The blood gas report that most likely reflects the acid-base balance of an infant with severe dehydration is pH of 7.20 and [tex]HCO_{3}[/tex] of 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L). This levels indicates metabolic acidosis. So the correct option is C.
What is metabolic acidosis?It is a disorder of acid-base balance in which there are many acidic components in the blood plasma. It can be caused by some increase in proton generation, because the kidneys are unable to excrete hydrogen, or by loss of bicarbonate from the kidney or intestinal tract.
In the case of the infant, the blood gas report may be due to chronic diarrhea since he is also dehydrated.
Therefore, we can confirm that the blood gas report that most likely reflects the acid-base balance of an infant with severe dehydration is pH of 7.20 and [tex]HCO_{3}[/tex] of 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L). This levels indicates metabolic acidosis. So the correct option is C.
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Which blood gas report most likely reflects the acid-base balance of an infant with severe dehydration?
a) pH of 7.50 and [tex]PCO_{2}[/tex] of 34 mm Hg
b) pH of 7.23 and [tex]PCO_{2}[/tex] of 70 mm Hg
c) pH of 7.20 and [tex]HCO_{3}[/tex] of 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L)
d) pH of 7.56 and [tex]HCO_{3}[/tex] of 30 mEq/L (30 mmol/L)
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in what phase does the cell begin to split the cytoplasm and daughter cells first become visible in mitosis?
the proteins that bind to the promoter region of a eukaryotic gene to facilitate binding of rna polymerase are called
Transcription factors are the proteins that bind to the promoter region of a eukaryotic gene to facilitate binding of RAN polymerase.
What are transcription factors?
In molecular biology, transcription factors are classified as the proteins which are responsible for the transcription of DNA into RNA.
These factors consists of a large number of protein molecules that begin and regulate the rate of gene transcription.
In general, transcription factors are mostly associated with the regulation of gene expression, and also responsible for controlling the extent and degree to which genes are expected to be expressed.
Simply put, these proteins combine with particular DNA sequences and control the process during which DNA are transcribed into mRNA.
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What is the term for the expanded segment of the spinal cord where nerves that serve the shoulder and upper limbs exit?.
The expanded segment of the spinal cord, where nerves that serve the shoulder and upper limbs exit is known as cervical enlargement.
What is spinal cord?The spinal cord is an extension of the central nervous system (CNS), which consists of the brain and spinal cord. The spinal cord begins at the lower part of the brainstem (the area of the medulla oblongata) and ends at the waist where it tapers to form a cone called the spinal cord cone. It is a long cylindrical structure that connects the brain to the waist. It contains tissues, fluids, and nerve cells. A bony spine surrounds and protects the spinal cord. The spinal cord helps carry electrical nerve signals throughout the body.
The spinal cord and spinal column are divided into four regions from top to bottom:
Cervical Thoracic Lumbar SacralAn injury to the upper part of the spinal cord can paralyze most of the body and affect all limbs (called quadriplegia). A lower spinal cord injury can lead to leg and lower body paralysis (called paraplegia).
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Where is new lithosphere created
A divergent boundary
B convergent boundary
C transform boundary
PLEASE HURRY
what are the two major subdivisions of the nervous system?
The two major subdivisions of the nervous system
Central nervous system (CNS) Peripheral nervous system (PNS). The brain and spinal cord make up the central nervous system; the rest of the body is made up of the peripheral nervous system. The brain receives signals from the spinal cord to process.The cranial cavity of the skull houses the brain, while the vertebral cavity of the vertebral column houses the spinal cord. The word "peripheral nervous system" refers to the location of the nervous system, which is outside of the brain and spinal cord. Saying that the CNS is what is inside these two compartments and the peripheral nervous system is what is outside of them is a bit oversimplified, but it is one way to begin to think about it.The distinction between central and peripheral nervous systems is not always universal and depends on several features of the nervous system. In reality, a few peripheral nervous system components are located in the cranial or vertebral cavities. The nervous system's "power plant" has been referred to as the peripheral nervous system. It functions similarly to a system that gathers data and issues commands. The autonomic nervous system and the sensory-somatic nervous system are the other two divisions of the PNS. Later on, both will be covered in more detail.To know more about nervous system check the below link:
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certain unicellular eukaryotes, including diatoms and some yeasts, have mechanisms of nuclear division that resemble intermediate steps in the evolution of mitosis. which of the following is a characteristic feature of nuclear division in these organisms?
The characteristic feature of nuclear division in unicellular eukaryotes is that chromosomes are separated by the mitotic spindle, but the nuclear envelope remains intact during division.
