High blood pressure could cause a problem for a patient taking a triptan medication, if left uncontrolled.
Triptans are a class of tryptamine-based medicines used as an abortive therapy for migraines and cluster headaches. This medication class was commercially launched for the first time in the 1990s. While they are useful for treating individual headaches, they do not provide preventative care and are not considered a cure.
Triptans should be stopped if the pain appears to be ischemic. Triptans should not be used in individuals with uncontrolled hypertension due to their mechanism of action; however, if blood pressure is adequately managed, triptans may be a suitable therapy for migraine. Triptans have little negative effects when taken correctly in terms of dose and frequency. The most prevalent side effect is migraine recurrence. A comprehensive study indicated that "rizatriptan 10 mg was the only triptan with a recurrence rate higher than that of placebo".
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As calorie intake increases (eat more), then metabolism __________. And as calorie intake decreases (eat less), then metabolism __________.
As calorie intake increases (eat more), then metabolism increases. And as calorie intake decreases (eat less), then metabolism decreases.
The quantity of calories ingested in the diet in relation to energy expenditure influences resting metabolic rate. Excessive energy consumption tends to raise resting metabolic rate, whereas fasting and extremely low calorie restriction appear to lower resting metabolic rate.
Calories ingested at night have no effect on your metabolism and do not count much more calories consumed throughout the day. Day illustrates that gaining and losing weight is a simple arithmetic problem. "Too many calories consumed vs insufficient calories burned on any given workday, regardless of time, will result in weight gain."
Regular exercise builds muscle growth and educates the body to burn kilojoules more quickly even while at rest. Dietary deficiencies, such as a lack of iodine, impair thyroid function and delay metabolism.
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A 78-year-old client with congestive heart failure receives the cardiac glycoside digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg PO daily. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the medication has been effective
The observation by the nurse which would indicate that the medication has been effective would be Clear breath sounds anteriorly and posteriorly.
Congestive heart failure is the condition in which the heart is unable to pump sufficient amount of blood to the brain, body or lungs due to which the cardiac cycle is affected adversely. The use of cardiac glycosides helps in increasing the force exerted by the heart during pumping and also reduce the contractions which affect heart functions. Digoxin enhances the myocardial contractility by increasing cytosolic calcium. t is used to improve the strength and efficiency of the heart and its rate of beating.
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Which health literacy factors will the nurse consider when developing a teaching plan for a 69-year-old homeless man with a grade school education diagnosed with prostate cancer
Homelessness, elementary school education, and patient age are the literacy factors related to health that the nurse should consider when designing a teaching plan who is suffering from prostate cancer.
Since the old man is homeless, he will have a difficult time understanding complex topics, so the nurse should try to simplify the teachings to make them easily understandable. The patient is also 69 years old and older people are less self capable and so the teaching plan should be such that there is less pressure on the patient for self-care. Also, if the patient is well educated or has recieved an elementary school education, then there will be a better understanding of prostate cancer and its effect and the patient will be able to manage his symtpoms more effectively. The nurse should provide maximum details in the simplest way possible for an effective teaching plan.
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this form of treatment uses sound energy from high-frequency sound waves to treat pain, relax muscles spasms. stimulate circulation, and break up calcium deposits and scar tissue.
Ultrasound therapy is the form of treatment uses sound energy from high-frequency sound waves to treat pain, relax muscles spasms. stimulate circulation, and break up calcium deposits and scar tissue.
Ultrasound therapy uses high- frequency sound waves to produce heat that can reduce pain. It may be used to treat conditions similar as musculoskeletal injuries, arthritis and fibromyalgia. Ultrasound therapy is a noninvasive treatment in which sound swells are used to access soft apkins, adding blood inflow. This can help relieve pain, ameliorate rotation, and promote towel mending.
Ultrasound therapy can be used as frequently as necessary, there are no limits. We generally use it for five twinkles at a time during treatment. Whether we use it or not will depend on the customer's injuries.
