what distinguishes shaft graves from the tholos tombs found in ancient mycenaean culture?

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Answer 1

Shaft graves and tholos tombs are both types of burial structures found in ancient Mycenaean culture, but they have distinct characteristics that set them apart.

Structure:

Shaft Graves: Shaft graves are vertical, deep graves that consist of a burial pit dug into the ground. They are typically rectangular or trapezoidal in shape and have a shaft leading down to a burial chamber. The chamber is usually built with stone slabs and contains the burial goods and the remains of the deceased.

Tholos Tombs: Tholos tombs, also known as beehive tombs, are circular, domed structures built above ground. They are constructed with corbelled masonry, where layers of stone are stacked inward until they meet at the top to form a corbelled dome. Tholos tombs have a long entrance passage known as a dromos, leading to a central chamber where the burials and grave goods are placed.

Construction Technique:

Shaft Graves: Shaft graves are typically built by digging a vertical shaft into the ground, often lined with stone slabs or wooden supports. The burial chamber is then constructed at the bottom of the shaft.

Tholos Tombs: Tholos tombs are built using a corbelled masonry technique. The stones are progressively laid inward, each layer projecting further than the previous one, until they meet at the top to form a dome.

Size and Complexity:

Shaft Graves: Shaft graves are generally smaller and simpler in design compared to tholos tombs. They usually contain a single burial and a limited number of grave goods.

Tholos Tombs: Tholos tombs tend to be larger and more elaborate structures. They often accommodate multiple burials and a greater variety of grave goods.

Chronology:

Shaft Graves: Shaft graves are typically associated with the earlier phases of Mycenaean culture, particularly during the Late Helladic period (circa 1600-1100 BCE).

Tholos Tombs: Tholos tombs are predominantly found in the later phases of Mycenaean culture, particularly during the Late Helladic IIIA to IIIB period (circa 1400-1200 BCE).

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one of the core concepts of the reading "a scientific view of risk" is:

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One of the core concepts of the reading "a scientific view of risk" is that risk is inherent in all activities, and it is not possible to eliminate it completely. The article highlights the need to manage risks effectively through a scientific approach that involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating potential risks. Another important concept is that risk perception is subjective and influenced by factors such as emotions, personal experience, and cultural background.

The article emphasizes the importance of communicating risks clearly and transparently to the public, so they can make informed decisions. Furthermore, the article highlights that risk assessment should be based on evidence and scientific data rather than on rumors or unfounded fears.

In summary, the article emphasizes the need for a rational and objective approach to risk management, taking into account both the scientific evidence and public perception.
One of the core concepts of the reading "A Scientific View of Risk" is the understanding and quantification of risks based on scientific principles. To answer this question, I will break it down into several steps:

1. Define risk: Risk refers to the potential for an unfavorable outcome or loss resulting from a specific event or action.
2. The scientific view: This perspective emphasizes the use of empirical evidence, statistical analysis, and systematic research to objectively analyze and quantify risks.
3. Quantification of risk: Scientists calculate risk by examining the probability of an event occurring and its potential impact. This helps individuals and organizations make informed decisions on how to mitigate or accept risks.
4. Risk management: Understanding the scientific view of risk is essential for effective risk management, which involves identifying, assessing, and controlling risks to minimize their potential impact.
5. Application: The scientific view of risk is applicable in various fields, such as engineering, medicine, finance, and environmental management, where accurate risk assessments are crucial for decision-making.

In conclusion, a core concept in "A Scientific View of Risk" is the use of scientific principles and methods to understand, quantify, and manage risks, thereby enabling better decision-making and risk mitigation across various domains.

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a policy that results in slow and steady growth of the money supply is an example of

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A policy that results in slow and steady growth of the money supply is an example of a monetary policy known as "gradualism."

Gradualism is an approach adopted by central banks to achieve stable economic conditions by making small and incremental adjustments to key monetary variables over time. In the context of the money supply, this policy involves a cautious and measured increase in the amount of money circulating in the economy. The aim is to avoid sudden shocks or disruptions to the economy while promoting sustainable growth and price stability.