Eukaryotes are organisms with cells that have a nucleus and other membranous organelles. Unicellular is a single-celled organism. Unicellular organisms usually live in 2 ways, namely individually, and in colonies (gathering). Unicellular organisms are simpler than multicellular organisms.
Unicellular eukaryotic organisms are unicellular and eukaryotes. They are membrane-bound true nuclei and other membrane-bound organelles. Examples of eukaryotic unicellular organisms are fungi, yeasts, protozoa, and protists.
In unicellular organisms such as bacteria, cell division is carried out for the process of breeding or producing new individuals to maintain the continuity of the bacterial species.
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Which body system is formed by all the structures that move blood through the body?.
Answer:
The vascular system, also called the circulatory system
Explanation:
PLSSS HELP IF YOU TURLY KNOW THISS
Answer:
Energy
Explanation:
it's not/can't be any of the other answers
A food chain shows animals that survive off of each other's existence (ex. grass-rabbit-hawk) and energy is basically a fancy word for food (because food gives us energy).
A food chain represents one possible path that energy can flow through an ecosystem. (food = energy )
1. a (n)blank inhibitor has a structure that is so similar to the substrate that it can bond to the enzyme just like the substrate.target 1 of 6 2. a (n)blank inhibitor binds to a site on the enzyme that is not the active site.target 2 of 6 3. usually, a(n) blank inhibitor forms a covalent bond with an amino acid side group within the active site, which prevents the substrate from entering the active site or prevents catalytic activity.target 3 of 6 4. the competitive inhibitor competes with the substrate for the blank on the enzyme.target 4 of 6 5. when the noncompetitive inhibitor is bonded to the enzyme, the shape of the blank is distorted.target 5 of 6 6. enzyme inhibitors disrupt normal interactions between an enzyme and its blank.target 6 of 6
1. Competitive inhibitor
2. Noncompetitive inhibitor
3. Irreversible inhibitor
4. Active site on the enzyme.
5. Bonded to the enzyme
6. Enzyme and its substrate.
What are inhibitors?A clotting factor concentrate-induced immune response known as an inhibitor renders conventional replacement therapy ineffective.
Competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for an enzyme's active site on a physical and structural level; they can be defeated by the addition of more substrate. Noncompetitive inhibitors prevent enzyme activity by attaching elsewhere and altering the enzyme's structure rather than vying for the active site. Irreversible inhibitors form covalent connections with the enzyme's active site to attach there directly, altering the enzyme's structure and rendering it irreversibly inactive. The majority of medicines are some sort of enzyme inhibitor.
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Can someone please check my work
Answer:
Your answers are correct.
Where do the atp and nadph produced during the light-dependent reactions go when the process is complete?.
The ATP and NADPH produced during the light-dependent reactions reach the stroma of the chloroplast for the light-independent reactions to be accomplished.
The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis are the reactions that trap the sunlight energy and convert it into usable forms of energy i.e., ATP and NADPH. This is done by the excitation of electrons and passing it through a series of transporters.
Light-independent reactions are those that use the products of light-dependent reactions in order to synthesize food for the plant in the form of sugars like glucose or sucrose. The first process of light-independent reaction is Calvin cycle.
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if inside environment is high in solute and outside environment is high in solvent hypo or hypertonic
The concentration of solutes in hypertonic solutions is higher than that of the cell. Water rushes out as a result, causing the cell to shrivel or wrinkle.
What kinds of solutions are hypertonic examples?Blood has a lower amount of solutes particles than hypertonic fluids. 3% Normal Saline (3% NaCl) is an illustration of an IV solution that is hypertonic. The intravascular space has a higher amount of dissolved solutes than the cells when hypertonic fluids are injected.
Which three hypotonic solutions are there?When used as hypotonic intravenous solutions, hypotonic saline solutions, such as 0.45% sodium chloride, 0.25% sodium chloride just without sucrose, 2.5% dextrose solution, etc., are hypotonic with regard to blood serum.
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The matter that is composed of myelinated and unmyelinated axons and is superficial to the gray matter of the spinal cord is called matter.
One of the two parts of the nervous system is white matter. It makes up the of the deep portions of the brain as well as the superficial portions of the spinal cord, is primarily composed of glial cells myelinated axons.
What causes myelination of an axon?The innermost sheet-like glial activity in touch with the axon spirals around it and spins out several overlapping membrane layers to generate myelin in the PNS and CNS. Outermost and innermost layers of a myelin sheath are the only ones where cytoplasm is ejected.