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which organization has been the national leader in promoting electronic health records to decrease medical errors nadi mprove patient safety
Institute of Medicine is the organization has been the national leader in promoting electronic health records to decrease medical errors and improve patient safety.
The Institute of Medicine (IOM) study "To Err is Human" issued in 1999 urged for a national initiative to make health care safer. Even though the report has indeed been generally credited with sparking initiatives to research and improve health-care safety, there has been no independent evaluation of its impact.
Following the release of the IOM report, the rate of patient safety publications jumped from 59 to 164 articles per 100,000 MEDLINE publications. All sorts of patient safety papers saw an increase in publication rates.
After the publication of the study, original research publications climbed from an average of 24 to 41 articles per 100,000 MEDLINE publications, while patient safety research grants jumped from 5 to 141 awards per 100,000 federally supported biomedical research awards. Prior to the IOM report, the most common topic of patient safety publications was malpractice, but organizational culture was the most common subject after the study's publication.
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Places where there is an elevated chance of being the victim of crime are known as: A. Hot targets B. Hot spots C. Suitable targets D. Chronic spots
The places where there is an elevated chance of being the victim of crime are known as hotspots, which means option B is the right answer.
Crime refers to the intentional act of doing something which is against the law. Major criminals are born between the age of 15 to 20 years because of the hormonal rush which are undergoing as a result of natural process and the unlawful environment to which they are exposed. Hot spot analysis helps police identify high-crime areas, types of crime being committed, and the best way to respond. Hotspots of crime are the areas where there are high chances of multiple criminal acts. It is necessary to identify them so as to control such activities and protect the citizens.
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A nurse manager is experiencing considerable conflict among staff members because of weekend staffing coverage. During a called staff meeting, the nurse manager asks the disgruntled staff to meet as a group and determine the best staffing practices. In doing this, the nurse manager is using the concept of collaboration to:
The nurse manager is utilizing collaboration to focus the energies of staff members on a win-win strategy.
Collaboration is the process of working together to achieve a common goal. By asking the staff to meet as a group and work together to determine the best staffing practices, the nurse manager is encouraging them to work together to come up with a solution that will benefit everyone. This encourages staff members to communicate and share ideas in order to find the best solution. It also helps to create a sense of teamwork and unity within the staff.
By doing this, the nurse manager is ensuring that all staff members have the opportunity to have their voices heard, and that all ideas are taken into consideration. Ultimately, this collaborative approach ensures that all staff members are working together towards a common goal, and that the outcome will be one that is favorable for everyone.
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What is an overriding concern for patients with diabetes who need to acquire a blood glucose monitor
The cost of test strips and disposable supplies is a major worry for diabetic individuals who need to purchase a blood glucose monitor.
Diabetes is a chronic condition that arises when the pancreas does not create enough or when the body does not utilise the insulin that is produced adequately. Insulin is the hormone that controls blood glucose levels. The most essential thing you can do to control type 1 or type 2 diabetes is to monitor your blood sugar levels on a regular basis. You'll be able to observe what causes your numbers to rise or fall, such as eating various meals, taking your medication, or exercising.
With this information, one can collaborate with ones healthcare team to determine the optimal diabetes treatment strategy for you. Diabetes consequences such as heart attack, stroke, renal disease, blindness, or amputation can be delayed or avoided by making these choices.
Your doctor will advise you on when and how frequently users should monitor one's blood sugar levels. Checking the blood sugars is an important component of living with diabetes if you use certain medications, such as insulin or sulphonylureas. It can assist you in working out when you have to take additional medication, eat something, or get out and move about more.
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What is an appropriate stretching exercise that addresses a low back arch in an athlete who is training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance
Active kneeling hip flexor stretch is appropriate for addressing a low back arch in an athlete who is training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance.
Hip flexor stretch is the form of exercise that provided various benefits like improved mobility, reduction in pain, improved flexibility and posture. It can be simply called the kneeling exercise where one leg is kneeled down at a time. It can also be done by lying down on the edge of the table.
Strength endurance is the type of muscle strength that requires tension in the muscles for longer durations of time. It is the ability of the body to exert itself but remain active for longer durations of time without suffering any wound or fatigue.
