The nurse recognize Skin lesi-ons as an indication that an infection or cys-ts are present
What is a physical assessment ?Your primary care practitioner will likely conduct a physical examination as part of routine testing to assess your general health. A practitioner can be either a physician or a physician assistant. Exams are frequently referred to as wellness checks.
The nurse checks the external geni-talia during a physical examination, checking for anomalies such skin blemishes and urethral discharge. In an uncirc-umcised male, prepuce covering the glans pe-nis is a typical finding. The scrotum is typically pendulous, and as people age, they get more so.The physical examination, one of the three pillars of the diagnostic evaluation, enables one to validate the suspected diagnosis based on the history without incurring any additional costs. The results of a physical examination also reveal the kind and severity of the condition.Learn more about Physical assessment here:
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a nursing student is preparing to administer the drug bethanechol to a client with urinary retention. after researching the drug’s actions and uses, the student demonstrates understanding of the drug by identifying it as which type of medication? select all that apply.
the nurse is providing care for a patient with a terminal illness. the patient states, "i am finished with feeling so sick. i just want to die." which comment indicates the nurse is experiencing an ethical struggle?
Nurse says, You must have trust in the possibility of a brighter future. Doctors may potentially declare that the condition because of cancer is fatal. This indicates that it will probably result in death within a short time.
It's hard to say how long, although it might be a few weeks to many months states a Nurse. According to a Nurse, You may experience distinct effects, as well as those of the people closest to you. Despite continuing to top the list of causes of mortality, cancer has gradually fewer hospice admissions and deaths due to new developments in cancer treatment. Doctors and nurse states that Less than 1 in 4 deaths in the United States are due to cancer.
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an 85 year old person has a urinary tract infection. what clinical manifestation does the healthcare professional expect to see in this person?
Seniors experiencing UTIs show a sudden change in behavior and symptoms such as: Frequent falls, confusion and dizziness.
Older people are susceptible to UTIs due to weaker flow of urine. An enlarged prostate in men, also make it difficult to empty the bladder completely. This causes bacteria to be build up in the urine and bladder.
Mostly, older people recover from urinary tract infection at home with use of an antibiotic. Older women who develop UTIs frequently should be given an estrogen cream to apply regularly.
UTIs in older people as well as in younger men would require a longer duration of antibiotic therapy than UTIs in young women. Women usually do not have complicated infections.
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a nurse is teaching a group of pregnant women about the signs that labor is approaching. when describing these signs, which sign would the nurse explain as being essential for effacement and dilation (dilatation) to occur?
Cervical ripening and softening sign would the nurse explain as being essential for effacement and dilation (dilatation) to occur.
What is Cervical ripening?During pregnancy, the cervix has two main functions. First, it maintains its physical integrity by remaining strong during pregnancy when the uterus expands dramatically. That physical integrity is critical for the developing foetus to remain in the womb until the time of proper delivery. Second, in preparation for labour, the cervix softens and dilates, a process called cervical ripening. These chemical and physical changes are necessary for cervical dilation, labour and delivery of the foetus.
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the socioecological model of health and wellness emphasizes the interrelationships between individuals and their environment. what are some of the environmental factors it takes into consideration? multiple select question.
the socioecological model of health and wellness emphasizes the interrelationships between individuals and their environment. A built environment of relationships with other people's community resources.
A relationship is a close bond between two or more entities, whether they are people or things. There are interconnections all around us. Many of these are obvious and supported by common sense, such as the link between the amount of time spent practicing a sport or musical instrument and their success.
The relationship between the ball's descent speed and the steepness of the ramp is even more straightforward. An interrelationship is when two or more things have an impact on each other or are interconnected, but an interdependence is when two or more things are dependent on each other. Even if two objects were dependent on each other, they can still be related without being mutually dependent.
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1. describe the principles of respiratory and cardiovascular anatomy and physiology. 2. describe the function and role of the respiratory and cardiovascular systems in oxygenation. 3. describe age-related differences that influence the care of patients with oxygenation problems. 4. identify factors that affect respiratory and cardiovascular function. 5. perform a cardiopulmonary assessment using appropriate interview questions and physical assessment skills. 6. develop nursing diagnoses that correctly identify problems that may be treated by independent nursing interventions. 7. describe nursing strategies to promote adequate oxygenation and identify their rationale. 8. plan, implement, and evaluate nursing care related to select nursing diagnoses involving oxygenation problems.
