the nurse determines that when the hematocrit value is is 30% (0.30) it is most likely to be associated with Iron deficiency anemia.
The volume percentage of red blood cells in blood, also known as the hematocrit level, is measured as part of a blood test. The number and size of red blood cells determine the measurement. Males typically have 40.7-50.3% and females have 36.1-44.3%.
A low hematocrit level is caused by blood loss as a result of an injury or illness. The number of red blood cells is affected by blood loss. Lower hematocrit levels are associated with fewer red blood cells. Because leukemia cells in your bone marrow are displacing healthy red blood cells, you have fewer red blood cells than usual.
Iron deficiency is a common cause of the body having too few healthy red blood cells (anemia). Iron deficiency in a pregnant woman puts the baby at risk of developmental delays.
The most common symptom is fatigue. Treatment consists of iron supplements as well as a focus on any underlying causes.
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a nurse has been providing in-home hospice care to an older adult client with lung cancer for more than six months. the family asks the nurse how long the medicare hospice services will continue. what is the nurse's best response?
Her best response will be that the Medicare hospice services can continue as long as the physician & hospice director agree about the client's terminal condition.
Hospice care includes palliative care to alleviate symptoms and provides social, emotional, and religious support. For patients receiving in-home hospice care, the hospice nurses build regular visits and are invariably out there by phone twenty four hours daily, seven days per week
Lung cancer is treated in many ways in which, looking on the sort of carcinoma and the way so much it's unfold. individuals with non-small cell carcinoma will be treated with surgery, therapy, actinotherapy, targeted medical care, or a mix of those treatments.
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which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to assess in an infant diagnosed with ventricular septal defect (vsd)?
Small ventricular septal defects are rarely problematic. A nurse usually discovers these holes during a routine physical exam by noticing an extra heart sound called a murmur.
What is an infant ventricular septal defect?
A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a heart birth defect in which there is a hole in the wall (septum) that separates the two lower chambers (ventricles) of the heart. The ventricular septum is yet another name for this wall.
Large and medium-sized VSDs can cause noticeable symptoms. When infants attempt to feed, their breathing may become faster and they may become tired. They may begin to sweat or cry while feeding, and they may gain weight gradually.
Therefore, These symptoms suggest that the VSD will not close on its own and that the infant may require heart surgery.
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a healthcare service company delivering in-home treatment to the elderly receives referrals from a medicare authorized provider for a fee. this activity becomes an illegal kickback scheme when:
When a provider recommends unnecessary treatments and is reimbursed by Medicare for doing so.
What qualifies as Medicare?Medicare is a form of medical insurance for those 65 and older. Three months before turning 65, you can first sign up for Medicare. If you have a disability, end-stage renal disease (ESRD), or ALS (also known as Lou Gehrig's disease), you might be qualified for Medicare sooner.You may choose how you want to sign up for Medicare. You can purchase a Medicare Supplement Insurance (Medigap) policy from a private insurance provider if you decide to have Original Medicare (Part A and Part B) coverage.If they have worked and paid Medicare taxes for a sufficient amount of time, the majority of people 65 and older are eligible for free Medicare hospital insurance (Part A). You can enroll in Medicare Part B medical insurance by making a monthly premium payment. Some beneficiaries who earn more will pay a higher Part B premium each month.Learn more about Medicare refer :
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which manifestation would alert the nurse to suspect that a postpartum client has septic pelvic thrombophlebitis (spt)?
constant fever and abdominal pain of the client would alert the nurse to suspect that the client has septic pelvic thrombophlebitis(spt).
Thrombophlebitis is a rare postpartum complication which consist of a postpartum fever. this fever not responsive to any antibiotics. This shows the sign of pelvic infection leads to infection of the vein wall severe damage leading to thrombogenesis in the ovarian vein. It is a cause post operative fever. In some cases SPT may arise after 48 hours of postpartum delivery.it may feel constant abdominal pain varying intensity. that has no physical signs and symptoms.it signs constant fever, pain of uterus, midline lower abdominal pain, shortness of breathe.
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after recovering from a gunshot wound to the right shoulder area, a patient had continued difficulty abducting his arm. it was determined that a nerve of the brachial plexus was damaged. which nerve was most likely damaged and which muscle was most likely affected?
Axillary nerve and deltoid muscle was most likely damaged and affected
The axillary nerve has each a motor and a sensory distribution of innervation.