Gradualism allows for adjustments to be made gradually, giving policymakers the opportunity to assess the impact of their actions and make informed decisions accordingly.

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a policy that results in slow and steady growth of the money supply is an example of _________

choose the answer that best completes the sentence. demographic factors, discoveries and inventions, and are three of the main ways by which social change occurs.

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Demographic factors, discoveries, and inventions are three of the main ways by which social change occurs.

Demographic factors, discoveries, and inventions play crucial roles in driving social change. Firstly, demographic factors, such as population growth, migration, and changes in age structure, significantly influence societal dynamics. For instance, an increase in the youth population may lead to a shift in cultural norms and values. Secondly, discoveries, such as scientific breakthroughs or advancements in technology, have transformative effects on societies. These discoveries can revolutionize industries, improve quality of life, and reshape social structures. Finally, inventions, such as the invention of the internet or electricity, have brought about immense societal transformations, altering the way people communicate, work, and live.

The demographic factors, discoveries, and inventions are powerful catalysts for social change. They interact and intersect, shaping the fabric of societies and propelling them towards new paradigms and possibilities. By understanding and harnessing the potential of these factors, we can better comprehend and navigate the ever-evolving landscape of social change.

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sara is either smart or strong, so she is smart. a. valid argument b. invalid argument

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Sara is either smart or strong, so she is smart. This is an invalid argument. Thus the correct option is B.

A logical argument that is invalid is one in which the conclusion does not flow logically from the premises. it is vital to recognize and identify incorrect arguments, To ensure solid reasoning and critical thinking,

The sentence "Sara is either smart or strong, so she is smart" may not always make sense as it lacks a logical conclusion. It believes that if Sara isn't powerful, she must be smart, which isn't always the case.

Therefore, option B is appropriate.

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the primary criterion for item selection in the empirical method of test construction is determining whether the item ________.

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The primary criterion for item selection in the empirical method of test construction is determining whether the item effectively discriminates between individuals of differing levels of the construct being measured.

In the empirical method of test construction, items are selected based on their ability to differentiate between individuals who possess different levels of the construct or trait being assessed.

aim is to include items that effectively discriminate between individuals who have high levels of the construct and those who have low levels.

To determine whether an item meets this criterion, statistical analyses are typically employed. Item analysis techniques, such as item-total correlation, point-biserial correlation, or factor analysis, are used to assess the relationship between individual item responses and overall test performance. Items that demonstrate high discrimination, meaning they show a strong correlation with the total test score or the construct being measured, are retained, while items that do not effectively discriminate or contribute to the measurement of the construct may be eliminated.

By focusing on item discrimination, the empirical method ensures that the selected items have the ability to effectively differentiate individuals with varying levels of the construct, thereby enhancing the test's validity and reliability.

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at which three levels should firms ideally perform global environmental analysis?

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Firms should ideally perform global environmental analysis at three levels - macro, industry, and competitive. At the macro level, firms need to analyze the environmental factors that affect the entire economy, such as political, economic, social, technological, legal, and environmental factors.

This analysis helps firms to understand the overall market conditions and predict future trends that may impact their operations. At the industry level, firms need to analyze the environmental factors that affect their industry as a whole, such as the competitive landscape, customer preferences, and industry regulations. This analysis helps firms to identify opportunities and threats within their industry and to adjust their strategies accordingly.

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Woodrow wilson’s political ideology included :__________-

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Woodrow Wilson's political ideology included progressivism, which focused on promoting social justice, economic reforms, and government intervention to address societal issues.

He also believed in a strong executive branch, championed democracy and self-determination, and supported internationalism and global cooperation. Additionally, Wilson was a staunch advocate for racial equality and civil rights, but his record on these issues has been mixed and controversial.

Woodrow Wilson's political ideology centered around progressivism, emphasizing the role of government in addressing social and economic challenges. His belief in an active government, social and economic reforms, democratic principles, and international cooperation shaped his policies and actions as the President of the United States.

Therefore, Wilson's progressive agenda sought to create a more equitable and just society through governmental intervention and reforms.