1.Pulmonary Ventilation 2.Gas exchange occurs with the intake of oxygen and release of carbon dioxide 3.Respiratory Activity in the INFANT 4.-Integrity of the airway system to transport air to and from lungs.5.Inspection of the patient's breathing pattern 6.oxygenation
Inspiration: the active phase of ventilation; Involves movement of muscles and the thorax to bring air into the lungs.Expiration: the passive phase of ventilation; Movement of air out of the lungs.Made possible by respiration and perfusionOccurs via diffusion (movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air and blood).-Lungs are transformed from fluid-filled structures to air-filled organs.-Properly functioning alveolar system in lungs.
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Electronic communication can be a very effective way of communicating. What formats are you aware of in electronic communications and what may be some disadvantages to these methods of communication
Electronic communication can be a very effective way of communicating. The formats are we aware of in electronic communications are numerous ways to communicate electronically, including but not limited to: email, newsgroups on social media, video conferencing, instant messaging, phone, and fax.
Today, there is a huge variety of technological communication options available. It can be roughly classified into interactive and non-interactive categories. Electronic communications that are not interactive are those to which the recipient cannot respond. Technology's rapid advancement necessitates additional investment as well. Legal status: Data or information sent via fax may be corrupted and have no value in court. Data that was not delivered: Data that was lost due to a system malfunction or a technical issue. These are negatives.
Communications over the Internet are swift and practical. Even though electronic communication is quick, cheap, and handy, these benefits come with drawbacks. Technology that makes it possible for individuals to be in touch at all times may also invade privacy and take away from important downtime.
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what is the first step in wound treatment, which involves removal of dirt, foreign bodies, damaged tissue, and cellular debris? group of answer choices curettage débridement escharotomy cauterization
Answer:
Escharotomy is the first procedurea client who is complaining of nausea and vomiting postoperatively receives a prescription for metoclopramide (reglan) 10 mg iv. the medication is available in vials containing 5 mg/ml. how many ml should the nurse administer? (enter numeric value only.)
The nurse should administer only 2ml of the prescribed medication.
What is medication?A medication can be described as a drug used to diagnose, cure, treat, or prevent disease.
If a client who is complaining of nausea and vomiting postoperatively receives a prescription for metoclopramide (reglan) 10 mg iv. the medication is available in vials containing 5 mg/ml, the nurse should administer 2ml of the prescribed metoclopramide (reglan).
There are generally 4 types of medication one can come across and they include:
General Sales List.Pharmacy Medicines.Prescription Only Medicines.Controlled Drugs.Medication can serve the following purposes :
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the nurse is assessing a client with an older arteriovenous (av) graft for hemodialysis access in the left arm. the client reports significant pain to the distal left arm. capillary refill in the left hand is greater than 4 seconds. which should the nurse assess before contacting the health care provider?
Answer:
Explanation:
pulse, movement, check for numbness, a fuzzy feeling. take blood work make sure the client is stable. than contact a health care provider
Answer: Check AV graft for complications (good to check other vitals and utilise your nursing assessment skills, but this could be an emergent problem so act quickly as to not delay calling the Doctor!)
Explanation:
An arteriovenous (AV) graft is a surgically constructed vascular access point inside the blood vessel structure of the patient's arm (think like adding a straw between a vein and and artery). It is used to exchange (in and out) blood during hemodialysis (when you use a machine to clean to blood such as when kidneys are failing). AV grafts however necessary have some risky possible complications including Ischemic Steal Syndrome and thrombosis. So check the AV graft, assess area surrounding it (already done to some extent with getting cap refill), and call the doctor!
