Hans Selye is associated with research on stress and described the general adaptation syndrome (G.A.S.)
What is general adaptation syndrome?
The Generalized Adaptation Syndrome, or GAS for short, describes how the body physiologically responds to stress. Canadian physician Hans Sayle is credited with proposing this theory in 1936 to explain how organisms adapt to different stressors.
Stress comes in one of two forms he he physical (such as strength training) or emotional (such as stress in his work or personal life). This article will focus on physical stressors, especially exercise. Prolonged exposure to negative stress (such as overtraining or lifting heavy objects before you are ready) can lead to adverse physiological effects such as stress fractures and muscle damage.
On the other end of the spectrum, prolonged exposure to positive stress, known as eustress, can lead to positive physiological outcomes, such as improved fitness and increased strength and endurance. The body responds to stress placed on it, and physical adaptations occur over time in response to that stress stimulus.
Hans Selye is associated with research on stress and described the general adaptation syndrome (G.A.S.)
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this definition of death holds that individuals are dead when they have irreversibly lost all functions of the entire brain.
By demonstrating the permanent end of the brain's clinical functioning, brain death serves as a determination of human death. Due to the loss of the entire organism, whole-brain death constitutes a death in humans.
What transpires after someone passes away?The heart eventually quits, and they eventually stop breathing. Their brain completely shuts down after a few minutes, and their skin begins to cool. They have already passed away at this time.
Where do we go after someone dies?A person's soul departs from this world when they pass away because there is an everlasting life that comes after death. The soul will be transferred to a new body on the Day of the Resurrection, and people will appear before God to receive judgment.
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a seizure action plan includes only a student’s seizure type and basic first aid. T/F
Seizure Action Plans are a crucial tool that parents and schools can use to work together to keep kids safe and healthy while they are at school.
The crucial information school staff may need to be aware of in order to assist a student who is experiencing seizures is contained in a seizure action plan. It includes contact information for the parent and a list of the child's individual prescriptions, as well as first aid instructions.
Seizures are characterised by sudden, transient attacks of altered consciousness, motor activity, and sensory phenomena. They are physical findings or behavioural changes brought on by uncontrolled electrical firing or discharges from the cerebral cortex's nerve cells. Convulsion and seizure are frequently used interchangeably in medical terminology.
Head injuries, brain tumours, lead poisoning, impaired brain development, hereditary and viral diseases, fevers, and maldevelopment of the brain can all result in seizures. The frontal lobe produces motor symptoms, while the parietal lobe produces sensory symptoms.
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The calcium content of various vegetables is presented below. Which of these vegetables would be the best choice to help you meet your calcium DRI?
a. Turnip greens, 125 mg in ½ cup cooked
b. Swiss chard, 51 mg in ½ cup cooked
c. Mustard greens, 76 mg
d. Spinach, 145 mg in ½ cup cooked
e. Kale, 90 mg in ½ cup cooked
Turnip greens, 125 mg in ½ cup cooked is the correct answer.
Calcium-Rich Foods
Although there are many supplements available, experts advise getting at least half of your calcium from food rather than pills.
The following eight foods are among the greatest calcium sources on the market:
dairy goods
Calcium is abundant in dairy products like milk, yoghurt, and cheese, and these foods also often absorb calcium the best. Fortified diets and foods made of plants do not absorb calcium as well.
Soybeans
Soybeans that have been dry-roasted are a good calcium source. They are a fantastic calcium source for vegans because a half-cup has 119 mg of calcium in it.
Leafy, Dark Green Vegetables
Calcium-rich foods include cooked kale, spinach, and collard greens. The biggest amount is seen in collard greens, which have 164 mg of calcium per half cup.
Foods Fortified with Calcium
Cereals and orange juice are frequently supplemented with calcium. Some fortified juices contain calcium citrate malate, a well-absorbed form of the mineral. Additionally, some fortified cereals offer up to 100 mg of calcium per serving.
Salmon in a can
Salmon in cans, aside from dairy products, is one of the best food sources of calcium. 181 mg are present in just 3 ounces of canned salmon. Salmon also includes vitamin D, which facilitates calcium absorption by the body.
Figs
You can get 68 mg of calcium for your body by eating five dried or fresh figs. Oranges and papayas are two additional fruits that are high in calcium.
Wheat tortillas
Good news for those who enjoy carbohydrates: a 10-inch flour tortilla contains 90 mg of calcium.
Baked beans in a can
The amount of calcium in four ounces of canned baked beans is 126 mg. Additionally, beans have a lot of fibre.
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When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is:
A. slow.
B. rapid.
C. irregular.
D. thready
This indicates that the pulse is: Rapid. correct option(A).