How do you refer to unmyelinated axons?Both peptidergic and nonpeptidergic C-fiber axons are found in unmyelinated, or type C, fibers, which are used for mechanical sensitivity. They are completely devoid of the myelin envelope, and the Remak fibers that are found in bundles within nerve fibers are formed by Schwann cells that surround them.
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Basal metabolism is the energy expended to maintain your body at rest. For most people, what percentage of total energy expenditures is used for basal metabolism?.
60 to 75% of total energy expenditures are used for basal metabolism to maintain your body at rest.
The amount of energy used by a person at rest (when fasting and at body temperature equilibrium) as a result of regular cell and organ function within the body is known as the basal metabolic rate. It makes up roughly 60–75% of a person's daily energy expenditure when they have a sedentary job.
Several illnesses linked to significant weight loss, including cancer, sepsis, chronic pulmonary disease, burns, and HIV/AIDS, are associated with sustained increases in basal metabolic rate; however, it is less clear whether these conditions also result in an increase in total energy expenditure.
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Can we hypothesize that if the earth warms up, it will eventually cool off? Why?
What type of inheritance results when the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate between both homozygotes?.
The type of inheritance that results when the phenotype of the heterozygote is intermediate between the two homozygotes is called incomplete dominance.
What is incomplete dominance?
Incomplete dominance is an intermediate form of inheritance in which one allele for a particular trait is not fully expressed over its partner's allele. This results in a third phenotype in which the physical trait expressed is a combination of the phenotypes of both alleles. Incomplete dominance occurs in the inheritance of polygenic traits such as eye color and skin color.
For example, incomplete dominance was seen in cross-pollination experiments between red and white snapdragon plants. In this monohybrid cross, the allele that produces red (R) is not fully expressed above the allele that produces white (r). The resulting offspring are all pink.
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this question is about the importance of the fact that restriction recognition sites engineered to be in the mcs should be found nowhere else in the plasmid. if a particular type of restriction recognition site were found in the mcs and one other place in the plasmid, how many pieces would be formed if the plasmid were cut with that restriction enzyme? after those pieces were cut apart and were floating around in the buffer, how many possible ways would there be to ligate those pieces back together? why would it cause problems if we tried do directional cloning if one of the restriction enzymes used cut the plasmid in more than one place
If we do directional cloning of one of the restrictions enzymes used to cut the plasmid in more than one place, then it may cause mutation in the DNA and would lead to various problems in the genetic makeup of the organism.
Restriction enzymes are proteins that cuts the DNA at a particular site. Restriction enzymes are of two types -
Exonucleases: Restrictions exonucleases, such as exonuclease I, exonuclease II, etc., are largely responsible for hydrolyzing the terminal nucleotides from the end of DNA or RNA molecules in either a 5′ to 3′ or 3′ to 5′ direction.Endonuclease: Restrictions endonucleases identify certain base sequences within DNA or RNA molecules and catalyze the breakdown of internal phosphodiester bonds with enzymes like EcoRI, Hind III, and BamHI.The enzymes where they cut the DNA is known as recognition site. DNA molecules contain recognition site that are particular (4–8 base pair long) nucleotide sequences that are recognized by restriction enzymes.
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Which of the answer choices is/are an example of post-translational modification?.
Polyadenylation is an example of post-transcriptional modification.
Polyadenylation is process involves adding large repeats of adenine bases to the 3' end of mRNA molecules, known as the poly-A tail.
Post-translational modifications includes phosphorylation, glycosylation, methylation, acetylation, that control almost all aspects of cell biology and pathogenesis. In post-translational modifications one enzyme adds the modifying group and another remove it . Example include proteins are phosphorylated by enzymes known as protein kinases, while protein phosphatases remove such phosphate groups.
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What causes the overgrowth of algae and Cyanobacteria in an aquatic environment?
Answer:
Hello! The correct answer should be "Excess phosphorus from the runoff of fertilizer and animal waste that ends up in ponds."
Explanation:
An algal bloom is mostly caused by the presence of large amounts of nitrogen and phosphorus present in water. These nutrients are washed away from lands and farms that are heavily riddled with nitrogenous and phosphatic fertilizers.
Rain acts as an agent by washing these leachable nutrients from the soil into water bodies such as rivers and streams, which eventually end up in large reservoirs such as lakes and oceans.
These nutrients are also deposited into waterways through drainage systems. Due to poor sewage treatment, untreated raw sewage finds its ways into water bodies, and because it is rich in nitrogen compounds such as nitrates and ammonia, it causes algal bloom.
