Answer:
They would slowly decomposeanf then become mushy.and nasty
One year earlier, J. Herbert Taylor's experiments with Vivia faba came to a similar conclusion as this experiment. John Cairns used radioactively-labelled thymidine to explain why heat denaturation in this experiment occurred only with salmon sperm. A density gradient of cesium chloride was used for the ultracentrifugation step in this experiment. This experiment (*) disproved Max Delbruck's dispersive hypothesis. This experiment used E. coli grown on nitrogen-15, followed by growth on
nitrogen-14, and found that three-quarters of the second generation was light. For 10 points, name this experiment that proved DNA replication is semiconservative.
The Meselson and Stahl Experiment served as a test to demonstrate semiconservative DNA replication. To explore DNA replication, Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl performed an experiment in 1958 using the fast-diverging E. coli bacterium.
Who established semiconservative DNA replication?Mathew Meselson and Franklin Stahl established in 1985 that DNA replication is semi-conservative. They carried out their experiment on Escherichia coli bacteria.
How did the Meselson-Stall experiment demonstrate the semi-conservative nature of DNA replication?The semiconservative way of DNA replication is indicated by the lighter strand, which is the new one generated from the culture, and the heavier strand, which stands in for the parents. The replication of DNA in this way proved to be semiconservative.
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Think about the gametes each parent plant will produce. List the allele in each gamete.
Parent plant with white flowers:
Gamete 1:
Gamete 2:
Gamete 3:
Gamete 4:
Parent plant with red flowers:
Gamete 1:
Gamete 2:
Gamete 3:
Gamete 4:
Gametes are the sex haploid cells produced by a diploid germ cell through meiotic division. Parent 1) Gamete 1: W, gamete 2: W, gamete 3: W, gamete 4: W. Parent 2) Gamete 1: w, gamete 2: w, gamete 3: w, gamete 4: w.
What are gametes?Gametes are sex haploid cells (n) that result from meiotic division. During meiosis, a diploid germ cells divides into four haploid cell -the gametes-.
Each gamete carries half the genetic material of its parental cell. It contains only one of the alleles.
In the exposed example, we need to determine the parental gametes of two snapdragon plants concerning flower color.
Snapdragon plants express incomplete dominance for flower color, meaning that
WW plants express white flowersww plants express red flowersWw plants express pink flowers.First, we need to determine the parental genotype of a cross between a homozygous plant for white flowers with a homozygous plant for red flowers.
Parental 1: WW ⇒ White phenotype
Parental 2: ww ⇒ Red phenotype
The whole progeny resulting from this cross will be pink, Ww.
Now, we need to determine the parental gametes.
Parent plant with white flowers: WWThe germ cell is WW. This cell divides into four haploid cells carrying only one of the alleles. So,
Gamete 1: W
Gamete 2: W
Gamete 3: W
Gamete 4: W
Parent plant with red flowers: wwThe germ cell is ww. Repeating the same reasoning as before, this diploid cell divides into four haploid cells carrying only one of the alleles. So,
Gamete 1: w
Gamete 2: w
Gamete 3: w
Gamete 4: w
Now we can make the Punnett square representing the cross and using these gametes.
Parentals) WW x ww
Gametes) W W w w
Punnett square)
W W
w Ww WW
w Ww Ww
F1) 100% Ww pink flowers
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Complete question:
Snapdragons are popular garden plants that produce brightly colored flowers. When a plant that is homozygous for white flowers is crossed with a plant that is homozygous for red flowers, all offspring are pink.
Snapdragons are an example of a plant that exhibits an inheritance pattern called incomplete dominance.
1. Determine the genotype of each parent plant and write them below. Use W to indicate the allele for white
flowers and w to indicate the allele for red flowers.
Genotype of homozygous parent plant with white flowers:
Genotype of homozygous parent plant with red flowers:
2. Next, think about the gametes each parent plant will produce. List the allele in each gamete.
Parent plant with white flowers:
Gamete 1:Gamete 2:Gamete 3:Gamete 4:Parent plant with red flowers:
Gamete 1:Gamete 2:Gamete 3:Gamete 4:3. The two parent plants are the P generation, or parent generation. Create a Punnett square to show their offspring, the F1 generation.
Transcription of a part of a DNA molecule with a nucleotide sequence of A-A-A-C-A-A-C-T-T results in a mRNA molecule with the complementary sequence of:
The molecule of DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid).