Palpation is the practice of checking the body with one's hands, particularly when detecting/diagnosing a sickness or illness. It is the process of feeling an object in or on the body to ascertain its size, shape, firmness, or location. It is often carried out by a healthcare professional (for example, a veterinarian can feel the stomach of a pregnant animal to ensure good health and successful delivery).
The physical examination includes palpation, which is crucial; the sense of touch is just as crucial in this examination as the sense of sight is. Doctors become quite skilled at feeling for issues beneath the skin of the body, being able to pick up on things that untrained people would not. To achieve this, much practice and anatomical mastery are needed.
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Tomas wants to test both his muscular strength and his muscular endurance. What is one difference between muscular strength and muscular endurance?
A.
Strength is the ability to move a heavy object; endurance is the ability to move an object over an extended period of time.
B.
Strength is measured by maintaining a resting heart rate; endurance is measured by reaching a target heart rate.
C.
Strength is focused on cardiovascular health; endurance is focused on gastrointestinal health.
D.
Strength is centered on the idea of static stretching; endurance is centered on the idea of dynamic stretching.
Your ability to exert force during a single repetition is a measure of your muscular strength. The term "muscular endurance" describes the capacity for a certain muscular movement to be carried out for an extended period of time.
Consider the strength required to lift that hefty box when you move. Being able to perform an activity repeatedly for a long length of time without becoming exhausted is known as muscular endurance. That can involve performing 50 consecutive body-weight squats while maintaining a beat in the gym.
A muscle's or a collection of muscles' greatest force-producing capacity is referred to as their muscular strength. The capacity of a muscle or group of muscles to work repeatedly at less than their maximum capacity for a predetermined amount of time is known as muscular endurance.
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an accumulation of pus in the fallopian tube
Pus builds up in the fallopian tube and is known as a pyosalpinx.
The disorder known as pyosalpinx causes the fallopian tube to enlarge and fill with pus. The portion of the female anatomy that joins the ovaries and uterus is known as the fallopian tube. Eggs move from the ovaries to the uterus through the fallopian tube.
A side effect of pelvic inflammatory illness is pyosalpinx (PID). An infection of a woman’s reproductive organs is known as PID. PID cases with Pyosalpinx occur in roughly 16% of all cases. Other infections, such as gonorrhea or tuberculosis, can also result in pyosalpinx. Women between the ages of 20 and 40 are the ones who experience it most frequently.
If your PID is untreated, you could develop pyosalpinx. PID is a sexually transmitted illness (STD) that affects the female reproductive system and is brought on by gonorrhea and chlamydia. This condition can also be brought on by other illnesses, such as tuberculosis.
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During his nursing studies, Rodney Milne learned that the _________________ helps control blood pressure by reducing the amount of water that is excreted through the kidneys.
Rodney Milne discovered throughout his nursing studies that antidiuretic helps regulate blood pressure by lowering the volume of water that is passed through the kidneys.
What purposes do antidiuretics serve?By influencing the kidneys and blood arteries, anti-diuretic hormone aids in maintaining blood pressure. Its primary function is to preserve the volume of fluid in your body by minimizing the quantity of water that is passed out by the]
Which medication is an antidiuretic?Salicylates (sodium salicylate and acetylsalicylic acid), ibuprofen and other NSAIDs, and the para-aminophenol precursor acetaminophen are the medications that are used to treat fever the most frequently today.
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somatiform disorders in dsm-iv are referred to as somatic symptom and related disorders in dsm-v/dsm-v-tr. which of the following features characterizes the major diagnosis in this class, somatic symptom disorder?
Having depression or anxiety. Being ill or recovering from a medical problem. Having a strong family history of an illness or being at high risk of contracting a disease. Experiencing trauma, violence, or unpleasant life events Thus option D is correct.
What Somatoform Disorders are somatic symptom?It is not the somatic symptoms itself that distinguish many people with somatic symptom disorder, but rather how they exhibit and interact with them.
Somatic symptom disorder relies on diagnosis based on positive symptom rather than on the fact that there is no medical explanation for somatic symptoms. Distressing physical sensations, as well as inappropriate responses to these symptoms in the form of thoughts, attitudes, and behaviors.
The criteria for somatic symptom disorder are more thorough and accurate when affective, cognitive, and behavioural factors are taken into account, as opposed to just looking at the physical complaints alone.
Therefore, distressing somatic symptoms and abnormal thoughts, feelings, and behaviours in response to these symptoms.
