What's a good way to get people involved in making positive changes?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Get your friends to start, then see if they will get their friends and continue like that.

Explanation:

Answer 2
- telling people close you and they might share with people and so on

Related Questions

Many patients who are prescribed Xarelto also have coagulopathy. Does this sentence prove causation or correlation? Explain

Answers

The sentence "Many patients who are prescribed Xarelto also have coagulopathy" suggests a correlation between the use of Xarelto and the presence of coagulopathy. It does not prove causation, which would require additional evidence and analysis to establish a direct cause-and-effect relationship between the two factors.

Correlation refers to a relationship between two variables, in which they tend tochange together but one does not necessarily cause the other. In this case, the sentence indicates that many patients who take Xarelto also happen to have coagulopathy, but it does not necessarily mean that Xarelto is causing the coagulopathy or that the coagulopathy is causing the patients to need Xarelto.The sentence may suggest a potential link or association that requires further investigation, but it does not provide sufficient evidence to establish causation between Xarelto and coagulopathy.

Additional research and analysis would be needed to determine whether there is a direct causal relationship between these two factors or whether other variables may be involved in the correlation between Xarelto use and coagulopathy.

In summary, the sentence "Many patients who are prescribed Xarelto also have coagulopathy" suggests a correlation between Xarelto use and the presence of coagulopathy, but it does not prove causation.

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The diagnosis code, M75.51, for Liu's problem is also called a/an: a. ICD-9 code b. ICD-10 code C. CPT code d. HIPAA code

Answers

The diagnosis code, M75.51, for Liu's problem is also called an ICD-10 code. ICD-10 is the abbreviation for the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision. It is a medical classification system for diseases, injuries, and related health problems so the correct answer is option (b).

The system is used to classify and code all medical diagnoses and procedures.The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is a classification system developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) for use in health care systems around the world. The ICD-10 codes are alphanumeric codes used to classify and identify diagnoses, symptoms, and medical procedures.ICD-9 is the predecessor of ICD-10. It was used in the United States before October 1, 2015. CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) codes are a different type of code used in the United States to describe medical procedures and services for billing purposes.

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a set of federal regulations that provide for the privacy and security of patients’ medical information. It does not refer to any type of medical code. Thus, option (b) ICD-10 code is correct.The diagnosis code, M75.51, for Liu's problem is also called an ICD-10 code.

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eliminating burnout by implementing processes intended to buffer workplace stressors and minimize the negative effects on one's health and motivation can be best described by which workplace model?

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The best workplace model that can be described by the given statement is known as the BUFFER model. The BUFFER model emphasizes on eliminating burnout by implementing processes intended to buffer workplace stressors and minimize the negative effects on one's health and motivation.

It is considered to be an organizational strategy and workplace model that has been identified as an effective way to manage workplace stressors. The BUFFER model consists of three different strategies: buffering, building, and boosting. Buffering is all about implementing interventions that limit or protect the worker from the negative effects of stressors.

Building is aimed at developing workers' skills and abilities to cope with stressors, whereas, Boostering involves establishing an organizational culture that promotes positive emotions and attitudes, such as job satisfaction and work engagement.

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Do you think it's easy to be honest? Why or why not?

Answers

Answer:

It depends on what you're being honest about.

Explanation:

Sometimes you'll find it easy, sometimes you won't. Anyways, have a nice day:)

Physical Activity 1: rolling skating
Heart rate
a. Before warm-up: _______ beats per minute
b. After 20 minutes of activity: _______ beats per minute
c. During cool-down: _______ beats per minute
Method used
What method did you use to monitor your heart rate? (carotid pulse, radial pulse, or heart monitor)

Answers

The best answer to go with is b

a client has developed deficits involving the senses of smell and hearing. the nurse would correlate this sensory dysfunction with which cerebral lobe?

Answers

The nurse would correlate this sensory dysfunction with the temporal lobe.

The temporal lobe is one of four primary lobes in the human brain that plays an important role in processing sensory information, particularly in regard to auditory and olfactory perception. The temporal lobe is situated near the lower part of the brain and is situated on either side of the brainstem, below the frontal and parietal lobes.

It's made up of three main components: the hippocampus, which is involved in memory formation; the amygdala, which is involved in processing emotions; and the auditory cortex, which is involved in processing sound information. Additionally, the temporal lobe is responsible for recognizing faces and understanding speech.