Which relays instructions from the CNS to muscles more quickly, the somatic nervous system or the ANS? The somatic motor system relays instructions to muscles more quickly because it involves only one motor neuron, whereas the ANS uses a two-neuron chain. Moreover, axons of somatic motor neurons are typically heavily myelinated, whereas preganglionic autonomic axons are lightly myelinated and postganglionic axons are nonmyelinated.
The somatic motor system relays instructions to muscles more quickly because it involves only one motor neuron, whereas the ANS uses a two-neuron chain. Moreover, axons of somatic motor neurons are typically heavily myelinated, whereas preganglionic autonomic axons are lightly myelinated and postganglionic axons are non myelinated.
The lateral component of the somatic motor system controls the premotor interneurons and motoneurons of the distal muscles. This component consists of two pathways—the lateral corticospinal and the rubrospinal pathways. In humans, the lateral corticospinal pathway subserves the control of the independent movements of the extremities. It controls the motoneurons via direct projections as well as indirectly via strong projections to the laterally located premotor interneurons.
The motoneurons innervating the muscles of the distal limbs receive the strongest direct projections from the motor cortex. This descending system enables humans to make most refined and extremely complex movements, such as independent finger movements and speech, the most complicated motor performance. In most mammals, both the lateral corticospinal and the rubrospinal pathways are important, but in humans the rubrospinal pathway seems to be irrelevant. The somatic motor system relays instructions to muscles more quickly because it involves only one motor neuron, whereas the ANS uses a two-neuron chain. Moreover, axons of somatic motor neurons are typically heavily myelinated, whereas preganglionic autonomic axons are lightly myelinated and postganglionic axons are non myelinated.
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select all that apply growth hormone . multiple select question. decreases synthesis of proteins is released by the anterior pituitary increases cellular use of fats stimulates cell division
Growth hormones (GH) : is released by the anterior pituitary, stimulates cell division, increases cellular use of fats.
Human growth hormone is a natural hormone produced by your pituitary gland that promotes growth, aids in the maintenance of normal body structure, and regulates metabolism in both children and adults. Growth hormones aids in maintaining a normal body structure and metabolism, along with the maintenance of healthy blood sugar (glucose) levels.
Hormones are chemicals that help your body coordinate different functions by transporting signals through your blood to your organs, muscles, and other tissues. These signals instruct your body on what to do and when.
The pituitary gland is a small, pea-sized endocrine gland situated at the base of the brain, beneath the hypothalamus. It is divided into two lobes: anterior (front) and posterior (back). The anterior lobe of your brain produces Growth hormones.
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which of the following crosses will not produce offspring with the recessive phenotype? select all that apply. a.tt x tt b.tt x tt c.tt x tt tt x tt d.tt x tt
The answer is (C). TTxTt, the other crosses will produce at least one offspring of recessive phenotype.
Punnett squares must be drawn in order to determine the probability and what happens to all the children.
The dominant trait is denoted by T, and the recessive by t.
TT x tt = Tt Tt Tt Tt = 100% Tt
The dominant allele will be present in every single offspring.
Tt x Tt = TT Tt tT tt =25% TT 50% Tt 25% tt
In this case, there is a 25% chance that the progeny will carry the recessive allele.
TT x TT = TT TT TT TT= 100% TT
The dominant allele will be present in every single offspring.
Tt x tt = Tt tt tt tt = 25% Tt 75% tt
In this case, there is a 75% likelihood that the progeny will carry the recessive allele. Thus TT x Tt will have the recessive phenotype in the offspring.
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The correct question is:
Which of the following will not produce offspring with the recessive phenotype?
Select one:
a. tt x tt
b. Tt x tt
c. TT x Tt
d. Tt x Tt
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Gastric glands produce _________ and are part of the _______ system.
A. stomach acid, endocrine
B. oily sebum, endocrine
C. oily sebum, exocrine
D. stomach acid, exocrine
Answer:
Option D
explanation:
Gastric glands produce stomach acid and are part of the exocrine system. The exocrine system is a system of glands that produce and secrete substances directly into ducts that lead to the outside of the body, such as the skin or the digestive tract. Stomach acid is a digestive enzyme that is produced by the gastric glands and secreted into the stomach, where it helps to break down food. Therefore, the correct answer is option D, which states that gastric glands produce stomach acid and are part of the exocrine system.
the DNA sequence "TAC GGT CAG AAG ATT" will transcribe the mRNA codon sequence ___ ___ ___ ___ ___
The DNA sequence "TAC GGT CAG AAG ATT" will transcribe the mRNA codon sequence AUG CCA GUC UUC UAA, which is then used according to the genetic code to create the protein.
