of HF, with echocardiogram hy being the gold standard. Transthoracic echocardiography is there method of choice for the assessment of myocardial of systolic and diastolic function of both the left and right ventricles.4 Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the goals of treatment are to improve clinical status, functional capacity, and quality of life; to prevent to the hospital admission; and to reduce morality.
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an informatics nurse specialist is gathering data from electronic health records at the facility about clients who have had central venous catheters inserted for more than the recommended time as specified by the facility's protocol. the nurse specialist is collecting this data most likely for which purpose?
An informatics nurse specialist is gathering data from electronic health records at the facility about clients who have had central venous catheters inserted for more than the recommended time and she is collecting this data most likely to identify clients at risk for infection.
An informatics nurse specialist "is the specialty that integrates nursing science with multiple info and analytical sciences to spot, define, manage and communicate knowledge, info, data and knowledge in nursing follow."
A central venous catheters, conjointly called a central line, may be a tube that doctors place in an exceedingly massive vein within the neck, chest, groin, or arm to offer fluids, blood, or medications or to try to to medical tests quickly.
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the nurse is performing an assessment on a client suspected of having herpes zoster. the nurse would expect to note which types of lesions on inspection of the client's skin?
Any region of your skin that differs abnormally from the surrounding skin is called a skin lesion. Skin lesions are common and frequently the result of harm to your skin, but some of them have the potential to develop into cancer.
What types of lesions on inspection of the client's skin?A wavy or gyrating peripheral border is present in serpiginous lesions. An annular lesion is round or serpiginous (i.e., has an arciform wavy border), and it has a peripheral border that is either higher than the center or a different color from the center.
Therefore, The patients who are most at risk for altered skin integrity include those who are obese, paraplegic, have spinal cord injuries, are bedridden and confined to wheelchairs, and have edema.
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the dietary change that is most significantly related to longevity in non-human animal studies is .
The dietary change that is most significantly related to longevity in non-human animal studies is Calorie Restriction.
A dietary plan known as calorie restriction (also known as caloric restriction or energy restriction) lowers the amount of energy that is consumed from caloric foods and beverages without causing malnutrition. "Reduce" can be compared to the subject's prior intake before consciously restricting their food or beverage intake, or it can be compared to the average individual with a comparable body type.
Usually, calorie restriction is used on purpose to lose weight. It is suggested as a potential regimen for body weight management by scientific bodies and US dietary standards.
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the mother with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) infection brings her 10-month-old infant to the clinic for a routine checkup. the primary health care provider has documented that the infant is asymptomatic for hiv infection. after the checkup, the mother tells the nurse that she is so pleased that the infant will not get hiv infection. the nurse should make which most appropriate response to the mother?
The nurse should make which most appropriate response to the mother is Cough .
What is human immunodeficiency virus?
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) preys on the immune system, weakening people's resistance to a variety of infections and some cancer types that healthy immune systems are better able to combat
Depending on the individual, acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), the most advanced stage of HIV infection, might take many years to manifest. The emergence of certain tumours, infections, or other serious long-term clinical symptoms is what defines AIDS.
There are many bodily fluids from HIV-infected people that might transfer the disease, including blood, breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions. HIV infection in the mother may be transmitted to her unborn child during pregnancy and birth. Sharing personal things, food, or water or engaging in routine daily activities like kissing, hugging, shaking hands, or shaking hands do not infect a person.
It is important to keep in mind that HIV-positive people who are taking antiretroviral therapy (ART) and having their viral load reduced do not transmit the virus to their sexual partners. Therefore, encouraging patients to maintain their treatment and gaining early access to ART are crucial for both improving the health of those living with HIV and halting the transmission of the virus.
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an informatics nurse is assisting with the design of an clinical information system for use by the staff of a health center. the nurse is working to ensure that the system reflects usability by making sure that the screen display is visually clean and uncluttered and that it provides only the information needed for decision making. which concept of usability is the nurse incorporating?
The nurse incorporates the concept of Simplicity.
Clinical information system is a computerized system that compiles, maintains, and verifies all of your medical data. Your medical evidence , medical history, medications, doctor's notes, dictation, and other data are all stored electronically in one place.
Individual care providers and care teams must have access to at least three major types of clinical information system—the patient's health record, the rapidly evolving body of medical evidence, and the provider orders directing the delivery of patient care—to diagnose and treat specific patients effectively.
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the nurse is taking a health history on a new patient. the patient reports experiencing pain in the left lower leg and foot when walking, but claims that the pain is relieved with rest. the nurse notes that the patient's left lower leg is slightly edematous and hairless. what should the nurse suspect that the patient may be experiencing?
The nurse notes that the patient's left lower leg is slightly edematous and hairless with pain therefore he/she should suspect that the patient may be experiencing Intermittent claudication and is denoted as option B.
Who is a Nurse?This is referred to as a healthcare professional who takes care of the sick and ensures that adequate recovery is achieved so as to reduce the risk of complications.