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a nurse caring for a preterm neonate knows that positioning can benefit high-risk neonates. which position is appropriate for a preterm neonate?

Answers

A nurse caring for a preterm neonate knows that positioning can benefit high-risk neonates. The most appropriate position for a preterm neonate is the prone position.

Prone positioning is one of the most effective methods for reducing morbidity and mortality among preterm infants. It has been found to be more beneficial than supine positioning in reducing the incidence of apnea, hypoxia, and bradycardia.

The prone position is a position in which the infant lies on their stomach. The nurse should ensure that the infant's neck is slightly flexed and their arms are forward. The prone position is preferred for preterm neonates because it helps to reduce the incidence of aspiration, reflux, and upper airway obstruction. Additionally, it improves respiratory mechanics, lung volumes, and oxygenation.

The prone position can be utilized for brief periods of time to improve oxygenation and reduce the incidence of apnea and bradycardia in infants who are at risk. Nonetheless, there are times when the infant's positioning must be altered to improve their condition. The healthcare provider should make this decision based on the infant's condition, gestational age, and underlying medical issues.

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activity 1. an injured person needs your help. You are bringing her to safe place. How are you going to do that ? study the situations and determined the kind of transport that should be used.​

Answers

A hoist can be used to move the person to safety if they are unable to mobilise their self

Under government programs, such as medicaid, the dentist must accept the amount paid by the carrier as payment in full and not bill the patient for the difference according to:_________

Answers

Under government programs such as Medicaid, the dentist must accept the amount paid by the carrier as payment in full and not bill the patient for the difference according to the "fixed fee schedule."

Under government programs such as Medicaid, the dentist must accept the amount paid by the carrier as payment in full and not bill the patient for the difference according to the "fixed fee schedule." A fixed fee schedule is a predetermined list of fees set by the government or insurance carrier, which determines the maximum amount that will be paid for specific dental procedures.

Dentists who participate in Medicaid agree to accept the fees established in the fixed fee schedule as full payment for their services. They cannot bill the patient for any additional amount beyond what the program allows. This ensures that patients are not financially burdened by additional charges and helps regulate costs within the Medicaid program.

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4 types of sexual harassment ? and two examples of each

Answers

Answer:

verbal sexual harassment- mentioning a person's body after they have said to you they don't want you saying things like that to them. nonverbal sexaul harassment- touching a person inareas  that would make them uncomfortable after they have told you no.

Explanation:

Hi! I'm a 17 year old soon to be 18 in a few months. I need to find a place to live (I live in Florida) as I can't live with my parents anymore for inevitable reasons. I don't have a job but I will be getting one. I go to college and I receive full financial aid. I don't have my license yet or a car either or money. But I need to move. Is there any program or help in Lee County that can help me find housing maybe an apartment cheaply or with some time of financial aid. Even thought I will get a job once I turn 18 I won't make enough to pay rent, but a car, pay insurance, pay my phone, food etc... Please all the help you guys can tell me of would be amazing!

Answers

Answer: this is all i could find srry if it dont help enough nd i wish you all the best nd i hope you find yourself housing

Explanation: The Neighborhood Stabilization Program helps income qualifying homebuyers purchase homes in specific areas of Lee County. The Repair and Rehabilitation Programs help income-qualifying homeowners with home repairs if they live in unincorporated Lee County (the areas that are not within any city limits).

If you live on campus and receive financial aid, that should include housing, no?

Why do people have bad diets?

Answers

Answer:

what is the best bro he is a push or

older adults are at an increased risk of pneumonia due to the rigidity of the thorax and changes in the respiratory muscles.

a. true
b. false

Answers

The statement "older adults are at an increased risk of pneumonia due to the rigidity of the thorax and changes in the respiratory muscles" is a. true because the elderly are more susceptible to pneumonia due to the rigidity of the thorax and changes in the respiratory muscles.

As people age, their respiratory muscles weaken, resulting in a decrease in the amount of air that can be inhaled and exhaled. The elderly are less able to expel mucus from their lungs due to decreased coughing reflexes and ciliary function, resulting in increased infections in the lower respiratory tract. As a result, pneumonia is one of the most frequent respiratory infections that affects older adults. Hence, a is the correct option.