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The client is prepared, and procedural sedation anesthesia is established with morphine and midazolam. The client has ptosis and speaks in a slurred voice. Question 9 of 28 Which action should the nurse take
The first steps of the nurse when she sees a patient in the ptosis condition is that she must continue to monitor the patient regularly.
The condition of ptosis or droopy eyelids and slurred speech are the signs of the desired level of sedation for a client during the procedure and when the person is not in senses to govern his actions, it is the duty of the nurse to look after all the essential functions.
Anesthesia is a kind of medicine made from morphine and opioids which help in preventing pain in the body before surgery. Midazolam is also used as sedative in limited dosages.
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The nurse is obtaining vital signs on a 3-month-old infant. What is the most reliable site for assessing the pulse rate in this infant?
The most reliable site for obtaining pulse rate on a 3-month-old infant is: the brachial artery.
The pulse rate is defined as the number of time the heart beats in a minute. The beating of the heart is actually how many time the heart pumps the blood. The normal pulse rate in adults in 60-100 per minute. Whereas in infants, it can be up to 100-150 beats per minute.
Brachial artery is one of the major blood vessels of the upper arm of an individual. It is the further extension of the axillary artery that begins at the lower margin of the teres major muscle. The artery runs up to the crease in front of the elbow.
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adaptive equipment are mobility aids or mobility-assistive devices that are designed to enable a patient to _______________.
Adaptive equipment are mobility aids or mobility-assistive devices that are designed to enable a patient to bathing.
An adaptive equipment is a device that assists a impaired or disabled existent in negotiating typical conditioning of diurnal living( ADL), similar as eating, codifying, walking, reading, or driving. Mobility aids, similar as wheelchairs, scooters, trampers, nightsticks, crutches1, prosthetic bias, and orthotic bias.
Adaptive equipment are bias that are used to help bathing, dressing, fixing, toileting, and feeding are tone- care conditioning that are including in the diapason of conditioning of diurnal living( ADLs). An adaptive device is a device that assists a impaired or disabled existent in negotiating typical conditioning of diurnal living( ADL)
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why is it important to list and prioritize your short-, mid-, and long-term goals ahead of time?
It is important to set short-term goals so that you don't try to overwork yourself by doing to much stuff at once. It is important to set long-term goals so that you can have a plan for your life, so that you aren't wandering around aimlessly
Why is it important to set long time goals?Your daydreams can become tangible aspirations that you can actively pursue by setting long-term goals. They can not only assist you in completing challenging tasks, but they can also be a helpful tool in helping you organize your workload and determine what success means to you. Setting short-term goals is essential to avoid trying to take on too much at once and overworking yourself. Setting long-term objectives will help you organize your life and prevent you from stumbling around aimlessly. Short-term objectives concentrate on the here-and-now. They focus on making the most of what you have or will have soon. Long-term objectives relate to the kind of person you hope to become.Setting short-term goals is essential to avoid trying to take on too much at once and overworking yourself. Setting long-term objectives will help you organize your life and prevent you from stumbling around aimlessly.To learn more about set long time goals refer to:
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A patient presents with malaise, a fever, and joint pain. If a systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) diagnosis is being considered, which additional assessments should the nurse perform
If a systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) diagnosis is being evaluated, the nurse should do the following tests:
Take patient blood pressureEnsure that urine is collected for a urinalysisAsk the patient simple questions and note patient responseThe most prevalent symptoms in new instances or recurring active SLE flares are fatigue, fever, arthralgia, or weight abnormalities. Fatigue, the most prevalent constitutional symptom of SLE, might be caused by active SLE, drugs, lifestyle behaviours, or coexisting fibromyalgia or mental disorders. Children with SLE frequently have cardiovascular signs including such hypertension, pericarditis, or blood dyscrasias. An examination that the nurse may take to assist detect SLE is taking a patient's blood pressure.