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Which of the following refers to the potential of an individual to perform an as-yet-unlearned task? A. interest.B. achievement.C. Aptitude

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C. Aptitude

Aptitude refers to the potential of an individual to perform an as-yet-unlearned task. It is a natural ability or talent that a person possesses, and it can be developed and enhanced through learning and practice.

Which statement below best describes the factors that should be considered before starting a new training program?
Present fitness level, present health, medical history, and previous fitness programs.
Increase the speed of a run, amount of weight lifted, or distance a muscle is stretched.
Increase the length of time of each training session or increase the number of repetitions.

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Factors to consider before starting a new training program include present fitness level, health, medical history, and previous fitness programs (option a).

It is important to consider various factors before starting a new training program to ensure safety and effectiveness. Some of these factors include the individual's present fitness level, health status, medical history, and previous fitness programs.

It is also important to set realistic goals and create a plan that includes gradual progression to avoid injury. Increasing the speed of a run, amount of weight lifted, or distance a muscle is stretched can be beneficial, but should be done gradually and within safe limits.

Similarly, increasing the length of time of each training session or increasing the number of repetitions should be done gradually to avoid overexertion and injury. Consulting with a certified fitness professional can also provide valuable guidance.

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in colonial america, female teachers were particularly attractive to school districts because:

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In colonial America, female teachers were attractive to school districts due to cultural expectations of women's nurturing qualities and the perception of cost-effectiveness.

They were seen as suitable for teaching young children and were often paid less than male teachers. In colonial America, female teachers were particularly attractive to school districts for several reasons:

1. Cultural norms and expectations: During colonial times, there were certain societal expectations and gender roles in place. Women were often seen as nurturing, gentle, and possessing natural caregiving qualities. These qualities were considered beneficial for teaching young children, especially in the early stages of their education.

2. Cost-effective: Female teachers were often paid less than male teachers, making them a more affordable option for school districts, especially in rural or financially constrained areas. Hiring female teachers allowed schools to save money while still providing education to the community.

3. Availability of female teachers: In some cases, there may have been a larger pool of female candidates available for teaching positions compared to male candidates. This could be due to various factors, such as societal expectations that limited career options for women during that time.

It is important to note that these reasons reflect the societal and cultural norms prevalent in colonial America, and they may not align with contemporary perspectives on gender equality and hiring practices. Today, the qualifications and suitability of a teacher are based on their skills, qualifications, and ability to effectively educate students, regardless of gender.

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erikson claimed that for most people, the longest stage of psychosocial development is

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The longest stage of psychosocial development, according to Erik Erikson, is adulthood.

During adulthood, individuals face the psychosocial challenge of generativity versus stagnation. This stage typically occurs from the ages of approximately 25 to 64. Generativity refers to the desire to contribute to society and leave a lasting impact on future generations. This can be expressed through various means, such as raising a family, pursuing a career, engaging in community service, or mentoring others. Success in this stage leads to a sense of fulfillment and a positive outlook on life. On the other hand, stagnation occurs when individuals feel unproductive, lacking a sense of purpose or contribution.

During adulthood, individuals also navigate other psychosocial challenges, such as intimacy versus isolation in early adulthood and ego integrity versus despair in late adulthood. These challenges involve forming close, meaningful relationships and reflecting on one's life experiences and accomplishments.

Overall, Erikson proposed that adulthood encompasses the longest stage of psychosocial development, characterized by the pursuit of generativity and the resolution of various psychosocial conflicts. It is a time of personal growth, self-reflection, and the opportunity to make meaningful contributions to society.

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According to functionalist analysts, one of the primary causes of gender inequality is: A. linguistic sexism.
B. the gendered division of labor in families.
C. the organization of work in the capitalist economy.
D. patriarchy.

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According to functionalist analysts, the primary cause of gender inequality is- D.  patriarchy.

What is it?

Patriarchy is a system of social organization in which men hold primary power and women are excluded from power. In patriarchal societies, men are seen as the dominant and superior sex, while women are seen as inferior and submissive.

This power imbalance is reinforced through social norms and values that prioritize men's interests and needs over those of women.

One way that patriarchy is perpetuated is through the gendered division of labor in families, where women are expected to do most of the unpaid care work and men are expected to be the breadwinners.