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Noah decides to eat low-fat foods and begins reading nutrition labels before buying food. What ingredient in low-fat foods might make them unhealthy?

iron
fiber
sodium
protein

Answers

Sodium because its okay if you eat a small portion of it but too much can be bad for you

Answer:

Sodium

Explanation:

Excess sodium increases blood pressure because it holds excess fluid in the body, and that creates an added burden on the heart. Too much sodium will increase your risk of stroke, heart failure, osteoporosis, stomach cancer and kidney disease. ... Even foods such as breads and cereals can have high amounts of salt.

Hi Hope you are having a amazing day but please answer this question.

Answers

Answer:

1. Deadball

2. Volleyballs are made out of leather, high quality leather. An indoor volleyball is made of panels that are glued to the inner lining, so that the seams look more smooth. An outdoor volleyball is made of panels that are sewed to the inner lining because you can see holes and threads holding the panels on the volleyball together.

3. FOOT FAULT

4. The player who passes the ball is called the “passer”. ... Hit/Attack/Spike – Typically the third contact when a player uses one open hand and swings at the ball to send it over the net is called a “hit/attack/spike”. The player who hits the ball is called the “hitter/attacker/spiker”.

5.  Volleyball matches are played to 5 sets. If both teams have 2 sets making the match tied at 2-2. The referee will call back the captains to carry out another coin flip. Again the winner of the coin flip will decide which team will serve or receive.

and for the Unscramble words go to UnscrambleX it helps out this website and then for the short answers

1. An overhand serve in volleyball is a serve in which the player tosses the ball with one hand and strikes it in the air above their head with the other hand. Overhand serving is more advanced than underhand but that does not mean it's impossible.

2. Volleyball also improves muscle strength and tone. The activities required when playing volleyball strengthen the upper body, arms, shoulders, thighs, abdominals, and lower legs.

3. 1.Knee pads to protect the knees when sliding or falling.

   2.Padded shorts to protect the hips when diving for a ball.

   3.Other pads and braces such as elbow or forearm pads, ankle or wrist braces, or thumb splints.

  4.Volleyball shoes for good traction on gym floors and extra padding for comfort.

  5. Mouth guards to protect the teeth, lips, cheeks, and tongue.

4. A rotation occurs after every side out, which is when the receiving team gains the right to serve by winning a rally. The new serving team will rotate clockwise one spot. The purpose of this is to rotate all the players through the serving position. If you continue winning points, you stay in position.

5. Turn your pelvis and the flat surface of your arms to where you want to pass the ball hit the ball in front of you between your knees with the lower third of your forearm.

6. So it's better than you make yourself a little bit late and force yourself to accelerate to the ball. And even if I'm super they at least if I'm behind the ball.

The research part

How to play Volleyball

Practice and heart is the key to be successful in the game. To play volleyball you must know the basics and be able to master them. You have to be willing to put in the practice and get along with your teammates no matter what. There are always six people starting, positions 1,2,3,4,5,6. Positions one and four are the setting positions; the people who play the net. Each time the ball crosses the net your team has three attempts to hit the ball back over. Each individual has a skill they may be better at then others. That is why it is a “team” sport, not a “one-man” game.

Serving, Setting/Blocking, Outside Hitters, Passing, and Defensive Specialist are playing positions. Serving takes a lot of…show more content…

In order to block you follow the opposite team member, watch their feet as they jump for the ball, as they jump you jump with them, your arms straight up side by side. This basically creates a wall for the ball to hit and not break the plane of the net. Another big thing you must watch for aside from the opposing teams kills is their tips. If they knew that you are going to be there for the block then they may barley hit the ball over so it lands right beside or behind you. So you must be able to know whether they are going to tip it or spike it. If you are playing the net you cannot touch the net or cross the line underneath the net or it is called on your team and the opposing team gets the ball back.  

Blocking and setting take practice, but these are two main positions that you would not be able to play volleyball without.

This took a long time but I hope i helped :)

Explanation:

amantadine has been prescribed to a client with huntington disease for the relief of choreiform movements. of which common side effect does the nurse warn the client?

Answers

Amantadine has been prescribed to a client with Huntington's disease to relieve choreiform movements. The most common side effect that a nurse warns the client about is Livedo reticularis.

Amantadine hydrochloride (Symmetrel) is an antiviral medication that also has antiparkinsonian properties. It is used to relieve signs and symptoms such as stiffness, tremors, spasms, and poor muscle control associated with Parkinson's disease and related disorders of the nervous system. However, amantadine may cause some side effects. A nurse should warn the client of the possible side effects before administering the medication.