Note: I think getting blood work would be a very bad idea before calling the doctor as blood work should be ordered by the Health Care Provider not the nurse (nurses don't write lab orders). Even if the nurse say had a prewritten lab which needed to be drawn, blood work can take a longtime, AV graft complications would likely not show in lab results (as blood flow not blood content is likely the problem), and the fact the the patient has a AV graft leads a nurse to worry about AV complications as a first culprit. Thus blood work should probably not be taken at this time!
what would you tell someone who is considering taking chromium supplements for weight loss and diabetes?
There have been no proven benefits of taking chromium supplements in weight loss and diabetes, therefore i'd suggest them to quit using those supplements.
What are the effects of chromium on body composition and weight loss?Chromium is a necessary vitamin that controls how carbohydrates and lipids are broken down. Humans and agricultural animals frequently consume less chromium than is ideal through their normal diets. In addition to altering how glucose, insulin, and lipids are metabolized, chromium has also been shown to enhance lean body mass and lower body fat percentage, which may help people lose weight. Animal studies support chromium's effects on body composition, which strengthens their validity despite the fact that they are debatable.
The way chromium affects a subject depends on their diet, the type and amount of supplemental chromium they take, and the length of the study. Nutritional studies have not found any evidence of chromium's harmful effects.
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Alphanumerically sequenced list of all diagnosis codes divided into 21 chapters based on cause, or etiology, and body system can be found in what section of the icd-10 manual?.
The Index is an alphanumeric list of all diagnosis codes divided into 21 chapters based on cause (or etiology) and body system. Subterms are words that are indented beneath the boldfaced Main Term and describe variations of the condition.
An alphanumeric sequence is one that contains both alphabets and numbers. Along with alphabets and numbers, we can include symbols in this sequence. Alphanumeric data is data that contains both letters and numbers. "1a2b3c," for example, is a short string of alphanumeric characters. The term alphanumeric is frequently used to describe the presence of text that can be entered or used in a field, such as an alphanumeric password field.
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a young client gives birth to twin boys who shared the same placenta. what serious complication are they at risk for?
By sharing the same placenta Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) is occurred.
TTTS, or twin-twin transfusion syndrome, is an uncommon but deadly illness that can develop during pregnancy. When a placenta is shared by identical twins, this occurs (monochorionic). The placenta develops abnormal blood vessel connections. They permit the fetuses' blood to circulate inequitably. Dehydration affects one twin, known as the donor. High blood pressure appears in the recipient twin, the other twin. The recipient overfills the amniotic sac by excreting too much urine.
The placenta is afflicted with TTTS. The impact varies for every twin. Urine production on the donor twin is below average. The result is inadequate fetal growth and insufficient amniotic fluid. The donor twin excretes more pee than usual. The result is a larger bladder and an excess of amniotic fluid.
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HELP ASAP PLEASE. PHARMACEUTICAL CALCULATIONS Alligations
Prepare 480 mL of a 1:20 solution using a 1:10 solution and a 1:50 solution.
To prepare 480 mL of a 1:20 solution using a 1:10 solution and a 1:50 solution, it requires 3 parts of 1:10 solution and 5 parts of 1:50 solution.
Total volume = 480 ml
Concentrations:
• 1:20 = 1/20 = 0.05
• 1:10 = 1/10 = 0.1
• 1:50 = 1/50 = 0.02
On solving, 0.05 – 0.02 = 0.03
0.1 – 0.05 = 0.05
Total = 0.03 + 0.05 = 0.08
Therefore,
480 * (0.03 / 0.08) = 180 (3 parts)
480 * (0.05 / 0.08) = 300 (5 parts)
Total = 180 + 300 = 480 / 8 = 60 = 1 part
Thus, to prepare 480 mL of a 1:20 solution using a 1:10 solution and a 1:50 solution, it requires 3 parts of 1:10 solution and 5 parts of 1:50 solution.
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for which of the following enteric illnesses is a chronic carrier state most likely to develop? check all that apply. question 11 options: a) cholera b) salmonella enterocolitis c) typhoid fever d) campylobacter enterocolitis e) shigella enterocolitis
The enteric illnesses are a chronic carrier state most likely to develop for a) cholera b) salmonella enterocolitis c) typhoid fever d) campylobacter enterocolitis e) shigella enterocolitis are all applicable or accurate.