It has motor fibres that innervate the deltoid muscle, acting as an abductor, flexor and extensor on the shoulder joint, in addition to the teres minor muscle, allowing lateral rotation of the glenohumeral joint.
As stated above, it has sensory innervation to the skin of the arm superficial to decrease part of the the deltoid muscle and superficial the upper a part of the long head of the triceps, because the superior/upper lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm.
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which food item from the pacific food guide should an elderly person consume for an excellent (>20% of dv) source of fiber?
Bread fruit is the food item from the specific food guide should an elderly person consume for an excellent (>20% of adv) source of fiber.
What is food guide?
food guide are graphic representation of all or some of the message of the dietary guidelines.
Sol-Beginning at age 51, requirements change once again and relate to the nutritional issues and health challenges that older people face. For example, immune function declines, short-term memory issues might arise, and slight reductions in height may occur. Other changes include a decline in hormone production (e.g., testosterone, estrogen, growth hormone), muscle mass, and strength. In addition, the heart has to work harder because each pump is not as efficient as it used to be; kidneys are not as effective in excreting metabolic products such as sodium, acid, and potassium, which can alter water balance and increase the risk.Being either underweight or overweight is also a major concern for older adults. However, older adults can remain in relatively good health and continue to be active. Good nutrition is often the key to maintaining health later in life. In addition, the fitness and nutritional choices made earlier in life set the stage for continued health. Older adults should continue to consume nutrient-dense foods and remain physically active. However, deficiencies are more common after age sixty, primarily due to reduced intake or malabsorption. The loss of mobility among frail, homebound elderly adults also impacts their access to healthy, diverse foods.
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after completing an intermittent catheterization, what information concerning the procedure will the nurse include in ms. johnson's medical record? (select all that apply.) time procedure was performed description of the cleansing process preceding the procedure size of catheter used characteristics of the urine obtained description of the patient's tolerance of the procedure
After completing an intermittent catheterization, concerning the procedure, nurse would include time procedure was performed, size of catheter used, characteristics of the urine obtained, and description of the patient's tolerance of the procedure in medical record.
People with bladder management problems might have to perform self-catheterization to empty the bladder. Conjointly referred to as intermittent catheterization, the method involves employing a tubing, or tube, to empty pee at regular intervals throughout the day. individuals with sure medical conditions might have self-catheterization.
While self-catheterization might not be snug, it should not cause physical pain. If you've got pain once inserting an intermittent tubing, you'll be mistreatment the incorrect size or form for your duct. Your tending team will show you the way to properly self-catheterize and realize the correct acceptable you.
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which outcome would be appropriate to determine an early favorable response to antidepressant medication?
The client will set up a stability of rest, sleep, and pastime final results might be suitable to decide an early favorable reaction to antidepressant medication. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the maximum typically prescribed antidepressants.
They can ease signs of mild to intense despair, are distinctly secure and usually purpose fewer aspect outcomes than different forms of antidepressants do. Depression is a intellectual fitness difficulty that begins offevolved most customarily in early adulthood. It’s additionally greater not unusualplace in women. However, anybody at any age may also cope with despair.
Depression influences your mind, so pills that paintings for your mind may also show beneficial. Common antidepressants may also assist ease your signs, however there are numerous different alternatives as well. Each drug used to deal with despair works with the aid of using balancing positive chemical substances for your mind referred to as neurotransmitters. These pills paintings in barely one-of-a-kind methods to ease your despair signs.
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the nurse is reviewing a primary health care provider's prescriptions for a child with sickle cell anemia who was admitted to the hospital for the treatment of vaso-occlusive crisis. which prescriptions documented in the child's record should the nurse question? select all that apply
The prescriptions documented in the child's record should the nurse question during the treatment of Vaso-occlusive crisis is restrict fluid intake.
Vaso-occlusive crisis is the most common complication of sickle cell anemia. sickle cell anemia, is an inherited disorder where body produces cells that are shaped like crescents or sickles. These do not last long and lower the number of RBCs.
Pain is mild and short but often requires hospitalization.
Treatment of Vaso- occlusive treatment include use of potent analgesic (opioids), rehydration with normal saline, using artemisinin combination therapy and etc.
For this treatment, drinking a lot of fluids help unlike the prescription shows restricting the intake.
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After reviewing the major types of anemia, students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify what as an example of a hemolytic anemia?
Pernicious anemia
Sickle cell anemia
Iron deficiency anemia
Folic acid deficiency anemia
Using the theories of anemia, we got that Sickle cell anemia as an example of hemolytic anemia after reviewing the major types of anemia.