Proteinuria, hematuria, as well as nephritis are common urinary symptoms in children with SLE. The nurse can undertake an examination to help detect SLE by collecting a urine sample for just a urinalysis. In children with SLE, neurologic symptoms such as headaches, mood problems, cognitive difficulties, and seizure disorders are common. Simple inquiries about the patient's projected developmental age can assist assess basic brain abilities and it may help diagnose SLE.
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A nurse prepares to discharge an older adult patient home from the emergency department (ED). What actions should the nurse take to prevent future ED visits
In order to reduce the need for future ED visits, the nurse should additionally screen older persons for functional evaluation,
cognitive assessment, and fall risk.
What does a cognitive assessmentinclude?
How does a cognitive test work? Cognitive tests come in a variety of forms. Each entails responding to a series of questions and/or carrying out easy tasks. They are created to aid in measuring mental abilities including memory, language, and the capacity to recognize objects.What are the four types of cognition?
The theory and application of cognitive functions. Carl Jung's theory of cognitive functions serves as the foundation. Among them, he named four as sense, intuition, reasoning, and feeling.
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A client with hypertension and type 2 diabetes has recently started taking chlorthalidone. Which report by the client is most concerning to the nurse?
High blood pressure becomes substantially hazardous when diabetes is present. Diabetes is a long-term condition in which your body is unable to produce or use insulin properly. The body's numerous cells may use blood sugar as fuel, and insulin helps move it from blood vessels into those cells. Therefore, the nurse should pay more attention to blood pressure reports.
Chlorthalidone is used either alone or in conjunction with other drugs to treat high blood pressure (hypertension). High blood pressure makes the heart and arteries work harder.The heart and arteries might not work correctly if it persists for a long time. The kidneys, heart, and brain's blood vessels may be harmed as a result, which may cause renal failure, heart failure, or a stroke. High blood pressure may also raise the risk of heart attacks. Controlling blood pressure may reduce the likelihood that these issues will arise.Chlorthalidone is also used to treat severe liver disease (cirrhosis), kidney disease, congestive heart failure, and medications for hormone or steroid therapy that cause fluid retention (edema).
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If an employee/student/patient has medical testing at an HCA facility, the appropriate way for him or her to access the test results is:
The appropriate way to access the test results when an employee/student/patient undergoes medical testing at an HCA facility is: to complete the release form and receive a copy of results.
Medical testing is the procedure performed to detect, diagnose or monitor any disease. The medical testing usually involves the testing of fluid sample of the body like blood, urine, serum, etc. Body imaging tests like X-rays are also a type of medical testing.
HCA refers to the Hospital Corporation of America. It is an organization that acts as the operator of the health care facilities for the citizens of America. It was established in the year 1968.
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Loss of staff members because of injuries from a lack of SPHM practices increases ________ for the healthcare system
Loss of staff members because of injuries from a lack of SPHM practices increases cost for the healthcare system.
Loss of staff members because of injuries from a lack of Standard Precautions and Hazardous Materials (SPHM) practices increases costs for the healthcare system. When staff members are injured, they may require medical care and may be unable to work for a period of time, which can lead to increased costs for the healthcare system in terms of worker's compensation, lost productivity, and the need to hire temporary or replacement staff.
Mr. Black is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of neck pain that he thinks is from his job involving computer data entry. As the examiner, you are checking the range of motion in his neck and note the greatest degree of cervical mobility is at:
The C4 to C5 range of motion is the most important range of motion for cervical mobility because it is the area of the neck where most of the movement occurs.
This area is made up of the rotational joints between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae (C4-C5), and movement in this area is important for activities like turning the head to look over the shoulder or behind us while driving.
Because Mr. Black’s job involves computer data entry, which likely requires a lot of head turning and neck movement, it is likely that the C4-C5 range of motion is the greatest degree of cervical mobility. Other ranges of motion like C3-C4 or C5-C6 are important for range of motion, but C4-C5 is the most important for activities like turning the head.
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A client who sustained serious burns now has a stress ulcer. Which clinical indicators of shock should the nurse immediately report to the primary healthcare provider
Serious burn injuries can result in a state of shock if the burn causes damage to the blood vessels. Symtpoms like weakness, Tachycardia, cold extremities, and diaphoresis should be brought to the attention of primary healthcare providers.