The microorganisms that cause intestinal illness, such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites, are most likely to cause enteric illness, a chronic carrier state. These enteric bacteria can cause gastrointestinal infections including salmonella enterocolitis, shigella enterocolitis, and campylobacter enterocolitis. These are all gram-positive bacteria that enter the body orally when contaminated food or drink is consumed. Thus, all of these are used or accurate.
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a victim is receiving emergency oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. which flow rate is appropriate to use with this victim?
A victim is receiving emergency oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. 12 LPM flow rate is appropriate to use with this victim.
A non-rebreather mask has a flow rate of roughly 10 to 15 liters per minute (L/min) and can deliver between 60 and 80 percent oxygen. Since they can swiftly transport oxygen to your blood, they are helpful when patients have dangerously low blood oxygen levels.
A partial rebreather mask has a two-way valve between the mask and reservoir bag but otherwise has a similar appearance to a non-rebreather mask. You can breathe a little bit back into the reservoir bag thanks to the valve.
Since the oxygen concentration in the reservoir bag becomes diluted, it is challenging to achieve the same high blood oxygen concentration using a partial rebreather.
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a client with poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, and decreased urinary output is admitted to the acute care facility. which actions should be included in the plan of care? select all that apply.
A client with poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, and decreased urinary output is admitted to the acute care facility therefore the plan of care will be administering I.V. and oral fluids and is denoted as option A.
What is Skin turgor?This is referred to as the elasticity of the skin and it is used to test if a person is dehydrated or not. In a situation where it takes longer for your skin to return to its usual position after being stretched then it signifies dehydration.
Dehydration is very dangerous as the fluids in the body are at a minimum value thereby resulting in a decreased urinary output and a dry mucous membranes.
Administering I.V. and oral fluids is the care needed in this scenario as it helps to replenish the lost fluids and nutrients which is why option A was chosen as the correct choice.
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The options are:
A. Administering I.V. and oral fluids
B. Clustering necessary activities throughout the day
C. Assessing color, odor, and amount of sputum
D. Monitoring serum albumin and total protein level
a nurse researcher analyzes data trends of obesity in both the united states and globally. what statistics does the nurse determine is true regarding the epidemiology of obesity? select all that apply.
A nurse researcher analyzed trends in obesity data in the United States and data globally. The statistics determined by nurses regarding the epidemiology of obesity include:
Over 600 million adults have obesity worldwideThe prevalence of obesity has more than doubled since 1975The prevalence of obesity in the United States is the highest in the worldThe United States (US) is the country with the highest obesity rate in the world. This makes the US government make obesity a problem that needs to be considered, for the health of its citizens. In recent years, health observers have categorized obesity as the spread of a deadly disease.
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a parent has brought her 2-week-old infant to the emergency department due to the infant's persistent and increasing jaundice. laboratory testing reveals indirect bilirubin level is 28 mg/dl (479 µmol/l), but otherwise a normal physical assessment. which intervention will most likely be prescribed for this infant?
Phototherapy should be advice as the infants bilirubin level is 28 mg/dl .
A level of indirect bilirubin at or above 20-25 mg/dl may cause irritation in some areas of the brain. This is called acute encephalopathy (inflammation of the brain). If the bilirubin remains very high, above 25 mg/dl, babies can be at risk for significant brain damage. This very rare condition is called kernicterus.
Phototherapy is treatment with a special type of light (not sunlight). It's sometimes used to treat newborn jaundice by making it easier for your baby's liver to break down and remove the bilirubin from your baby's blood.
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question 23 which statement about fat replacers is false? a. fat-based fat replacers are heat stable and used in cake mixes. b. olestra is an artificial fat that delivers a small amount of energy. c. they provided the taste and texture of fats, but with fewer kcalories. d. olestra is fortified with vitamins a, d, e, and k. e. carbohydrate-based fat replacers are used as thickeners in soups.
This statement about fat replacers is false c. they provided the taste and texture of fats, but with fewer k calories.
Fat replacers may be divided into categories, i.e., fats substitutes and fats mimetics. Fat substitutes are molecules that own the bodily and useful traits of traditional fats molecules (e.g., triglycerides). Fat substitutes can immediately update traditional fats molecules in ingredients on a weight-for-weight basis.