The organization of work in the capitalist economy also reinforces gender inequality, as women are often excluded from high-paying and prestigious jobs.

Hence, option d. is correct.

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.People who embraced the counterculture of the 1960s rejected traditional, conservative values, turning to the Beatles for inspiration and solace. Which of the following items was NOT a part of the countercultural mindset?
- a yearning for mind-altering experiences through the smoking of marijuana and ingestion of LSD
- an increase in interest in traditional religious experiences
- pressure groups agitating against the status quo
- a meltdown of community, with people existing in their own separate worlds

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The item that was NOT a part of the countercultural mindset is a meltdown of community, with people existing in their own separate worlds. Option 4 is Correct.

The other three items (a yearning for mind-altering experiences through the smoking of marijuana and ingestion of LSD, an increase in interest in traditional religious experiences, and pressure groups agitating against the status quo) were all associated with the counterculture of the 1960s. The counterculture of the 1960s was a social movement that rejected traditional values and embraced alternative lifestyles and beliefs. It was characterized by a rejection of mainstream culture and a desire for self-expression and individuality.

The yearning for mind-altering experiences through the smoking of marijuana and ingestion of LSD was a way for people to expand their consciousness and experience new perspectives. This was often associated with the search for spiritual enlightenment and a desire to break free from the constraints of the traditional world. Option 4 is Correct.

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Correct Question:

People who embraced the counterculture of the 1960s rejected traditional, conservative values, turning to the Beatles for inspiration and solace. Which of the following items was NOT a part of the countercultural mindset?

1. a yearning for mind-altering experiences through the smoking of marijuana and ingestion of LSD

2. an increase in interest in traditional religious experiences

3. pressure groups agitating against the status quo

4. a meltdown of community, with people existing in their own separate worlds

why did the buddhist faith draw many new followers when it first spread into china?

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The Buddhist faith drew many new followers when it first spread into China due to its emphasis on personal salvation and liberation from suffering.

The Buddhist teachings offered a way for individuals to overcome the suffering and challenges of life by following the Eightfold Path, which emphasized the cultivation of wisdom, morality, and mental discipline. This message resonated with many Chinese people who were seeking spiritual fulfillment and relief from the difficulties of their daily lives.

Additionally, the arrival of Buddhism in China coincided with a period of political and social turmoil, and many people found comfort and solace in the teachings of the faith. Buddhist monasteries provided a sense of stability and community for individuals, and the practices of meditation and mindfulness offered a way to cope with the challenges of the era.

Furthermore, the translation of Buddhist texts into Chinese allowed for greater accessibility and understanding of the teachings, making it easier for individuals to learn and practice the faith. As Buddhism became more integrated into Chinese culture, it also evolved to incorporate elements of Daoist and Confucian traditions, making it more relatable to the local population.

Overall, the Buddhist faith drew many new followers in China due to its message of personal salvation and liberation, its ability to provide comfort and stability during a tumultuous period, and its integration into Chinese culture.

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a complete sleep cycle from stage 1 to stage 4 and back to stage 1 again lasts about

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A complete sleep cycle from stage 1 to stage 4 and back to stage 1 again lasts about 90 to 110 minutes.

Sleep is composed of different stages that repeat throughout the night in a cyclical pattern. A complete sleep cycle typically consists of four stages: stage 1, stage 2, stage 3, and stage 4, followed by a return to stage 1. The duration of each stage can vary, but on average, a complete sleep cycle lasts approximately 90 to 110 minutes.

During stage 1, also known as the transitional stage, individuals begin to drift into sleep and experience light sleep. In stage 2, the body further relaxes, and brain waves become slower with occasional bursts of rapid brain activity. Stage 3 and stage 4 are considered deep sleep stages, also known as slow-wave sleep, characterized by slow and synchronized brain waves. These stages are crucial for restorative functions, such as physical recovery and memory consolidation.

After completing stage 4, the sleep cycle reverses, and individuals briefly enter stage 1 again before progressing into the next cycle. Understanding the sleep cycle duration helps in optimizing sleep patterns and scheduling, as it is important to aim for multiple complete cycles to achieve restorative sleep.