What is the genetic code?The genetic code is a series of instructions in order to synthesize a protein from a given chain of triplets of nucleotides or codons which serve to add specific amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the genetic code is sued to indicate which triplet of nucleotide or codon will specify a given amino acid.
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how many chromosomes does each daughter cell have after cell division is complete
Answer:
23 chromosomes
Explanation:
46/2
4. Determine the time of protein synthesis from 20 amino acids in Escherichia coli cells
Answer:
E. coli can synthesize all of the amino acids from inorganic compounds and glucose but it is also capable of transporting intact amino acids into the cell from the extracellular environment.
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation:
Protein synthesis, or translation, is the process by which cells synthesize proteins from amino acids using the information stored in their DNA. In Escherichia coli cells, protein synthesis occurs in the ribosomes, which are small, specialized organelles that translate the genetic code in mRNA into a sequence of amino acids.
The time it takes to synthesize a protein from 20 amino acids will depend on a number of factors, including the size and complexity of the protein, the efficiency of the ribosomes, and the availability of the necessary amino acids and other resources. In general, the rate of protein synthesis in E. coli cells is relatively fast, with some ribosomes able to synthesize up to 20 amino acids per second. This means that it could potentially take only a few seconds to synthesize a small protein consisting of 20 amino acids. However, it is important to note that this is just a rough estimate and the actual time may vary depending on the specific circumstances.
Question: What effect does the water temperature have on solution rate? Make a Hypothesis:
Answer:
Explanation:
Due to the higher energy of motion of the particles, a solute dissolves more quickly in a warmer solvent than it does in a colder one. Another element that influences how quickly a solute dissolves is the temperature of the solvent. The pill will dissolve more quickly if it is dissolved in warm water because some chemicals dissolve more quickly when the temperature is raised.
- Most incidental motions:
may be debated after they are amended.
are always debatable.
are not debatable
may be debated if permission is granted.
Answer:
are always debatable.
Read each question carefully. Write your response in the space provided for each part of each question Answers must be written out in paragraph form. Outlines, bulleted liÅts, or diagrams alone are not acceptable and will not be scored The stems and fruits of pineapple plants contain a group of protein-digesting enzymes collectively called bromelain and often used as an antibrowning agent for fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables brown when they are bruised during transport or sliced and exposed to air. This browning is controlled by enzymatic pathways that produce brown pigments. The browning of fruits and vegetables reduces the nutritional value of the food, so antibrowning agents such as bromelain are used (a) Identify the type of monomer of which this enzyme is composed (b) Bromelain works by breaking the enzymes that cause browning into smaller molecules Explain how the reaction that breaks up the enzymes occurs.
(c) The pH of a solution determines the charge of certain groups. The pH of pineapple fruit ranges from 3.5 to 5.2. Predict the effect on the activity of bromelain if it is used in a product with a pH of 11 (d) Provide reasoning to justify your prediction
(a) Bromelain is an enzyme, which means that it is composed of proteins. Specifically, it is composed of polypeptides, which are chains of amino acids joined together by peptide bonds.
(b) The reaction that breaks up the enzymes occurs through hydrolysis, which is the process by which bromelain cleaves the peptide bonds between amino acids.
(c) If bromelain is used in a product with a pH of 11, it is likely to have a negative effect on the activity of the enzyme.
(d) The reasoning to justify this prediction is that the pH of a solution determines the charge of certain groups within the enzyme, and changes in pH can alter the shape and conformation of the enzyme. At a pH that is significantly different from the optimal range, the enzyme may become denatured, which means that the specific shape and conformation of the enzyme is altered and the active site is no longer able to bind effectively to the substrate. This can lead to a decrease in the activity of the enzyme.
Bromelain has a specific active site, which is a region on the enzyme that binds to the substrate (in this case, the enzymes that cause browning). The substrate fits into the active site like a key in a lock, and the enzyme then catalyzes the hydrolysis reaction by adding a water molecule to the bond, breaking it apart and releasing the smaller molecules.