Intermittent claudication is the type of muscle pain that happens when you're active and stops when you rest and in this scenario we were told that there is pain in the left lower leg and foot when walking and the pain is relieved with rest which is why it was chosen.
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The options are:
A) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
B) Intermittent claudication
C) Arterial embolus
D) Raynauds disease
a nurse is assessing a 10-year-old child who is displaying behaviors that are consistent with oppositional defiance disorder. when conducting the assessment, the nurse should also assess for which co-morbidity?
Co-morbidity of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder should also be evaluated by the nurse.
ODD is the most typical comorbid condition for ADHD. Three subtypes of ADHD are included in the DSM-IV: mixed type (ADHD-IA), mainly hyperactive-impulsive type (ADHD-HI), and predominantly inattentive type (ADHD-IA) (ADHD-C).
Oppositional defiant disorders, enuresis, and language problem, and anxiety & tics in the middle of the school years are the most frequent comorbid diagnoses of ADHD in early childhood. Mood problems and drug use disorders are common throughout adolescents.
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a client is admitted with a diagnosis of urolithiasis. which finding is most important for the nurse to reportto the healthcare provider
The presence of cloudy or smelly urine is one of the most important findings for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is Urolithiasis?
Urolithiasis or Kidney stones or renal calculi are the hard deposits which are made of minerals and salts that form the inside of kidneys. The most common causes for kidney stones among others are diet, excess body weight, some medical conditions, and certain supplements and medications.
Urolithiasis can be diagnosed by the presence of some important symptoms which includes pain, trouble urinating, cloudy or smelly urine, nausea, and vomiting. The patient can be treated by encouraging the increased fluid intake and ambulation. Begin IV fluids if patient cannot take adequate oral fluids. Encourage ambulation to move the stone through the urinary tract.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of urolithiasis. which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider:
A. Patient reports flank pain that radiates downward
B. Patient has hematuria
C. Patient is allergic to shellfish
D. Patient has cloudy urine
the nurse is caring for a client who has a unit of whole blood removed every 6 weeks as treatment for polycythemia vera. which laboratory test will the nurse monitor to determine if the procedure is adversely affecting the client?
Therapeutic phlebotomy is the laboratory test, that will the nurse monitor to determine if the procedure is adversely affecting the client.
What is therapeutic phlebotomy procedure?Phlebotomy used for therapeutic purposes involves drawing blood to address a medical condition, such as having too much iron in the body. More blood is taken during a therapeutic blood draw than during a standard blood sample. The amount of blood that will be extracted depends on why you are having the operation, which is decided by your doctor.It's beneficial to have more liquids than normal before your therapeutic phlebotomy operation, if you can. For one day before to your surgery, try to consume 8 to 10 (8-ounce) glasses of liquids.A nurse will take a specific amount of blood during your therapeutic phlebotomy procedure using a needle attached to a blood collection bag. Once the appropriate amount of blood has been drawn, the nurse will withdraw the needle and cover the needle site with a pressure bandage (a bandage that wraps around your arm).Learn more about Therapeutic phlebotomy procedure refer :
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a general rehydration recommendation after exercise is 2.5 cups of fluid for every 1 pound of body weight lost. using this guideline, how much fluid would vanessa need to consume to make up for the weight that was lost during her run?
Approximately 10 cups of fluid would vanessa need to consume to make up for the weight that was lost during her run.
What does rehydration mean?Calculation: 2 cups x lbs of body weight lost = cups of water neededApproximately 10 cups of fluid would vanessa need to consume to make up for the weight that was lost during her run.To replenish fluid: To replenish fluid to (something depleted), particularly: To replenish bodily fluids lost due to dehydration. help a patient rehydrate.
Treatment for dehydration involves oral rehydration solutions (ORSs), which include Pedialyte. The ideal proportion of salt, sugar, potassium, and other minerals is present in ORSs, which aid in replenishing lost fluids.
Here are the five greatest ways to rehydrate rapidly if you're concerned about your or someone else's level of hydration.
Water, coffee, tea, low-fat and skim milk, and so on.Fruits and vegetables, number four.solutions for oral hydrationTo learn more about rehydrate refer to:
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when facilitating change in the behavior of a client diagnosed with a personality disorder, the nurse knows which intervention will have the greatest impact on success? question 12 options: a) conducting regular assessments so the treatment can be changed when necessary b) educating the client to the importance of complying with treatment interventions c) evaluating the client's understanding of the etiology of the prescribed medications d) collaborating with the client when establishing treatment goals
The correct answer is Option D.
Option D. collaborating with the client when establishing treatment goals.
What is personality disorder?
A collection of mental health illnesses known as personality disorders are distinguished by rigid and unusual thought, feeling, and behavior patterns. These inner feelings and actions frequently diverge from what is expected of one in their culture.
If you have a personality disorder, you could find it challenging to interact with people and solve problems in the manners required by your cultural group. There may be a disconnect between your attitudes and actions and what society considers acceptable.
You might see things very differently from how other people do. As a result, it could be challenging for you to engage in family, social, and educational activities.