Water pollution, particularly the discharge of poorly treated or untreated industrial waste into waterways, leads to the release of raw toxic waste into water systems. Since it contains nutrients and compounds such as nitrogen, lead, and phosphorus, the outcome is the dense growth of algae.
What patterns or lack thereof do you notice about the locations of genes involved in wound healing?
The primary intention is the pattern in the locations of genes involved in wound healing.
Primary intention and secondary intention are the two fundamental categories of healing. There are four steps that take place in both types: hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling.
An essential growth factor for wound healing that encourages fibrosis is the connective tissue growth factor (CTGF), also known as CCN2 [33,34]. Dermal fibroblasts do not typically express CCN2, but during wound healing, CCN2 is expressed by fibroblasts.
Three fundamental processes—contraction, connective tissue matrix deposition, and epithelialization—are used in all cutaneous wounds to promote healing. When a wound is left open, the tissue moves toward the wound's center as a result of the interaction between cells and the matrix.
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select all of the following that are methods of gene regulation found in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes.
a. blocking mRNA exit from the nucleus
b. splicing exons in alternative ways
c. adding methyl groups to silence genes
The following that are methods of gene regulation found in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes. a. blocking mRNA exit from the nucleus.
Gene law is the process used to manipulate the timing, region and amount wherein genes are expressed. The system may be complicated and is done by means of an expansion of mechanisms, including thru regulatory proteins and chemical change of DNA.
Gene law is an critical part of everyday improvement. Genes are became on and rancid in exceptional patterns all through development to make a mind cell appearance and act different from a liver cellular or a muscle cell, for example. Gene law additionally permits cells to react quickly to modifications of their environments.
Gene pastime is mainly controlled through the charge of transcription of the gene, the system wherein a messenger RNA is produced with the aid of RNA polymerase. signal transduction initiates the transcription technique by way of activating the so-referred to as transcription factors, which might be sequence-particular DNA-binding proteins.
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at the replisome of prokaryotic replication a. two molecules of polymerase iii are dedicated to lagging strand synthesis while one is dedicated to leading strand synthesis b. none of these c. there are multiple copies of dna polymerase i d. there are only two dna polymerase iii molecules
For prokaryotes, bidirectional replication requires two replisomes for each dividing nucleoid (region containing genetic material but not a nucleus).
Explain about the bidirectional replication?Changes made to one copy of a table are duplicated to a second copy, and changes made to the second copy are repeated back to the first copy, in a process known as bidirectional replication.
DNA replication that is bidirectional occurs in organisms from all of the major kingdoms. DNA is replicated in two directions simultaneously during bidirectional replication, resulting in a leading strand (where replication happens more quickly) and a trailing strand (with slower replication).
The replicating process moves in two directions during bidirectional synthesis. Only one replication fork forms in unidirectional replication. Two replication forks form in bidirectional replication. Only one end of the replication eye moves or grows during unidirectional replication.
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Translation occurs
and transcription occurs
A. outside the cell; inside the cell
B. outside the nucleus; inside the nucleus
C. inside the cell; outside the cell
D. inside the nucleus; outside the nucleus
Answer:
B. outside the nucleus; inside the nucleus
Explanation:
First, let's understand what Translation and Transcription is.
*I can go more indepth if asked. *
Translation: - Converting the codons in the mRNA molecule into amino acids.
Transcription: - Converting DNA sequences or codons into RNA sequences or codons.
Now, since transcription takes the DNA and converts it into RNA.
Transcription would have to take place where DNA is.
DNA occurs in the nucleus because of DNA replication.
Translation occurs in the cytoplasm.
Translation is when it takes the mRNA(messenger RNA) converted from the DNA into the cytoplasm for the ribosomes to read the genetic information.
Where is the ribosome?
Ribosomes are in the cytoplasm, outside of the nucleus.
Therefore, it is B.
Hope that helped :)
Answer:
B. outside the nucleus; inside the nucleus
Explanation:
in the lab 10 experiment, what was the logic in choosing staphylococcus aureus and escherichia coli as the test organisms?
The possible logic is that one is Gram-positive and one is Gram-negative.
Staphylococcus aureus is one of the most significant germs that harm humans. It is a Gram-positive bacteria. It is the main contributor to skin and soft tissue infections such as cellulitis, furuncles, and abscesses (boils). S. aureus can cause serious infections such as bloodstream infections, pneumonia, or bone and joint infections, even though most staph infections are not serious. The coliform bacterium Escherichia coli sometimes referred to as E. coli, belongs to the genus Escherichia and is typically found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded creatures. It is a Gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, rod-shaped, coliform bacteria.