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which of the following is typically the first section of a job application?

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The section typically found as the first part of a job application is the personal information section. This section usually includes the applicant's name, contact information, and other personal details relevant to the job application.

Employers use this section to identify the applicant and to determine if they meet the minimum requirements for the job. It is important for applicants to provide accurate and up-to-date information in this section to increase their chances of being considered for the position.

In the Personal Information section, applicants are asked to provide their basic contact details such as name, address, phone number, and email address. This information is crucial for the employer to identify and contact the candidate throughout the hiring process.

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normal lochial findings in the first 24 hours after birth include:

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Normal lochial findings in the first 24 hours after birth can vary from woman to woman, but typically include:

Lochia Rubra: Lochia rubra is the initial type of postpartum discharge. It is bright red in color, similar to a heavy menstrual flow. This is because it consists of blood, small clots, and remnants of the uterine lining.

Heavy Flow: The amount of lochia in the first 24 hours is generally heavy. Women may experience a continuous flow of lochia during this period.

Clots: It is common to pass small blood clots during the first 24 hours. These clots are usually smaller than a golf ball and can be similar in size to a quarter or smaller.

Fleshy Odor: Lochia typically has a fleshy or mild odor, which is considered normal. However, foul-smelling or pungent odor may indicate an infection and should be reported to a healthcare provider.

Uterine Contractions: The uterus undergoes contractions known as afterpains during the first 24 hours. These contractions help the uterus shrink back to its pre-pregnancy size and can cause some cramping or discomfort.

It's important to note that these are general observations, and there can be variations in lochial findings among individuals. The amount and characteristics of lochia can change throughout the postpartum period. Lochia gradually transitions from lochia rubra to lochia serosa (pinkish-brown discharge) and then to lochia alba (yellowish-white discharge) over the course of several weeks. If there are concerns about the nature of lochial discharge or if there are any sudden changes, it is always advisable to consult a healthcare professional for evaluation and guidance.

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A drawback of ethnocentric staffing policies is that A. it is less expensive to use employees from the home country. B. there are no additional expenses associated with relocating these employees and their families. C. these employees may not have experience with the language and culture of the host country. D. they expand the experience base of home-country employees.

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A drawback of ethnocentric staffing policies is that C. these employees may not have experience with the language and culture of the host country.

Ethnocentric staffing refers to the practice of filling key positions in a foreign subsidiary with employees from the home country. While this approach may have some advantages, such as maintaining control and transferring knowledge, it also comes with certain disadvantages. One of the drawbacks is that the employees selected from the home country may lack experience and familiarity with the language, culture, and business practices of the host country.

This lack of understanding of the host country's language and culture can hinder effective communication, collaboration, and adaptation to local conditions. It may also lead to misunderstandings, misinterpretations, and difficulties in building relationships with local employees and stakeholders. In contrast, selecting employees with experience and knowledge of the host country's language and culture (such as through geocentric or polycentric staffing policies) can facilitate smoother operations and better integration into the local environment.

Option A (it is less expensive to use employees from the home country) and Option B (there are no additional expenses associated with relocating these employees and their families) are not drawbacks but potential benefits of ethnocentric staffing policies.

Option D (they expand the experience base of home-country employees) is not a drawback but a potential advantage of ethnocentric staffing, as it allows home-country employees to gain international experience.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. these employees may not have experience with the language and culture of the host country.

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Part A What is the lattice energy? rag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences Reset (Help gaseous emitted as heat increasing Lattice energy is associated with forming a crystalline lattice of alternating cations and anions from the ons. Because the cations are positively charged and the anions are negatively charged, there is a of potential - as described by Coulomb's law- when the ions come together to form a lattice. That energy is when the lattice forms.

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Lattice energy is the energy released when gaseous ions form a crystalline lattice, and it is associated with the potential energy resulting from the attraction between oppositely charged ions.

Lattice energy is the energy emitted as heat when gaseous ions come together to form a crystalline lattice of alternating cations and anions. Because the cations are positively charged and the anions are negatively charged, there is a potential energy associated with forming the lattice, as described by Coulomb's law. This potential energy arises from the attraction between the opposite charges of the ions.