The most common side effect of amantadine that a nurse warns the client is Livedo reticularis. It is a benign, mottled discoloration of the skin with red-blue patterns. The affected skin appears to have a purplish-red or bluish hue due to reduced blood flow through the capillaries. It may be reversible if the medication is discontinued.

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17. The wing cells of dragonflies have corona and the pinky of green proteins that connect together. In one dragonfly, the structure
of the proteins in the wing cells changed, but the amount of that type of protein in the cell stayed the
same. What happened to the function of that type of protein?

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

The changed protein connects differently, but its function doesn't change.

Answer:

Explanation:

b

Which action would be most appropriate for a neonate whose hemoglobin is 16 g/dl (160 g/l) immediately after birth?

Answers

The appropriate action that can be taken for a neonate whose hemoglobin is 16 g/dl (160 g/l) immediately after birth is to monitor the neonate for any symptoms of polycythemia. The answer will be more than 100 words.The normal range of hemoglobin in neonates is between 14 g/dL to 20 g/dL (140-200 g/L).

Hemoglobin is a protein present in the red blood cells (RBC) and is responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the tissues. Neonates have higher hemoglobin levels compared to adults due to fetal hemoglobin being present in the neonatal blood.Polycythemia is a condition in which there is an excess of RBCs in the blood.

A neonate can develop polycythemia if the hemoglobin level is high, which can cause symptoms such as poor feeding, lethargy, irritability, hypoglycemia, respiratory distress, and hypovolemia. In severe cases, it can lead to seizures, apnea, and death.Therefore, if a neonate's hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL immediately after birth, the most appropriate action that can be taken is to monitor the neonate for any symptoms of polycythemia.

The physician may recommend regular blood tests and keep a watch on the neonate's behavior, urine output, and feeding patterns. In some cases, the neonate may require a partial exchange transfusion to decrease the number of RBCs and decrease the risk of complications associated with polycythemia.

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How can friends and family help someone with an eating disorder

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Friends and family could help by researching and learning more about this struggle. They can find out things they can do like any exercises, special foods, or medicines that can help. Overall just being there for the persona and always supporting them is a great mental help as well. Try not to treat that person so differently because that could offend them. These are just my thoughts. Otherwise, just help them maintain a strict diet of certain foods.

And you and that person should never loose hope. It gets better if you let it! :)

7. When your arm does the blocking move, why is there a slant in your arm? (3 pts)

Answers

Answer:

In order to avoid injuries.

Explanation:

There is a slant in the arm when we used the blocking move because this sloppy direction of the arm helps to stop the attack of the opponent. The word slant means sloppy direction or to give an incline view of something. This slant helps to cover the face and avoid any injuries happens to the face or surrounding region so that's why this sloppy direction of the arm is used by the fighters during fight to avoid the any injuries of the face.

You buy a protein bar. The protein bar has 8grams of fat, 7grams of protein and 15 grams of carbohydrates. What is the total calorie content in this candy bar?

Answers

Answer:

160 calories.

Explanation:

The total calorie content in this candy bar is 160. We know that one gram of protein contains 4 calories so by multiplying it with 7 we get 28 calories from protein, one gram of fat has 9 calories so by multiplying it with 8 we get 72 calories from fats and one gram of carbohydrate contains 4 calories so by multiplying it with 15 we get 60 calories so by adding the calories of protein, fats and carbohydrates we get 160 calories in the protein bar.

What age should teens or adults start taking birth control?

Answers

Age 16 is the most common age for teenagers to start taking the pill. At this age, most young women have established a menstrual cycle. Some teenagers are ready to start the pill at a younger age, but it's crucial to discuss this with a doctor first.

Answer:

Around 15-16 is when teenagers start taking birth control.

Explanation:

About how often should you visit an ophthalmologist?
1.every five years
2.every two years
3.only when you have a problem with your eyes
4.every year

Answers

Explanation:

If you don't have any symptoms or vision problems, doctors recommend getting regular eye exams based on your age: Ages 20 to 39: Every 5 years. Ages 40 to 54: Every 2 to 4 years. Ages 55 to 64: Every 1 to 3 years.

What the other guy said is correct, I think option 1 is your best choice.

a nurses setting up a sterile field to perform wound irrigation for a client. which of the following actions should the nurse take when pouring the sterile solution?

Answers

Place the sterile items within 1 cm of the edge of the sterile border. Hence, option C is correct.