For a variety of causes, burn injury patients may develop psychological suffering. Just a few of the problems with burn injuries are the pain, the prognosis, and the drawn-out recovery times. The following are some additional reasons for similar emotional or mental distress: concerns about scars and physical appearance alterations. Skin tissue damage by hot (scald, flash, flame, contact), cold, electrical, chemical, radiation, sunlight, or other sources is known as a burn injury. One of the leading causes of morbidity and mortality worldwide is burns. They may cause severe disfigurement, physical damage, loss of employment, psychological issues, and a substantial financial burden.
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The nurse manager of an ICU wants to implement the revised policy and procedure on central line catheter care. What would be the most effective method of getting the staff nurses to incorporate a new evidence-based practice into their care
The most effective method of getting staff nurses to incorporate a new evidence-based practice into their care would be through education and training.
Education and training are key to the successful implementation of a new evidence-based practice. The nurse manager should start by providing the staff nurses with information about the revised policy and procedure on central line catheter care, including the evidence that supports it and how it differs from current practice. The manager should also provide opportunities for the staff nurses to ask questions and provide feedback, which can help to address any concerns they may have. After this,the manager should provide hands-on training and give the staff nurses the opportunity to practice the new skills in a safe and controlled environment. Finally, the manager should provide ongoing support, including regular check-ins and supervision, to ensure that the staff nurses are able to consistently implement the new practice and provide quality care to patients. In addition, regular feedback and evaluation of the new practice implementation will be helpful to measure the effectiveness of the new practice and make necessary adjustments.
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Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct?
a. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active.
b. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
c. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past.
d. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain.
Statement B is correct regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct: PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
A female reproductive system infection is known as pelvic inflammatory disease (the cervix, uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries). Women who are sexually active are typically affected by pelvic inflammatory disease. Women who have experienced pelvic inflammatory illness are 6–10 times more likely to experience a tubal pregnancy (a form of ectopic pregnancy). The fetus develops in a fallopian tube rather than the uterus during a tubal pregnancy. The woman's life is in danger during this type of pregnancy, and the fetus is not viable. Therefore, option B is he appropriate answer.
Women typically experience lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, and erratic vaginal bleeding. The diagnosis is made using the patient's symptoms, examination of vaginal and cervix secretions, and occasionally ultrasonography. Using condoms and restricting sexual activity to one partner lower the risk of contracting an infection.
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an effective medical administrative assistant should don what regard to communicating with patients by phone
An effective medical administrative assistant should have patient's name, age, and gender with regard to communicating with patients by phone.
Who is a medical administrative assistant?A medical administrative assistant is a trained individual who has been equipped with the knowledge of performing administrative duties in a hospital or clinic.
The responsibilities of a medical administrative assistant include the following:
They interview patients for case histories prior to appointments.They update and maintain patients' health records.They assist patients with initial paperwork.They schedule and coordinate appointments.They process insurance claims in compliance with law requirements.They use medical software to support all transactions.For the medical administrative assistant to be able to obtain viable information from the patient, they need to have the patient's vital information such as patient's name, age, and gender.
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Mrs. Berger is a 39-year-old woman who presents with a complaint of epigastric abdominal pain. You have completed the inspection of the abdomen. What is your next step in the assessment process
Auscultation is your next step in the assessment process.
Which technique should be applied first while inspecting the abdomen?
Moving methodically across the nine regions of the abdomen, the examiner should start with a superficial or mild palpation from the location that is farthest from the source of most pain. You can choose any beginning point if there is no suffering.
What area of the hand should the examiner utilize to palpate a cutaneous tumor that has been found to be superficial?
For locating and assessing masses, deep palpation using the flexor surface of the fingers and a small angle of the hand is very helpful. This can be done with one hand or two hands.