They are commonly artificial molecules which give no power energy or established lipid molecules which give decreased power energy. Fat substitutes can efficaciously preserve the palatability of ingredients as they are able to reproduce the feel and mouthfeel of fats.
They are typically warmness solid and appropriate for excessive temperature cooking and frying applications. They might not reproduce the flavor residences of fats as fats itself presents flavour to ingredients and is a provider of different fats-soluble flavour compounds in ingredients.
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a client is scheduled for a spinal fusion to treat spinal stenosis. for which reason might the nurse anticipate surgery being delayed because of the risk for postoperative complications?
Patients who get spinal stenosis in the spine are given braces to wear while recovering (often 3 to 6 months), whenever they are up and about. There should be no lifting by the client.
The patient doesn't have to stay in bed. It is not required to use anti-rejection medications for this operation. When there is not enough room inside the spine, spinal stenosis develops. The spinal cord and spine-traveling nerves may be compressed as a result. The neck and lower back are the parts where spinal stenosis mostly develops. Symptomless spinal stenosis can occur in some people. Other people may feel discomfort, tingling, numbness, and muscle weakness. Over time, symptoms in the spine could worsen.
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You are working in an outpatient surgical clinic in the preoperative holding area. Each patient is monitored with a
pulse oximeter. You check Mrs. O'Shaughnessy's fingers and notice that they are cold to the touch and have poor blood
return. What should you do?
You check Mrs. O'Shaughnessy's fingers and notice that they are cold to the touch and have poor blood the very first thing i will do that i will check all vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, temperature) refer to the physician in charge of the patient. In this patient who looks pale with a slight grimace on general survey, with irregular and bounding pulses, the differential diagnoses with be: (1) cardiac pathology, (2) hemorrhagic shock, or (3) severe anemia. The attending physician shall be informed immediately for the proper management to be ordered.
What are the basic diagnosis administered to the patient?The basic diagnosis administered to the patient are (blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, temperature) refer to the physician in charge of the patient. In this patient who looks pale with a slight grimace on general survey, with irregular and bounding pulses, the differential diagnoses with be: (1) cardiac pathology, (2) hemorrhagic shock, or (3) severe anemia.
Therefore, the very first thing i will do that i will check all vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate, temperature) refer to the physician in charge of the patient.
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the nurse is assessing a 5-month-old asian american infant whose mother has brought him to the clinic with reports that the baby is pulling at the ear and is sleepless and crying at night. when assessing the infant's ears, what color cerumen would the nurse expect to find?
Grey colour cerumen would the nurse expect to find.
What is cerumen?Earwax, also known by the medical term cerumen, is a brown, orange, red, yellowish or grey waxy substance that is secreted into the ear canal of humans and other mammals. It protects the skin of the human ear canal, helps clean and lubricate, and protects against bacteria, fungi and water.
Anyone who has accidentally tasted earwax knows that it has a terrible sour taste, inside that earwax is usually acidic. We know that acidic foods also taste acidic, so the different taste of earwax makes sense.
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While assessing the thoracic area of an adult client, the nurse plans to auscultate for voice sounds. To assess bronchophony, the nurse should ask the client to.
Answer:
epeat the phrase "ninety-nine"
Explanation:
the nurse cares for a client with obesity and discusses the increased risk of certain cancers related to obesity. which cancers will the nurse include in the teaching? select all that apply.
Breast, Colorectal, Cervical are the type of cancers nurse include in the teaching.
A condition known as cancer occurs when some body cells grow out of control and spread to other body regions. Since the human body contains billions of cells, cancer can develop practically everywhere. Human cells typically proliferate and divide (via a process called cell division) to create new cells as the body requires them. Cells die when they are old or injured, and new cells replace them.
When this routine process fails, aberrant or damaged cells begin to proliferate and develop when they shouldn't. Tumors tissue growths can develop from these cells. Tumors can either be cancerous or not (benign).