Anemia or anaemia (British English) is the blood disorder in which the blood has a reduced ability to carry oxygen due to the lower than normal number of red blood cells, or the reduction in the amount of hemoglobin. When anemia comes on the slowly, the symptoms are often vague, such as tiredness, weakness, the shortness of breath, headaches, and a reduced ability to exercise. When anemia is acute, symptoms may include the confusion, feeling like one is going to pass out, loss of consciousness, and the increased thirst. Anemia must be significant before the person becomes noticeably pale. Additional symptoms may occur depending on underlying cause. Preoperative anemia can increase the risk of needing the blood transfusion following surgery.
Hence, After reviewing the major types of anemia, students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify an example of a hemolytic anemia is Sickle cell anemia.
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a 17-year-old client with a long-standing diagnosis of bulimia nervosa has been admitted to the emergency department after collapsing in a mall. the care team that admits the client to the hospital should prioritize which assessment?
The hospital should prioritize assess the Cardiac assessment and measurement of electrolyte levels.
What is Bulimia nervosa ?Bulimia nervosa, often known as bulimia, is a severe eating condition that may be life-threatening.Bulimics may covertly binge and purge, seeking to burn off the additional calories in an undesirable way. Binging is defined as consuming excessive amounts of food without self-control.Bulimics may employ a variety of techniques to burn calories and avoid gaining weight.For instance, following bingeing, you might frequently self-induce vomiting or abuse laxatives, diet pills, diuretics, or enemas.You can also employ other strategies to burn calories and avoid gaining weight, like fasting, tight dieting, or overexerting yourself.To learn more about Bulimia nervosa refer
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a client admitted with severe epigastric abdominal pain radiating to the back is vomiting and reports difficulty breathing. upon assessment, the nurse determines that the client is experiencing tachycardia and hypotension. which actions are priority interventions for this client? select all that apply.
The nurse need to administer electrolytes, plasma, pain reliving medications and assist client to a semi fowler position.
The nurse report decrease in BP and low urine output this indicate renal failure. The treatment for the pancreas must focus on reliving the pain and maintain circulation with decrease in production of pancreatic enzyme.
Due to loss of fluid, intravenous fluid and electrolytes replacement is necessary. Due to hypotension, plasma also should be administered.
With fluids, blood and blood products are also accompanied to maintain blood volume and treat hypovolemic shocks.
The nurse also make sure that client is in semi fowler position which is done to decrease pressure on diaphragm .
With all this a low-fat diet with small frequent meals should also be taken into account.
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easynotecards viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than bacterial infections. true false
It is false that viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than a bacterial infections.
Numerous bacterial infections have been successfully treated with penicillin and other antibiotics. However, antibiotics cannot combat viruses but antivirals do. Researchers and pharmaceutical companies have struggled to find an antiviral that can treat COVID-19-causing SARS-CoV-2 since the coronavirus pandemic began.
Viruses are inert that is, they are living only if they are inside a host. Our own cells are used by viruses to reproduce. Because of this, it's hard to kill viruses without also killing our own cells. A protein coating of protection surrounds viruses; They do not have a cell wall that can be attacked by antibiotics.
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what is the earliest point in pregnancy in which a fetus is likely to be able to survive outside of the uterus?
Fetal viability is the earliest stage of pregnancy at which a foetus is believed to be able to survive outside of the uterus.
Typically, a pregnancy must be between 23- and 24-weeks gestational age to be deemed medically viable. Birth weight, gestational age, and access to high-quality medical care are just a few examples of the variables that affect viability. Due to a lack of access to healthcare, half of new-borns born at or below 32 weeks of gestational age in low-income countries died; in high-income countries, the vast majority of new-borns born at or above 24 weeks of gestation survive. The gestational age at which a prematurely born foetus or infant has a 50% chance of long-term survival outside its mother's womb is known as the limit of viability. Since the 1960s, the limit of viability has decreased in the industrialised world thanks to neonatal critical care facilities. Regarding the resuscitation of extremely premature babies, various jurisdictions have distinct regulations that may be based on several aspects like gestational age, weight, and medical presentation of the baby, as well as the preferences of parents and medical professionals. The high probability of death despite medical interventions, severe handicap in very preterm infants, and ineffective medical treatment have sparked ethical discussions on the value of life and how different religious beliefs interpret the sanctity of human life.
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what important points should the nurse keep in mind when caring for an older adult to promote health?