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the nurse wants to be sure that the family understands how to use a bulb syringe properly to suction the newborn. What is the best way to determine that they understand proper bulb syringe use
The best way for the nurse to determine that the family understands proper bulb syringe use is to provide a demonstration and hands-on instruction. The nurse can start by explaining the purpose of using a bulb syringe, the steps involved in using it, and the precautions that must be taken.
Then, the nurse can demonstrate the proper technique for using the bulb syringe on a doll or a model of a newborn. After the demonstration, the family should be given the opportunity to practice using the bulb syringe with the guidance and supervision of the nurse. This will allow the nurse to observe their technique and provide feedback. The nurse can also provide visual aids such as diagrams or videos to help the family understand the proper technique. Additionally, the nurse can ask the family questions about the use of the bulb syringe to assess their understanding and provide further clarification if needed.
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A client who is experiencing an acute attack of gouty arthritis is prescribed Colchicine USP 1 mg PO daily. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client
The nurse should provide the information about the side effects of Colchicine USP. Only when the medication is required to stop a current episode do patients take substantial doses of colchicine over a short period of time (a few hours). Don't use colchicine much because it may cause weakness and many diseases.
Anti-inflammatory painkillers are the most frequently recommended treatment for a gout attack, although not everyone can take these medications. Gout attacks can be treated alternatively with colchicine for patients who cannot take anti-inflammatory medicines. Colchicine reduces the quantity of white blood cells that enter inflammatory areas, which is how it works. Colchicine lessens gout attack swelling and discomfort while assisting in breaking the cycle of inflammation.Gout produces flare-ups of excruciating joint inflammation in one or more joints. It is brought on by an accumulation of uric acid, a naturally occurring substance in your blood (urate). The amount of uric acid in your blood may occasionally increase to the point where microscopic grit-like crystals form.
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The term medically managed means that even though a diagnosis may not receive direct treatment during an encounter:
It must be taken into account while deciding how to treat other conditions.
Even while a diagnosis might not get immediate treatment during an encounter, it must be taken into consideration when deciding how to treat other diseases, according to the definition of the word "medically managed."The V codes of the ICD-9, which list the causes of medical encounters other than illness or injury, contain the codes for preventative treatments. For a typical general medical examination carried out at a healthcare facility, V70. 0 should be utilised, and V70.Codes from ICD-9-CM are ready to deal for encounters with conditions other than illness or injury. Factors Affecting Health Status & Contact with Health Services: Supplementary Classification (V01.
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Which disease is almost certain to cause death if infected patients do not receive postexposure prophylaxis
Rabies disease is almost certain to cause death if infected patients do not receive post-exposure prophylaxis.
Rabies is a preventable viral illness that is most commonly spread via a rabid animal's bite. The rabies virus attacks mammals' central nervous systems, resulting in brain illness and death. When clinical symptoms of rabies arise, the condition is almost invariably deadly, and treatment is usually supportive. There have been less than 20 reported examples of human survival from clinical rabies. Only a few individuals had no prior or post-exposure prophylactic history.
Lyssaviruses, such as the rabies virus and the Australian bat lyssavirus, cause rabies. When an infected animal bites or scratches a human or another animal, the disease spreads. If saliva from an infected animal comes into contact with the eyes, mouth, or nose, it can transmit rabies.
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By law an 'if you are injured' poster must be displayed. where would you display this poster?
Answer:
An 'If you are injured" poster is required to be put in a noticeable place so people can see it.
during the vaginal examination of a client in labor, the nurse idetnfies the presenting part as the scapula. Which fetal presentation does the nurse recognize
the nurse idetnfies the presenting part as the scapula. Which fetal presentation does the nurse recognize Shoulder
The bone that attaches the clavicle to the humerus is known as the scapula, or shoulder blade. The shoulder girdle's posterior portion is formed by the scapula. This bone is flat, triangular, and strong. Several groups of muscles can attach to the scapula.The scapula is what kind of a bone?
A flat, triangular-shaped bone is the scapula (colloquially as the "shoulder blade"). It is situated on the dorsal side of the rib cage in the upper thoracic area. It forms the shoulder joint by joining with the humerus at the glenohumeral joint and the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint.
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