When creating a sterile field, the nurse should place the sterile items within 1 cm of the edge of the sterile border. This ensures that the items remain within the sterile field and minimizes the risk of contamination. Option A is incorrect because the sterile field should be set up above waist level to prevent contamination from droplets or potential contact with the nurse's clothing.

Option B is incorrect because the nurse should hold the bottle of sterile solution away from the label to prevent contamination. Option D is incorrect because the lid of a bottle of sterile solution should not be placed within the sterile field as it is considered non-sterile.

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Complete question - A nurse is planning to perform wound irrigation for a client who has an open secondary wound. When creating a sterile field. which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Set up the sterile field 7.6 cm below waist level

B. Hold the bottle of sterile solution with the palm over the label while pouring

C. Place the sterile items within 1 cm of the edge of the sterile border

D. Place the lid of a bottle of sterile solution within the sterile field.

Final answer:

In aseptic procedures like wound irrigation, a nurse should maintain strict cleanliness, prepare a sterile field, pour the sterile solution from above without touching the sterile field, and review the procedure aloud with the team.

Explanation:

When a nurse is setting up a sterile field for wound irrigation, it's critically important to maintain standard aseptic technique to prevent infection. Pouring the sterile solution should be done carefully to avoid contamination of the sterile field. The following actions should be taken:

Ensure cleanliness: The nurse should start by ensuring their hands and work area are clean. They would typically wash their hands with soap and warm water, then put on sterile gloves. Prepare the sterile field: The nurse would use sterile drapes or a sterile tray to create a clean workspace. This sterile field is kept isolated from potential contaminants. Pour the solution: Holding the bottle or bag of sterile solution high above the sterile field, the nurse would pour the solution gently without touching the sterile field or allowing the solution container to come in contact with the sterile field. Review the process: The nurse may review the steps taken and the items used aloud with the team. This includes the name of the procedure, and checking the labels on the sterile solution.

Aseptic techniques like these are vital in many clinical procedures, as they help to prevent contamination of sterile surfaces, reducing the risk of patient infection and sepsis.

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which provides the nurse with the most reliable basis on which to formulate a nursing diagnosis?

Answers

The data obtained from a comprehensive nursing assessment is the most reliable basis on which to formulate a nursing diagnosis. It provides the nurse with information regarding the client's physical, emotional, mental, and social status, as well as their health history, lifestyle, and daily activities.

A nursing diagnosis is a clinical judgment based on a comprehensive nursing assessment that identifies the client's health status, potential health problems, and healthcare needs. A nursing diagnosis is made up of three components: diagnostic label, related or risk factors, and defining characteristics.

The diagnostic label describes the client's health status or potential health problem. Related or risk factors are the client's specific circumstances or conditions that contribute to the diagnosis while defining characteristics are the observable and measurable signs and symptoms that support the diagnosis.

A nursing diagnosis provides the foundation for nursing interventions, which are planned and implemented to help the client achieve their health goals. It is essential that nurses formulate accurate and appropriate nursing diagnoses to ensure that the client receives safe and effective care.

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why is it important to facilitate the transfer of stimulus control from prompts to natural sds

Answers

To foster independence and the generalisation of abilities, it is crucial to make the transition from prompts to natural sds of stimulus control easier.

When people just use cues to accomplish a task, they could find it difficult to transfer that talent to other contexts or circumstances. Individuals can learn to respond effectively without requiring explicit signals by progressively delegating stimulus control to natural SDs like environmental cues or contextual variables.

This fosters independence and the transfer of skills to a variety of situations. The main objective of skill instruction is to promote independence. Individuals become less dependent on external signals and prompts when stimulus control is switched from prompts to natural SDs. They gain the ability to recognise and react to pertinent cues in their natural surroundings, enhancing their autonomy as they move through daily life.

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An example of a professional characteristic of a health care manager is the ability to?


A. Assist doctors during medical examinations.

B. Recite medical codes.

C. Act as a link between upper management and employees.

D. Perform lab tests and x-rays

Answers

C. Act as a link between upper management and employees. Healthcare managers, often known as healthcare administrators, manage medical services in hospitals, clinics, and medical research facilities, among other settings.

They plan, oversee, and direct medical and healthcare services, as well as handle all of the administrative duties required to keep a healthcare facility running smoothly.A healthcare manager must have the ability to act as a link between upper management and employees as it is one of the most important professional characteristics.