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Label the parts of the neuron:
Axon, axon bulb, axon hillock, dendrite, myelin/Schwann cell, nucleus, node of Ranvier
A.
B.
nucleus in A B. axon Axon Hillock, C. Myelin D Dendrite E. Node of Ranvier, F. axon bulb G
Where does the axon hillock of a neuron reside?Its axons hillock, which is located close to the soma's end, controls how the neuron fires. If the total strength of a signals is greater than the threshold limit of the axon hillock, the construct will discharge a signal known as an excitable cells down the axon.
What opens at the axon hillock?At threshold voltage, voltage-gated sodium ions in the axon hillock open. The axon hillock contains a relatively high density of voltage-gated sodium channels, which are responsible for generating the action potential.
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Fossilized life forms which, according to Darwin, show a transition between one species and another are called...
answer choices
Distinct layers of rock
Index fossils
Intermediate links
Transitional forms
Your anwser is Transitional forms.
Why might a scientist use a physical model of a bacterial cell instead of
studying the cell directly?
TRUE/FALSE. indoor air pollution receives less attention than outdoor air pollution, yet it exerts severe health impacts on millions of people. poverty worsens indoor air pollution in the developing world; high-technology products and chemicals contribute to it in the developed world; and certain lifestyle choices can affect all of us. fortunately, many solutions are within reach to address the causes and lessen the consequences of this environmental health risk.
True. Indoor air pollution receives less attention than outdoor air pollution, yet it exerts severe health impacts on millions of people.
Air pollution is defined as pollutants of the indoor or outdoor surroundings by any chemical, physical, or biological agent that alters the natural properties of the atmosphere. Common sources of air pollution include household combustion devices, motor vehicles, industrial facilities, and forest fires.
The primary sources of man-made air pollution are vehicle emissions, fuel oils and natural gas used to heat homes, byproducts of industrial production and electricity production, primarily coal-fueled power stations, and fumes from chemical production.
Air pollution is defined as contamination of the indoor or outdoor environment by any chemical, physical, or biological agent that alters the natural characteristics of the atmosphere. Household combustion devices, motor vehicles, industrial facilities, and forest fires are all common sources of air pollution.
Vehicle emissions, fuel oils and natural gas used to heat homes, byproducts of industrial production and power production, especially coal-fueled power plants, and fumes from chemical products are the primary sources of man-made air pollution.
The air pollution sources are numerous. Residential energy for preparing food and heating, automobiles, power generation, agriculture/waste incineration, and industry are the major outdoor pollution sources.
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the distribution of heights of adult men is approximately normal with a mean of inches and a standard deviation of inches. bob's height has a -score of when compared to all adult men. which of the following is true?
Answer: Bob is shorter than 69 inches tall
Explanation:
1. I took the quiz and 2. Bob's height has a Z-score of -0.5 when compared to all adult men.
11. In 1996 the moose population dropped, what then happened to the wolf population in the following
year? Explain why.
Answer:
Due to the unfortunate loss of the moose population, the wolf population will also drop because primary prey is lost.
Explanation:
When a species becomes extinct or endangered, the life cycle is disarrayed. The butterfly affect is a great example; one factor makes a difference. Without chocolate, there are many recipies one can not make. Without moose, many wolves will starve.
Imagine you are a paleontologist trying to find the “missing link” between different species. In three to five sentences, create a fictional narrative about your discoveries, describing: 1) what two species, mythical or real, you are studying, 2) what evidence you have linking these species, and 3) what evidence you have to define different correlations and causations that support your hypothesis.
All of the following tools should be used to remove a hair sample from an object except
Osticky tape
tweezers
vacuum
Obrush
Brush are not used , Hair samples are primarily collected using tools tweezers, trace tapes, and vacuuming. Other methods of hair sample collection include combing and clipping methods.
What methods are employed in the forensic examination of hair?Three main types of hair analysis are conducted by forensic scientists: (1) testing the hair shaft for drugs or nutritional deficiencies in an individual's system; (2) analyzing DNA extracted from the root of the hair; and (3) examining hair under a microscope to determine whether it is from an individual or an animal.