To promote a healthy lifestyle, the nurse should urge the client to engage in regular physical activity and to adopt stress-reduction techniques.
What are stress-reduction techniques?Stress relievers can help restore calm and serenity to your chaotic life.Exercise While it won't make your stress go away, exercise can help you feel less emotionally charged, which can help you think more clearly and approach situations more calmly.Aim to remain optimistic.Find the good things and things to be thankful for in life.A strong network of friends, family, and coworkers can help you get through difficult times at work and open your eyes to new perspectives.Don't rely on caffeine, alcohol, or smoking as coping mechanisms.Prioritizing your work and focusing on the things that will truly make a difference is a key component of working smarter.In order to promote health, the nurse should take into account the client's social surroundings and enhance social support. The nurse should evaluate the client for fear of falling because it is a substantial concern for older persons, and offer support by changing the surroundings. In the presence of disease, the nurse should concentrate on maintaining the highest level of health rather than on preventing it. To enhance health, the nurse should motivate senior citizens to carry out everyday tasks on their own.To learn more about stress-reduction techniques, refer to
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a graduate nurse enters a client's room and finds the client unresponsive, not breathing, and without a carotid pulse. the graduate nurse is aware that the client has mentioned that he does not wish to be resuscitated, but there is no dnr order on the client's chart. what is the nurse's best action?
The nurse's best action would be to Call a code and begin resuscitating the client.
What is resuscitation of a patient?The resuscitation of a patient is a procedure that is being carried out by a trained nurse by the use of chest compressions and artificial ventilation to maintain circulatory flow through the heart to the vital organs of the body such as the brain.
The patient or client that may need resuscitation is when the following is observed:
client unresponsive, not breathing, andwithout a carotid pulse.Depending of the health condition and individual decisions, some clients so not wish to be resuscitated when they become unresponsive. They are advised to sign a do-not-resuscitate order (DNR order).
But since the graduate nurses couldn't find the DNR order in the patient chart, they should Call a code and begin resuscitating the client.
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which factors are associated with the development of complications in infants of mothers with diabetes?
Perinatal asphyxia, traumas birth and metabolic problems are the factors which might be related to the development of headaches/infants in toddlers of mothers with diabetes.
Infants of diabetic moms are vulnerable to neurologic impairments, specifically because of perinatal asphyxia, beginning traumas and metabolic problems. Perinatal asphyxia: Increased danger of perinatal asphyxia has been stated in diabetic pregnancies in some of studies.In the epidemiologic context of maternal weight problems and kind 2 diabetes (T2D), the prevalence of gestational diabetes has extensively improved withinside the closing decades.
Respiratory distress, cardiac problems and neurologic impairment because of perinatal asphyxia and beginning traumas, amongst others. Macrosomia is the maximum steady effect of diabetes and its severity is specifically motivated through maternal blood glucose level. Neonatal hypoglycemia is the primary metabolic disease that need to be averted as quickly as feasible after beginning. The severity of macrosomia and the maternal fitness circumstance have a sturdy effect at the frequency and the severity of damaging neonatal outcomes.
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the nurse cares for a client with superficial partial-thickness burn injuries to the lower extremities. the client is ordered iv morphine for pain. the nurse understands narcotics are given via iv during the initial management of pain because
When a nurse is caring for a patient who has suffered superficial partial-thickness burns to the lower extremities. IV morphine is prescribed for the client's pain. Because tissue edema may interfere with drug absorption via other routes, the nurse understands that narcotics are administered intravenously during the initial management of pain.
Because of the altered tissue perfusion caused by the burn injury, IV administration is required. Morphine injections are administered to treat moderate to severe pain. Morphine belongs to the class of medications known as opiate (narcotic) analgesics. It works by altering how the brain and nervous system react to pain.
Edema occurs when tiny blood vessels (capillaries) in your body leak fluid. The fluid accumulates in the surrounding tissues, causing swelling. Mild cases of edema can be caused by: Sitting or remaining in one position for an extended period of time. Excessive consumption of salty foods.
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a nurse is reevaluating a client receiving iv fibrinolytic therapy. which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A nurse is reevaluating a client receiving IV fibrinolytic therapy and the finding of an altered level of consciousness requires immediate intervention by the nurse.
Fibrinolytic therapy is most frequently wont to treat heart failure (blocked arteries of your heart) and stroke (blocked arteries of your brain). however it may also treat: embolism (blocked arteries of your lung).