When the ions come close to each other and arrange themselves in a regular three-dimensional pattern, the lattice energy is released as heat. This energy release occurs because the ions stabilize in their positions within the lattice, minimizing the overall electrostatic potential energy. The lattice energy is a measure of the strength of the ionic bonds in the crystal lattice.

The magnitude of the lattice energy depends on various factors, including the charges of the ions and the distance between them. Higher charges and shorter distances between ions lead to stronger attractions and, consequently, higher lattice energies. Conversely, smaller charges and larger distances result in weaker attractions and lower lattice energies.

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a message about brushing one's teeth conveyed by a dentist is more persuading than the same message from a student who has done a project on dental hygiene. this reflects the credibility of the communicator through:a.perceived expertise.b.perceived attractiveness.c.speaking style.d.body language.

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The credibility of a communicator plays a significant role in how persuasive their message is perceived to be. When it comes to dental hygiene, a message conveyed by a dentist is likely to be more persuasive than the same message delivered by a student who has done a project on the subject.


One factor that contributes to the credibility of the communicator is their perceived expertise. Dentists are highly trained professionals who have spent years studying and practicing dental hygiene. They are recognized as experts in their field and have the knowledge and experience to back up their message. This expertise gives them credibility and makes their message more convincing.

On the other hand, a student who has done a project on dental hygiene may have some knowledge about the subject, but their level of expertise is not the same as that of a dentist. This lack of expertise may make their message less persuasive.Perceived attractiveness and speaking style can also influence the credibility of a communicator. However, in the context of dental hygiene, these factors are unlikely to be as important as perceived expertise.

Body language can also play a role in communication, but it is not as relevant in this case as the spoken message.In conclusion, when it comes to conveying a message about dental hygiene, the credibility of the communicator is a crucial factor in how persuasive the message is perceived to be. A dentist's expertise in the field gives them an advantage in terms of credibility, making their message more convincing than that of a student who has done a project on the subject.

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what is the minimum internal cooking temperature and holding time for chopped ground sirloin

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The minimum internal cooking temperature and holding time for chopped ground sirloin, like any ground meat, is determined by food safety guidelines to ensure the destruction of harmful bacteria and pathogens. According to the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA), the recommended minimum internal cooking temperature for ground meats, including ground sirloin, is 160°F (71°C).

When cooking chopped ground sirloin, it is crucial to use a food thermometer to accurately measure the internal temperature. This should be done by inserting the thermometer into the thickest part of the meat, away from any bones or fat.

In terms of holding time, once ground sirloin reaches the minimum internal temperature of 160°F (71°C), it should be held at that temperature for a minimum of 15 seconds to ensure any potential bacteria or pathogens are destroyed.

These guidelines are in place to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses associated with undercooked ground meat. It is important to follow these recommendations to ensure the safety of the food being prepared and consumed.

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according to the psychoanalytic view, personality differences associated with gender are due to

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According to the psychoanalytic view, personality differences associated with gender are primarily attributed to the influence of unconscious processes and psychosexual development.

Sigmund Freud, the founder of psychoanalysis, proposed that children develop their gender identities through the resolution of the Oedipus or Electra complex during the phallic stage. This process involves identification with the same-sex parent and internalization of gender norms and values.

Additionally, Freud suggested that anatomical differences contribute to psychological differences, with boys developing a more assertive and dominant personality (associated with the phallic, or "masculine," stage) and girls developing a more nurturing and submissive personality (associated with the pregenital, or "feminine," stage).

However, it's important to note that psychoanalytic theories have been subject to criticism and have been challenged by other psychological perspectives that emphasize social, cultural, and environmental influences on gender identity and personality development.

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All of the following are true of a confederation or confederation or confederate political system, EXCEPT that:_____.
a) a confederate system or confederation is opposite that of a unitary system
b) this was the form of government used in the U.S> under the Articles of Confederation
c) the central government has only those powers
d) it is the form of government used in the US today
e) states have most of the power than the central government

Answers

All of the options provided are true of a confederation or confederate political system except for option (d), which states that it is the form of government used in the US today.The answer will be provided in the explanation.