A healthcare manager must be able to communicate effectively with physicians, nurses, patients, and other healthcare professionals, as well as interpret and pass along information from upper management to these parties.An example of a professional characteristic of a health care manager is the ability to act as a link between upper management and employees.

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A patient with a history of sarcoidosis is admitted with increased dyspnea, exercise intolerance, and fatigue. Decreased cardiac output is noted as a result of restrictive cardiomyopathy. Which 3 nursing interventions are necessary for these patients?
a. educating on stress reduction
b. leg elevation to reduce edema
c. ambulation as tolerated
d. low sodium diet

Answers

A patient with a history of sarcoidosis is admitted with increased dyspnea, exercise intolerance, and fatigue. Decreased cardiac output is noted as a result of restrictive cardiomyopathy. The three nursing interventions necessary for this patient are ambulation as tolerated, leg elevation to reduce edema, and education on stress reduction. The correct options are a, b, and c.

Restrictive cardiomyopathy is a rare heart disease in which the myocardium becomes stiff and can no longer relax and fill with blood between heartbeats. In restrictive cardiomyopathy, the heart chambers are of normal or reduced size, and the ventricular walls are usually normal or slightly thickened.

In a patient with a history of sarcoidosis who is experiencing increased dyspnea, exercise intolerance, and fatigue, decreased cardiac output is a result of restrictive cardiomyopathy. As a result, three nursing interventions that are necessary are:

Ambulation as tolerated: Regular exercise can help improve circulation and reduce edema in the legs and feet.Leg elevation to reduce edema: Leg elevation is one of the most effective methods for reducing edema, particularly if it is used in conjunction with other treatments such as compression stockings or massage.Educating on stress reduction: Patients with heart disease are more likely to experience stress, anxiety, and depression. Nurses can help these patients learn relaxation techniques, such as deep breathing exercises, visualization, and guided imagery to help them manage their stress levels.

Hence, a, b, and c are the correct options.

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The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous gentamicin for a severe bacterial infection. Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates the patient is experiencing an adverse effect of gentamycin therapy?
A. Blurred vision
B. Hand tremors
C. Urinary frequency
D. Tinnitus

Answers

The right response is D. Tinnitus.

An unfavourable side effect of gentamicin treatment is tinnitus, which is the sensation of ringing or buzzing in the ears. Ototoxicity (injury to the inner ear) is a recognised adverse effect of the antibiotic gentamicin, which is a member of the aminoglycoside drug family.

Tinnitus may be an early indicator of ototoxicity and needs to be reported right away to the medical professional. The negative effects of gentamicin treatment, such as blurred vision, trembling hands, and frequent urination, may be caused by other diseases or medications.

However, it is crucial that the nurse perform a thorough evaluation of the patient and communicate any alarming results to the practitioner for additional assessment and management  medical professional .

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how common are clavicle dislocations

Answers

Answer:Injuries to the SCJ are rare, comprising less than 1% of all joint dislocations and only 3% of shoulder girdle injuries.

Explanation:

http://brownemblog.com/blog-1/2018/1/5/scj-dislocation#:~:text=Injuries%20to%20the%20SCJ%20are,3%25%20of%20shoulder%20girdle%20injuries.