An altered level of consciousness (ALOC) is a state of reduced alertness or inability to arouse because of low awareness of the setting. Coma is outlined as a whole lack of recognition with no response to the environment however intact eye-opening and no eye movement
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a client diagnosed with delusional disorder who uses excessive health care resources most likely has which type of delusions?
Somatic delusions are likely present in patients with a diagnosis of delusional disease who use an excessive amount of medical services.
Somatic delusional patients think they are physically ill. Somatic delusional patients consume an excessive number of medical resources. There are many subtypes for somatic delusions. Erotomanic delusions are defined by the delusion that the "loved object," who is typically married, has a higher socioeconomic level, or is otherwise unreachable, has a deep love for the client. Grandiose delusional clients believe they have great, underappreciated skill or have discovered something significant; a less frequent presentation is the delusion of a special relationship with a famous person or actually being a famous person.
One of the main causes of somatic delusions, somatic symptom disorder is one of the six delusional diseases recognised by medical professionals. Somatic delusions, however, can also show during psychotic episodes, which can occur in connection with a variety of mental diseases. Somatic delusions cause people to be completely convinced that there is something physically, biologically, or medically wrong with them. Because of this conviction, they may experience a variety of "symptoms" that serve to confirm their worst suspicions.
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Which of the following are nutritional ergogenic aids used by athletes to improve performance?
Supplements
Carbohydrate loading diets
Sports drinks
All of the above
an immunofluorescence microscopy assay (ifa) was performed, and a significant antibody titer was reported. positive and negative controls performed as expected. however, the clinical evaluation of the patient was not consistent with a positive finding. what is the most likely explanation of this situation?
An immunofluorescence microscopy assay (ifa) was performed and the clinical evaluation of the patient was not consistent with a positive finding. This means that the pattern of fluorescence was misinterpreted.
What is immunofluorescence microscopy assay?
Incubation with an antihuman antibody that has been fluorescently labeled allows for the visualization of bound antibodies, which are used in the immunofluorescence assay (IFA), a common virologic technique for detecting the presence of antibodies based on their unique ability to react with viral antigens expressed in infected cells. Additional specificity to the interpretation is added by requiring antibodies to show reactivity with recognizable staining patterns. In laboratories with extensive experience with the assay, indirect immunological fluorescence is still used extensively as a confirmation assay in HIV diagnosis.
There must be some unexpected pattern of fluorescence that was seen in the immunofluorescence microscopy assay. There could be several antibodies present if there is an unexpected pattern. If the antibodies are identified at different titers, diluting the sample may help to clearly demonstrate the specificities of the antibodies.
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the nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of an assigned client and notes that the laboratory report indicates a ph of 7.30, paco2 of 58 mm hg, pao2 of 80 mm hg, and hco3 of 27 meq/l (27 mmol/l). the nurse interprets that the client has which acid-base disturbance?
The nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of an assigned client and notes that the laboratory report indicates a ph of 7.30, paco2 of 58 mm hg, pao2 of 80 mm hg, and hco3 of 27 meq/l (27 mmol/l).
The nurse interprets that the client has an acid-base disturbance called: "Respiratory acidosis"
What is Respiratory acidosis?Respiratory acidosis occurs when the lungs are unable to eliminate all of the carbon dioxide produced by the body. This causes bodily fluids, particularly blood, to become too acidic.
Respiratory acidosis is usually caused by a lack of ventilation and a buildup of carbon dioxide. The principal disturbance is an increase in arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) and a reduction in the ratio of arterial bicarbonate to arterial pCO2, resulting in a drop in blood pH.
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a client with an elevated blood pressure asks the nurse why he is not taking his blood pressure medication from home while he is hospitalized. the nurse reviews the orders and discovers that indeed the client is not taking his usual blood pressure medication. which preventive measure was most likely omitted on admission?
When a client is admitted to the hospital, the nurse should always perform a medication reconciliation. This means that the nurse compares the medications that the client is currently taking at home with the medications that are ordered for the client while they are in the hospital.
If the nurse had performed a medication reconciliation on this client, they would have discovered that the client was not taking their usual blood pressure medication at home and would have been able to provide this information to the physician. This would have resulted in the physician ordering the medication for the client while they are in the hospital.
The most likely explanation for why the client is not taking their usual blood pressure medication while hospitalized is that the medication was not prescribed on admission. This could be due to a variety of reasons, such as the client forgetting to bring their medication with them, the hospital not having the medication in stock, or the prescribing physician not being aware of the client's usual medication.