A confederation or confederate political system is characterized by a union of sovereign states or regions that agree to delegate certain powers to a central authority while retaining a significant degree of autonomy. In this system, the central authority typically has limited powers and relies on the voluntary cooperation of the member states. However, it is important to note that the confederation does not possess the power to override or enforce its decisions on member states. Instead, the confederation's decisions depend on the consent and cooperation of the member states.

Therefore, the exception to the statements is that a confederation or confederate political system has a strong central authority with the power to enforce its decisions on member states. In contrast to a federation or unitary system, a confederation lacks a strong central government with the ability to impose its will on the member states. The confederation relies on the voluntary cooperation and consensus of the member states, making it a more decentralized and loosely connected political system.

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Which of the following contributed to the increase in income inequality since the end of 1960?a. Federal, state, and local governments operate programs to assist people in need.b. The official poverty line has not been adjusted for inflation.c. The legal minimum wage has been allowed to fall as inflation reduces its value.d. The Gini index was developed to measure income inequality.

Answers

The increase in income inequality since the end of 1960 can be attributed to a combination of factors, including the decline of the minimum wage, the lack of adjustment for inflation in the official poverty line, the rise of the Gini index, and the inadequacy of government assistance programs. option d) is the correct answer.

The factors has been followed:-

Firstly, the legal minimum wage has been allowed to fall as inflation reduces its value. This means that the minimum wage has not kept pace with the rising cost of living, which has made it harder for low-wage workers to make ends meet. As a result, many people have been pushed into poverty or have been unable to move out of poverty despite working full-time.

Secondly, the official poverty line has not been adjusted for inflation. This means that the poverty line has remained the same over time, even as the cost of living has risen. As a result, more and more people are falling below the poverty line, and those who are already in poverty are finding it harder to escape.

Thirdly, the Gini index was developed to measure income inequality. This index measures the distribution of income in a society, with higher scores indicating greater inequality. Since the end of 1960, the Gini index has increased in the United States, indicating that income inequality has been on the rise.

Finally, while federal, state, and local governments operate programs to assist people in need, these programs have not been sufficient to address the underlying causes of poverty and inequality. Many of these programs are underfunded or have eligibility criteria that are too strict, which means that many people who need assistance are unable to access it.

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Studies from eleven countries show adolescents have more positive peer relationships and may achieve more when working _____, rather than _____.

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Studies from eleven countries show adolescents have more positive peer relationships and may achieve more when working collaboratively, rather than individually.

Collaborative work allows for the sharing of ideas and skills, as well as providing emotional support and a sense of belonging. Adolescents who work collaboratively also develop important social skills such as communication, teamwork, and conflict resolution, which are essential for success in both academic and professional settings. In contrast, working individually can lead to isolation and a lack of social support, which can negatively impact academic performance and mental health.

In these studies, researchers found that when adolescents work together in a cooperative environment, they tend to build stronger connections with their peers and achieve better academic results. This can be attributed to several factors:

1. Sharing ideas and resources: In a cooperative setting, students can pool their knowledge and resources, leading to a more comprehensive understanding of the subject matter.
2. Developing social skills: Working cooperatively encourages students to communicate effectively, practice empathy, and resolve conflicts in a constructive manner.
3. Increasing motivation and engagement: A sense of camaraderie and shared goals can motivate students to stay engaged and work harder towards achieving their objectives.
4. Enhancing self-esteem and confidence: Working in a supportive group can help students feel more confident in their abilities, leading to higher levels of achievement.

In contrast, competitive environments may hinder the development of positive peer relationships and limit students' potential for success due to factors such as excessive stress, negative peer interactions, and an overemphasis on individual achievement rather than collective growth.

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Which of the following theorists believed that aggression is a learned behavior and therefore could be unlearned? Sigmund Freud Albert Bandura Stanley Milgram Konrad Lorenz

Answers

Albert Bandura was the theorist who claimed that aggressiveness is a taught behavior that can be unlearned. Here option B is the correct answer.

Bandura is a renowned psychologist known for his social learning theory, which emphasizes the role of observational learning and modeling in shaping behavior. According to Bandura, individuals acquire aggressive behaviors through observational learning, where they observe and imitate aggressive actions they see in their environment.