Other Questions
when did Thomas Edison invent the lightbulb Question 4 of 20:Select the best answer for the question4. Which of the following is an example of a systemic anatomical study?A. Studying the organs within close proximity to each other in the abdomenB. Studying the digestive system from the time food is ingested until it's excretedC. Studying how a person responds to antidepressant medicationsD. Studying the anatomy of the right hand versus thepleft hand in a right-handed person PLEASE ANSWER FOR BRAINLIEST 1. What do quality control standards and practices have to do with the food service industry? Identify several quality control standards and practices that are of critical importance to the food service industry and describe them. Provide scenarios that act as examples of these standards and practices in action within the food service industry.2. Imagine that you have recently been hired as the head of marketing for a small chain of cafes in Tulsa. What marketing strategies will you use to help encourage the success of this caf chain? Describe a combination of traditional and innovative marketing strategies that may be used in the food service industry, briefly explaining how you might employ each strategy.3. You have watched your father run a successful catering business for many years in the hope that one day he would hand that business over to youand that day has arrived. What technical skills have you watched your father demonstrate over the years that have allowed him to deliver quality food service? Describe these skills, how he demonstrated them, how they contributed to his success, and how you will continue these skills for continued success.4. Are there any entrepreneurs that you admire that have also made significant contributions to the food service industry? If so, describe this individual and explain their contributions. If not, spend some time online exploring and find an entrepreneur (different from the ones mentioned in the unit) that has made significant contributions to the food service industry and describe this individual.5. Consider the town that you live in the economy, the businesses that exist, the culture. Now imagine that you have already acquired a degree in culinary arts and several food service certifications, and you are ready to become an entrepreneur in the food service industrywhat will you do? Evaluate and examine various entrepreneurship opportunities that you might be interested in.I NEED HELP WITH THIS ASAP, THIS IS FOR CULINARY ARTS. I'll GIVE 100 POINTS. a few major airlines account for the vast majority of air travel. consumers view all airlines as providing basically the same service and will shop around for the lowest price The market price of Northern Mills stock has been relatively volatile and you think this volatility will continue for a couple more months. Thus, you decide to purchase a two-month European call option on this stock with a strike price of $30 and an option price of $1.60. You also purchase a two-month European put option on the stock with a strike price of $30 and an option price of $.20. Contracts are on 100 shares. What will be your net profit or loss on these option positions if the stock price is $36 on the day the options expire Which expression is equivalent to (-3)x+(3)(-12)? Read the following sentence:I am.Which revision below includes a prepositional phrase?Here I am!O I am here and alone.O I am in here.O I am alone here. justify the need of present constitution Make your program in java so that, for an argument of 2 and a fixed heap size (384 bytes), it runs out of memory using reference counting but not using mark-sweep.More precisely, your program should give process return code 5 for RefCount -heapsize 384 myprog 2but give process return code 0 for MarkSweep -heapsize 384 myprog 2 Flighty Forsure, world traveler, says if the airlines want to attract more passengers, they should lower fares for business travelers as well as for vacationers. What is the economists view of this policy position?A. A Great Idea!B. Wrong! Vacationers demand for plane tickets is inelastic so the price should be decreased.C. Wrong! Business travelers demand for plane tickets is inelastic so the price should be increased.D. When price is dropped for an inelastic product, TR rise. how did islam spread? Write a paragraph Jericho has m paintings and n drawings. He sold his paintings for $x each and drawings for $y each. His earnings for one day arerepresented by the expression given below.x(m) + y(m- 12)Which statement best describes the term (m - 12)?A. It is the number of paintings sold, which was 12 more than the number of drawings sold.B. It is the number of drawings sold, which was 12 more than the number of paintings sold.C. It is the number of paintings sold, which was 12 less than the number of drawings sold.D. It is the number of drawings sold, which was 12 less than the number of paintings sold. In 2021, Johnny-Lu had the following transactions: Salary $92,000 Short-term capital gain from a stock investment 6,000 Moving expense to change jobs (11,000) Receipt of repayment of $20,000 loan she made to her sister in 2015 (includes no interest) 20,000 State income taxes (5,000) Johnny-Lus AGI is: a. $103,000. b. $98,000. c. $94,000. d. $83,000. Complete the two-way frequency table below, which shows the relationship between adults' gender and whether these adults buy a truck or a car for their first new vehicle. From a sample of 94 adults, the following data are collected: Truck Car TotalFemale 9 36 Male 18 31 Total 94What is the probability (rounded to the nearest whole percent) that an adult will buy a car, given that he is a male? Are the events being male and buying a car independent? (1 point)63%; they are dependent46%; they are dependent63%; they are independent33%; they are independent business law: Fiona offers to sell her car for RM50 000 to SimonShe made this offer while they were playing golf on Sunday Fionainformed him that if he wishes to buy the car, he must let her knowby Why have so many service jobs become available in Georgia?They dont require any skills.Service industries are some of the fastest growing areas.The government pays extra money to employees in the service industry.All of the technical jobs go to other states. A swimming pool measures 25.8 meters by 11.9 meters. It is filled with water to a depth of 1.1 meters. The pool is emptied by a tube that emits 29.8 liters per second. Estimate the approximate time required to empty the pool a business woman bought a personal computer for $108000.calculate her selling price on the personal computer if she wants to make profit of 25% Sand will be placed under the base of a circular pool with a diameter of 20 feet. 1 bag of sand covers about 6 square feet. How many bags of sand are needed? Use 3.14 for pi. Round bags up.