How are hair samples collected?A hair drug test, commonly referred to as a hair follicle drug test, looks for both illicit drug use and prescription drug abuse, a little section of hair cut off of your head for this test. After that, the sample is examined for evidence of drug usage in the 90 days prior to the test.
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Which two sets of changes are most likely to cause a population to remain stable? • A. Increased births and decreased immigration B. Increased deaths and decreased immigration • C. Increased births and increased deaths • D. Increased emigration and decreased births
PLEASE ANSWER THIS IS FOR MY FINAL EXAM
THANK YOU
Answer:
A population is considered stable when the number of births and deaths is roughly equal, and the number of individuals entering and leaving the population is also roughly equal. Therefore, the two sets of changes that are most likely to cause a population to remain stable are:
Increased births and increased deaths
Increased emigration and decreased immigration
It is worth noting that a population can also remain stable if there is a balance between the number of individuals entering and leaving the population, regardless of the birth and death rates.
Explanation:
The artery that bifurcates into the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery is the:
O brachiocephalic artery
O right common iliac artery
O right brachial artery
O right coronary artery
O superior vena cava
The artery that bifurcates into the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery is the brachiocephalic artery
The brachiocephalic artery or brachiocephalic trunk is an artery of the mediastinum that supplies blood to the right arm and the head and neck. It is the first branch of the aortic arch. Soon after it emerges, the brachiocephalic artery divides into the right common carotid artery and the right subclavian artery.
There is no brachiocephalic artery for the left side of the body. The left common carotid, and the left subclavian artery, come directly off the aortic arch. However, there are two brachiocephalic veins. The brachiocephalic artery arises, on a level with the upper border of the second right costal cartilage. The function of Brachiocephalic artery is to bring blood from heart to right arm, head, and neck.
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Which of the following is most closely associated with hairlike receptors in the semicircular canals?
Hairlike receptors in the semicircular canals are most closely associated with the vestibular system. The vestibular system is responsible for maintaining balance and coordination. It is made up of three semicircular canals and the vestibule, which houses the organs of equilibrioception. The semicircular canals are filled with endolymphatic fluid and are lined with hair-like sensory receptors called cristaeampullaris.
These hair-like receptors detect any changes in the orientation of the head and relay this information to the brain. The cristaeampullaris are sensitive to angular acceleration, which is the rate of change in the head’s orientation. When the head moves, the endolymphatic fluid within the semicircular canals moves along with it, stimulating the cristaeampullaris and sending signals to the brain. This allows the brain to process the information and respond appropriately to maintain balance and coordination.
The vestibular system is also important for controlling eye movements. The semicircular canals are connected to the oculomotor nerve, which is responsible for controlling eye movements. When the head moves, the information from the cristaeampullaris is sent to the oculomotor nerve, which then sends signals to the eye muscles to cause them to move in the same direction as the head. This allows us to maintain eye contact with objects in our environment, even when our head is moving.
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The Humoral immune response is a chain reaction of antigens and Interleukins that results in:
A. The production of macrophages to use phagocytosis on pathogens.
B. The differentiation of helper T cells into cytotoxic T cells to destroy pathogens.
C. The swelling of fluid and clotting elements to a damaged area.
D. The differentiation of effector B cells into plasma cells to make antibodies.
The Humoral immune response is a chain reaction of antigens and Interleukins that results in: The differentiation of effector B cells into plasma cells to make antibodies.
What is meant by Humoral immune response?Plasma cells release antibody molecules, which are the mediators of the humoral immune response. B cells get signals from antigen that attaches to the B-cell antigen receptor, and at the same time, the internalised antigen is processed into peptides that activate armed helper cells.Innate humoral immunity refers to innate immunity that is protein-based. Examples include the body's complement system, interferon, and interleukin-1 compounds (which causes fever). If an antigen manages to get past these barriers, additional immune system components will attack and eliminate it.Infections within cells are stopped from spreading by the humoral immune response, which also destroys extracellular microbes. The reason humoral immunity is so termed is because it uses components present in bodily fluids or humour.Learn more about Humoral immune response refer to :
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which statement about bacteria is false? consumption of even a few bacterial cells can cause food-borne illnesses. most environmental bacteria are harmless. bacteria are present on most surfaces in our homes. some bacteria are beneficial.