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(2.2.1) Each biological parent contributes one chromosome, half of a chromosome pair, during fertilization. For example, when a sperm fertilizes an egg.
one chromosome from chromosome pair 1 is contributed by the sperm and another pair of chromosome 1 is contributed by the egg. Together, these two
chromosomes, called
O sister chromatids
O homologous chromosomes
O heterozygous chromosomes
O homologous chromatids
Each biological parent contributes one chromosome, half of a chromosome pair, during fertilization. Together, these two chromosomes are called (2) homologous chromosomes.
Fertilization is the process of the fusion of a male and a female gamete. This phenomenon occurs in the sexual method of reproduction. Each of the gamete need to be haploid so that a diploid cell can be generated after fertilization.
Homologous chromosomes are a pair of chromosomes where one chromosome is maternal while the other is paternal. These are similar chromosome with similar genes located at the same locus. The length of homologous chromosomes is also similar.
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the minor planet center (mpc) collects data from observatories around the world to calculate orbits of asteroids
Minor Planet Center (MPC) is an international organization responsible for collecting observations of asteroids, comets, and other small bodies in the solar system.
MPC is responsible for the classification of minor bodies in the solar system minor planets like comets , and natural satellites. Asteroids are also sometimes called minor planets they have rocky surface they are also early formation of our solar system about 4.6 billion years ago.
Minor planets are small celestial bodies within the solar system that are orbiting the sun. They are generally smaller than the eight major planets but larger than meteoroids present in the solar system .
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The primary function of the proximal tubule is secretion
a. true
b. false
The primary function of proximal tubule is reabsorption, selective reabsorption of useful substance by active transport. is false.
Nephron is basic functional unit of kidney.it consists of three parts-
The renal corpuscles
Filtering component
The renal tubule
The renal tubule is divided into -
1. Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
2. Loop of Henle
3. Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
PCT has high capacity for reabsorption as it is lined up with cuboidal epithelial cells which have a brush border to increase the surface area on apical side.
It completes the reabsorption of water, glucose, amino acid and important anions, including phosphate and citrate because it is the sole site of transport of the filtered solutes. Also plays an important role in regulating acid-base balance by reabsorbing approximately 80% of filtered bicarbonate.
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If plants need light to do photosynthesis, how do they survive when it gets dark?
Which theory can best explain why people respond differently to the same stimuli?.
Signal detection theory can best explain why people respond differently to the same stimuli.
The ability to distinguish between information-bearing patterns and random patterns that distract from the information is measured using detection theory or signal detection theory. Signal recovery is the separation of such patterns from a masked background in the field of electronics. Signal detection theory distinguishes a person's ability to discriminate the presence and absence of a stimulus (or different stimulus intensities) from the criterion used to respond to those stimuli.
When the signal is present and detected, it is called a hit. A miss occurs when a signal is present but is not detected. A false alarm occurs when a signal is absent but detected, such as hearing your phone ring when no one is calling or hearing a knock at the door when no one is present.
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large-scale cancer studies have found that the p53 gene is often mutated in tumor cells. in fact, the gene encoding the p53 protein is mutated in tumor cells more often than any of the other 20,000 human genes. based on this information, why was the bunz study important? large-scale cancer studies have found that the p53 gene is often mutated in tumor cells. in fact, the gene encoding the p53 protein is mutated in tumor cells more often than any of the other 20,000 human genes. based on this information, why was the bunz study important? a deeper understanding of the role of p53 in the cell cycle can improve our understanding of radiation and the damage done to dna. a deeper understanding of the cell cycle checkpoints can improve our understanding of how radiation damages dna and arrests the cell cycle. a deeper understanding of the role of p53 in the cell cycle can improve our understanding of other oncogenes associated with various cancers. a deeper understanding of the role of p53 in the cell cycle can improve our understanding of cancers and perhaps le
Because of the deeper understanding of the role of p53 in the cell cycle can improve our understanding of cancers and perhaps lead to new forms of treatment.
What is the function of p53?Instructions for producing a protein known as tumor protein p53 are found in the TP53 gene (or p53). This protein controls cell division by acting as a tumor suppressor, which means that it prevents cells from growing and dividing (proliferating) too quickly or in an uncontrolled manner.In every cell of the body, the p53 protein is found in the nucleus, where it binds (attaches) to DNA. This protein plays a crucial role in determining whether the DNA will be repaired or the damaged cell will self-destruct when the DNA in a cell is damaged by agents such as toxic chemicals, radiation, or ultraviolet (UV) rays from sunlight. If the DNA damage is fixable, p53 activates additional genes to repair the harm.Learn more about p53 refer :
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