Regardless of the reason, it is important that the nurse take measures to prevent the client's blood pressure from rising to dangerous levels. This may include starting the client on a new blood pressure medication, monitoring the client's blood pressure closely, and/or providing education on lifestyle changes that can help to lower blood pressure.
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how is cause and effect reasoning used in the healthcare field? who uses it, why, how, and to what end? in which other fields and/or situations have you seen cause and effect in action? g
Clinical Reasoning, Decisionmaking, and Action .
The use of clinical judgment and reasoning by clinical nurses in delivering high-quality patient care while preventing negative outcomes and patient harm is investigated in connection to different ways of thinking. The clinician's capacity to reason, think, and judge may be constrained by their lack of experience, which may affect their ability to deliver safe, high-quality care. Nursing professionals must constantly learn new skills and assess their own performance.
Nursing critical thinking is a crucial part of professional accountability and providing high-quality care. Confidence, contextual perspective, creativity, adaptability, inquisitiveness, intellectual integrity, intuition, openmindedness, persistence, and introspection are mental habits that critical thinkers in nursing demonstrate.
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the nurse is evaluating the serum acetylsalicylic acid results for a client receiving acetylsalicylic acid for rheumatoid arthritis. which noted result is indicative that the client is within the range for the medication's antiarthritic effect?
The result of 3.26 mg/dL (1.88 mmol/L) indicates that the customer is within the range for the antiarthritic action of the drug.
Target plasma salicylate concentrations between 150 and 300 mcg/mL are linked to an anti-inflammatory response, but concentrations over 200 mcg/mL are linked to a higher risk of toxicity.
An antiarthritic is a medication that reduces or eliminates the pain and stiffness associated with arthritis. The antiarthritic drug class may be responsible for managing pain, reducing inflammation, or carrying out immunosuppressive activities.
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the nurse is working with a. child who was physically abused by a parent. which is the most important goal for this family?
Physical abuse is defined as intentional bodily harm. Slapping, pinching, choking, kicking, shoving, or inappropriate use of drugs or physical restraints are some examples.
What constitutes suspected physical abuse?
Suspected physical abuse (SPA) in infants and young children, also known as non-accidental injury (NAI) or inflicted injury, continues to pose both ethical and legal challenges to treating physicians.
Simple parental and child support may be the most effective way to prevent child abuse. Some of the many ways of keeping children safe include after-school activities, parent education classes, mentoring programs, and respite care. Be an advocate for these efforts in your community.
Therefore, Parent education to increase the use of positive discipline strategies, as well as cognitive behavioral therapy for parents to improve the parent-child relationship.
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a client who has cognitive and motor deficits secondary to the onset of huntington's disease is participating in ot. one of the client's goals is to be independent with dressing. which intervention activity is best to include as part of the initial intervention plan?
Inform the client and any other caretakers of the best ways to modify the fasteners on the client's garment. HD is a neurological disorder that worsens over time.
Choreo-athetoid motions, behavioral changes, and cognitive impairments are all symptoms. The benefits of learning methods to make up for motor deficiencies would be greatest for a client who is still in the early stages.
What is neurological disorder?
Central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by neurological illnesses. In other words, the muscles, the autonomic nervous system, the spinal cord, the cranial nerves, the peripheral nerves, and the nerve roots.
A dysfunction in the nervous system or brain is the cause of a neurologic disorder (i.e. spinal cord and nerves). There may be both physical and psychological manifestations of this disorder. A baby's brain starts to grow before birth. Infancy, childhood, and adolescence all see it continuing to develop.
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after compute analysis of a client's 24-hour recall is completed, results show the following breakdown of her intake: 2000 calories, 60 g total fat, 20 g saturated fat, and 300 mg cholesterol. the dietitian counseling this client on a therapeutic lifestyle changes diet should advide her to:
Decrease her intake of saturated fat and cholesterol.
Rationale:
Step 1: Determine % kcal from total fat:
60 g x 9 kcal/g = kcal from fat
2000
= or % total calories
Step 2: Determine % kcal from saturated fat:
20g x 9 kcal/g = kcal from sat. fat
2000
= or % total calories
Reasoning: This diet exceeds the Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes Diet requirements for saturated fat and cholesterol, although having an adequate quantity of total fat (27 percent of total calories).
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which information in the preoperative patient's medication history is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
Answer:
The patient's current medications, allergies, and any other medications the patient has taken in the past