Answer: A: Consumption of even a few bacterial cells can cause food-borne illnesses
Explanation:
Which statement about bacteria is FALSE?
a) Consumption of even a few bacterial cells can cause food-borne illnesses
.b) Most environmental bacteria are harmless.
c) Bacteria are present on most surfaces in our homes.
d) Some bacteria are beneficial.
I took the test :3
if two cells have different scaffolding proteins, explain how they might behave differently in response to the same signaling molecule.
If two cells have different Scaffolding proteins, they handle molecular elements of signaling pathways together in a complex. Various Scaffolding proteins would combine afferent protein collections, resulting in distinct cellular responses in the two cells.
Scaffolding proteins, as the name suggests, combine two or even more proteins in a comparatively stabilized configuration. There are numerous Scaffolding proteins found in nature, many of which have multiple protein-protein interaction modules.
The influence of a chromosome on Scaffold comprising non-histone proteins, known as Scaffolding proteins, has been the most significant structural discovery.
the proteins in a signaling pathway that connect with multiple cells. Based on the results of the analysis, 212 proteins were identified as Scaffolding proteins with statistical importance.
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FILL IN THE BLANK 4 points item 22 generalizing from the text, one would predict that characteristics that exhibit a _____ degree of canalization would display a _______ level of concordance in monozygotic twins.
Generalizing from the text, one would predict that characteristics that exhibit a high degree of canalization would display a high level of concordance in monozygotic twins.
Whenever a single egg cell is fertilized by a solitary sperm cell, it results in monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins. Early in development, the subsequent zygote divides into two, causing the development of two different embryos. Monozygotic victories occur in nearly 4 out of every 1,000 births worldwide.
Canalisation is an amount of a population's capacity to generate the same phenotype irrespective of environmental or genotypic variability. It's a type of evolutionary toughness.
Semi-identical or half-twins are an unique type of monozygotic twins that occur when two distinct sperm fertilize one egg. This is another case in which you can obtain two genders, but they are not truly "identical" twins because the egg was fertilized by two sperm rather than one.
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include examples such as euglena, a photosynthetic protist, amanita, a poisonous fungi, gingko biloba, an ancient tree, and humans.
Examples of eukarya include humans, amanita, a deadly fungus, Ginkgo Biloba, and euglena, a photosynthetic protest.
Eukarya are organisms with one cell or several cells with a membrane-bound nucleus. The only domain that includes multicellular, visible organisms including humans, animals, plants, and trees is the eukarya. Numerous microorganisms, including fungi, algae, and micro animals. All organisms with a nucleus fall under the domain Eukarya. The last four kingdoms of the six kingdom structure are Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. Eukaryotic cells feature a membrane-bound nucleus and a central cavity that contains the genetic material of the cell. The compartments with specific functionalities that are membrane-bound and floating in the cytoplasm.
Hence, eukarya domain includes eukaryotic cell possessing organism.
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shown below are several molecules found in animal cells, along with their mass in daltons. based on the data gathered by loewenstein, et al. which molecule(s) would be excluded from moving through gap-junction channels? molecule approximate mass (daltons) histidine (an amino acid) 100 carnosine (a dipeptide) 226 thyroid-releasing hormone (trh, a peptide hormone) 360 atp 551 insulin (a peptide hormone) 5808 hexokinase (an enzyme) 50,000
Molecules that would be excluded from moving through gap-junction channels are insulin and hexokinase.
Connexins, a family of proteins articulated for most tissues of an organism, form gap junction channels.
Gap junction channels allow ions and other small molecules to pass between contacting cells, synchronizing them both electrically and metabolically. Gap junction channels are highly specialised intercellular connections that connect a wide variety of animal cell types. They connect the cytoplasm of two cells directly, allowing molecules, ions, and electrical impulses to transfer through a governed gate between cells.
Hexokinase is the first glycolytic enzyme, potentiating the phosphorylation of glucose by ATP to glucose-6-P. It is one of the glycolysis rate-limiting enzymes. As regular red cells age, their activity decreases rapidly.
Insulin is a peptide hormone created by pancreatic islet beta cells and encoded by the INS gene in humans. It is thought to be the body's primary anabolic hormone. Hexokinase is a potential insulin regulatory site that is irregular in insulin resistance. The modified regulation of hexokinase may play a significant role in the diminished insulin-mediated glucose flow rates in insulin-resistant skeletal muscle.
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