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which division of the us department of health and human services (dhhs) is responsible for providing funding for research related to cancer treatment
The National Cancer Institute (NCI) is the top federal organization for cancer education and research. The National Cancer Institute (NCI) was founded in 1937 in accordance with the National Cancer Institute Act, and it is one of the 11 organizations that make up the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).
What is National Institutes of Health?The United States Department of Health and Human Services' National Institutes of Health (NIH) is the country's medical research organization, making significant discoveries that advance healthcare and save lives. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and the National Institutes of Health (NIH) collaborate to advance public health by encouraging the development of new medical treatments and products based on results from fundamental and clinical research. The Nation's medical and behavioral research is overseen by NIH. Its goal is to discover fundamental truths about the nature and function of living systems and to use those truths to improve health, extend life, and lessen disease and impairment.To learn more about National Institutes of Health refer to:
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siu al on behalf of the u.s. preventive services task force. screening for breast cancer: u.s. preventive services task force recommendation statement. ann intern med. 164(4):279-96, 2016.
For women 50 to 74 years old, the USPSTF advises biennial screening mammography. (B recommendation) It should be up to each woman to decide whether to begin mammogram screening before turning 50.
This advice is applicable to asymptomatic women 40 years of age and older who do not have breast cancer that has already developed, have not had a high-risk breast cancer lesion previously diagnosed, and who are not at high risk for breast cancer due to a known underlying genetic mutation (such as a BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutation, other familial breast cancer syndrome, or a history of chest radiation as a child).mammography is a very serious issue in middle aged women.
Effectiveness of breast cancer screening in reducing breast cancer-specific and all-cause mortality, as well as the incidence of advanced breast cancer and treatment-related morbidity; harms of breast cancer screening; test performance characteristics of digital breast tomosynthesis as a primary screening strategy.
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a pregnant client at 10 weeks' gestation is receiving education by the nurse about the importance of abstaining from alcohol while pregnant. what statement made by the client demonstrates an understanding of the education provided?
To stop the emergence of a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, abstain from alcohol. The client's decision to abstain from alcohol while pregnant may help to prevent congenital illnesses including fetal alcohol spectrum disorders.
Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders are congenital conditions brought on by the mother's consumption of an unknown amount of alcohol while the foetus is still in the developing phases of growth. Although abstaining from alcohol won't prevent all congenital abnormalities, clients should be informed about a range of preventative steps to avoid interfering with the fetus's growth, development and fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. Idiopathic illnesses are those for which the underlying etiology is unknown. Pregnancy substance use has little impact on a hereditary illness because it is genetic in nature.
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specific amounts of each nutrient that one needs to consume to maintain good health, prevent chronic diseases, and avoid unhealthy excesses are called group of answer choices
The Recommended Dietary Allowance is the average amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of 97 to 98 percent of people of a similar age and gender. The Recommended Dietary Allowance for a nutrient is the amount of that nutrient that a person should consume on a daily basis in order to maintain good health.
Vitamin C, vitamin D, zinc, selenium, iron, and protein are examples of nutrients that have been identified as essential for immune cell growth and function (including the amino acid glutamine). They can be found in a variety of plant and animal foods.Saturated fat, sodium, and added sugars are nutrients listed on the label that may be associated with negative health effects – and Americans generally consume far too much of them, according to the recommended daily allowance.
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You receive a prescription for Ocuflox, the instructions read: Instill 2 gtts into the
right eye q8h for 7 days. Calculate how many drops the patient will receive in 7
days?
Answer: 28 drops
Explanation:
The person is prescribed Ocuflox, and here, 2 drops are put in the right eye for 7 days, so the total number of drops the patient will receive in 7 days is 42 drops that can cure the person from the disease.
What is the significance of the Ocuflox drug?The individual receives the prescription for putting the two drops in the right eye for the duration of eight hours, and these are the antibiotic eye drops that are used to treat various types of bacterial infections of the eye, such as conjunctivitis, corneal ulcers, etc. As a result, when using the drug, eye health is instilled and improvements are seen.
Hence, the person is prescribed Ocuflox, and here, 2 drops are put in the right eye for 7 days, so the total number of drops the patient will receive in 7 days is 42 drops that can cure the person from the disease.
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