In relationships, social interactions, and environments such as work or school, these habits and attitudes frequently lead to issues and restrictions. Additionally, they could make you feel lonely, which can worsen sadness and anxiety.
However, personality abnormalities are treatable. Talk therapy and medicines are frequently quite effective at helping you manage one of these disorders.
The management of personality problems may benefit from talk therapy or psychotherapy. You and your therapist can talk about your condition as well as your feelings and thoughts during psychotherapy. This may help you understand how to control the symptoms and behaviors that are interfering with your daily life.
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a nurse is testing stool for occult blood. the client wants to know how long it will take to know the results. the nurse tells the client that after applying the developer to the sample, the result will be read in how many minutes?
A lab test called the fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is used to examine stool samples for undetectable blood (occult blood).
What is fecal occult blood test?A lab test called the fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is used to examine stool samples for undetectable blood (occult blood).Though not all tumors or polyps bleed, occult blood in the stool may be an indication of colon cancer or polyps in the colon or rectum.Typically, occult blood is passed in such minute amounts that a fecal occult blood test is the only way to detect it.A fecal occult blood test may reveal blood, in which case other tests may be required to identify the cause of the bleeding. The fecal occult blood test cannot determine what is causing the bleeding; it can only detect the presence or absence of blood.It's not advised to get a fecal occult blood test if you have colon cancer symptoms. Make an appointment with your doctor if you experience abdominal pain, notice blood in your stools or in the toilet, or if your bowel habits change.To Learn more About Fecal Occult Blood Refer To:
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true or false? nursing home care and home health care accounted for more than half of national health expenditures in 2013.
False, More than half of health care spending in 2013 were spent on nursing home and home health care.
What is nursing home care?
A nursing home care is a place where elderly or disabled people can receive residential care. The terms skilled nursing facility (SNF), long-term care centers, old people's homes, assisted living facilities, care homes, rest homes, convalescent homes, or convalescent care may also be used to refer to nursing homes. These terms frequently denote the institutions' public or private status as well as their focus on assisted living, nursing care, or both emergency medical care and assisted living. People who do not require hospitalisation but require care that cannot be provided at home go to nursing homes. Depending on their rank, nursing home care nurses may also be responsible for overseeing other employees in addition to attending to the medical needs of the patients.
Hence, the answer is false.
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A nurse is caring for a 10-year-old child who has acute glomerulonephritis (AGN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Serum BUN 8 mg/dL
B. Serum creatinine 1.3 mg/dL
C. Blood pressure 100/74 mm Hg
D. Urine output 550 mL over 24 hr
(B.) Serum creatinine 1.3 mg/dL is the correct option of the given findings that the nurse should report to the provider.
Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is a kidney disorder that results from inflammation of the glomeruli. The glomeruli are the tiny filters in the kidney that remove waste products from the blood. AGN can cause these filters to become damaged, which can lead to kidney failure.
Serum creatinine is a measure of kidney function. A high serum creatinine level indicates that the kidneys are not functioning properly. This is a serious finding in a child with AGN and should be reported to the child's provider immediately.
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the nurse is conducting a sexual history with a widowed woman who speaks very little english. the nurse recognizes an interpreter is necessary, but a professional interpreter is not available. which person would be best to serve as an interpreter/translator?
Anyone with a formal knowledge of the woman's ethnic language shall help as a translator.
What is a Sexual history?A thorough health examination must include a sexual health assessment. When a patient first comes in for care, during regular checkups, and when they exhibit symptoms or indicators of a sexually transmitted disease, a sexual history must be obtained (STD). A sexual history clarifies pregnancy plans, identifies patients at risk for HIV and other STDs, and reveals other sexual health-related difficulties, providing doctors with the knowledge they need to manage these problems and conditions.
The discourse that occurs promotes healthy behaviour coaching and aids in the development of trust. Assessing risk behaviours and determining reasons for using PrEP require knowledge about one's sexual history. A sexual history should ideally also offer direction and address issues with sexual fulfilment and pleasure.
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a hospital has been notified that possible bioterrorist activity has taken place at a large sporting event nearby. a nurse has been put in charge of preparing a holding area to meet the needs of victims who report headache, dizziness, anxiety and shortness of breath, and are noted to have a bitter almond odor to their breath. what medication should the nurse be prepared to administer?
Nurse should prepare amyl nitrate to administration.
Anxiety is an emotion characterised by emotions of hysteria, worried thoughts, and bodily adjustments like multiplied blood pressure. People with anxiety problems generally have routine intrusive mind or issues.
Generalised tension sickness (GAD),your demanding is uncontrollable and reasons distress. Your demanding impacts your every day existence, such as college, your activity and your social existence. You can not let pass of your concerns.
Some anxiety signs and symptoms include :
* Feeling nervous, restless or stressful.
* Having a sense of forthcoming danger, panic or doom.
* Having an improved coronary heart rate.
* Breathing rapidly (hyperventilation)
* Sweating.
* Trembling.
* Feeling susceptible or worn-out.
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