Bandura conducted the famous Bobo doll experiment, where children observed an adult model behaving aggressively towards a Bobo doll. The children later imitated the observed aggressive behavior when given the opportunity to interact with the doll. This experiment provided evidence for the social learning theory and supported the notion that aggression is a learned behavior.

Based on his theory, Bandura argued that if aggression is learned, it can also be unlearned through processes such as observational learning, socialization, and cognitive restructuring. By providing individuals with alternative models of non-aggressive behavior and teaching them appropriate social skills, Bandura believed that aggressive tendencies could be reduced or eliminated.

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Complete question:

Which of the following theorists believed that aggression is a learned behavior and therefore could be unlearned?

A - Sigmund Freud

B - Albert Bandura

C - Stanley Milgram

D - Konrad Lorenz

Mrs. Gladstone's arguments against cuts in Social Security are worthless. As a recipient of Social Security benefits, she would naturally be expected to argue exactly the way she does. O Straw man. O Argument against the person, circumstantial O No fallacy
O False dichotomy O Argument against the person, abusive.

Answers

The fallacy in the statement is Argument against the person, circumstantial.

In this case, the argument dismisses Mrs. Gladstone's arguments against cuts in Social Security by attacking her personal circumstances as a recipient of Social Security benefits. The statement suggests that her arguments are worthless simply because she has a personal stake in the matter. This is an example of a circumstantial ad hominem fallacy, which focuses on the person making the argument rather than addressing the actual merits of their position. By attacking Mrs. Gladstone's personal situation rather than engaging with her arguments directly, the statement attempts to discredit her viewpoint without providing any valid counterarguments.

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Scenes by_____________added to the attraction to the West felt by many Americans.-Lincoln Steffens-Caravaggio-Albert Bierstadt-Francis Bellamy

Answers

Scenes by Albert Bierstadt added to the attraction to the West felt by many Americans. Bierstadt was a German-American painter who specialized in landscapes of the American West. His paintings often depicted the grandeur and beauty of the Western frontier, showcasing its vast and untouched wilderness.

His work became increasingly popular in the late 19th century, coinciding with a growing fascination and desire to explore the West among Americans. Bierstadt's paintings not only captured the essence of the West, but they also served to promote the idea of Manifest Destiny, the belief that it was America's destiny to expand and settle the West.

This idea fueled westward expansion and the colonization of indigenous lands, leading to the displacement and marginalization of Native American communities. While Bierstadt's work is undoubtedly stunning, it is important to recognize the historical context in which it was created and the consequences of the ideas it promoted.

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paul remains alert and mentally re-sorts, rephrases, and repeats key information when listening to a speech. what type of listener is paul?

Answers

Based on the information provided, Paul is a very attentive and engaged listener.

He is actively processing the information he is receiving, which is demonstrated by his mental re-sorting, rephrasing, and repetition of key information. This type of listening behavior is often referred to as active listening.
Active listening involves not only hearing the words being spoken but also paying attention to nonverbal cues, asking questions, and seeking clarification to ensure a full understanding of the message being conveyed. Active listeners are often considered to be effective communicators, as they are able to fully engage with others and show that they value what is being said.
Overall, Paul's listening behavior indicates that he is an active listener who is focused on understanding and retaining the information being shared with him. By engaging in this type of listening behavior, he is able to build stronger relationships and communicate more effectively with others.

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if you damage your registration plate. you are given __ hours to apply for a new one.

Answers

The time limit to apply for a new registration plate may vary depending on the specific regulations and laws of the jurisdiction.

However, it is common for individuals to be given a limited time frame, typically around 48 to 72 hours, to apply for a new registration plate if the original one is damaged.

It is important to note that these time limits can vary by jurisdiction, so it is essential to consult the local Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV) or equivalent authority to determine the precise time frame and any specific requirements for obtaining a replacement registration plate.

Failing to apply for a new registration plate within the designated time frame may result in penalties, fines, or legal consequences, as driving without a valid and properly displayed registration plate is generally a violation of traffic regulations.

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