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the given question is incomplete, a complete question is given below
A. Medically unexplained somatic symptoms.
B. Underlyingpsychicconflict.
C. Masochism.
D. Distressing somatic symptoms and abnormal thoughts, feelings, and behaviours in response to these symptoms.
E. Comorbiditywithanxietyanddepressivedisorders
Anesthetics administered into the epidural space are advantageous because __________.
a. the patient experiences both sensory loss and paralysis temporarily
b. the effect is localized and only sensory
c. the effects are long lasting, even with just a single injection
d. the effect can easily be carried throughout the spinal cord region by way of cerebrospinal fluid
Answer:
the effect is localized and only sensory
Explanation:
Anesthetics administered into the epidural space are advantageous because the effect is localized and only sensory.
What are the top 3 unintentional injuries?
Answer:
unintentional injuries are motor vehicle accidents, poisonings and falls.
Explanation:
You might be surprised to learn that the leading cause of death in the United States for people under the age of 44 is unintentional injury. The three most common causes of unintentional injuries are motor vehicle accidents, poisonings and falls.
a nurse is providing prenatal education. what common findings of pregnancy should be discussed in routine prenatal teaching?
____ refers to an inherited disorder resulting in deaf-blindness, deafness present at birth accompanied by progressive vision loss, sometimes associated with intellectual disabilities.
Usher syndrome is a hereditary disorder characterized by progressive vision loss brought on by Retinitis Pigmentosa (RP), deafness or hearing loss, and hearing loss.
Examples of disability and what it is.Impairment of a person's physical, mental, or emotional well-being; examples include the loss of a limb, eyesight loss, or memory loss. Activity restriction due to difficulties with vision, hearing, movement, or problem-solving
Exactly what are physical impairments?A physical condition is one that significantly restricts one or more fundamental physical activities in daily life. These restrictions prevent the person from carrying out regular chores. Individuals with physical limitations vary greatly.
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Probing depth of 5 mm or less that shows as even horizontal bone loss on radiographs occurs in which of the following stages of periodontitis?
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
Probing depth of 5 mm or less that shows as even horizontal bone loss on radiographs occurs in C. Stage III the following stages of periodontitis.
What causes periodontitis most frequently?Poor brushing and flossing practices frequently contribute to it by allowing plaque, a sticky film of germs, to accumulate on the teeth and harden. When periodontal disease is severe, it can result in painful chewing issues, bleeding gums, and even tooth loss.
The goal of staging is to categorize a patient's condition based on a quantifiable quantity of destroyed or damaged tissue from periodontitis.
An very dangerous type of gum disease is periodontitis. The soft tissues around your teeth become inflamed as the bacterial infection progresses. If untreated, it erodes the supporting bone for your teeth, resulting in movement and tooth loss.
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Which one of the following is an example of a health disparity?
A) A child who is being read to daily begins reading at an earlier age than a child is not read to.
B) D) Children living in poverty have higher rates of mental health problems.
C) Children exposed to cigarette smoke have higher rates of asthma.
D) A child with Down syndrome receiving developmental disability services.
which information is a priority for the rn to reinforce to an older client after intravenous pylegraphy
when administering oral medications to pediatric patients, the medical assistant will use a spoon or dropper to measure the ordered dose
When administering oral medications to pediatric patients, the medical assistant will use a calibrated spoon or dropper to measure the ordered dose.
What are Pediatric patients?
Pediatric patients are patients under the age of 18. They can include babies, infants, toddlers, children, and adolescents. Pediatric care is focused on providing medical care and treatment for these age groups, including preventive health care, physical examinations, immunizations, and diagnosis and treatment of illnesses, injuries, and other health problems.
What is a calibrated spoon?
A calibrated spoon is a spoon that has been designed with a specific capacity or volume measurement. They are usually marked with measurements such as teaspoons, tablespoons, or milliliters to ensure accuracy when measuring ingredients. They are commonly used in cooking, baking, and measuring medicine.
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Correct Question:
When administering oral medications to pediatric patients, the medical assistant will use a ______ spoon or dropper to measure the ordered dose.
describe global and national initiatives on generic and brandname
There are several global and national initiatives that aim to promote the use of generic medications and to increase access to affordable medicines. Some examples of these initiatives include:
World Health Organization (WHO): The WHO promotes the use of generic medications as a way to increase access to essential medicines and to reduce the cost of healthcare. The WHO also works to improve the quality and safety of generic medications through its prequalification program, which assesses the quality, efficacy, and safety of generic drugs.International Generic Drug Regulators Pilot (IGDRP): The IGDRP is a collaborative initiative among regulatory authorities from around the world that aims to promote the use of generic medications by improving the regulatory process for generic drugs. The IGDRP works to harmonize regulatory requirements and to ensure the quality, efficacy, and safety of generic medications.United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA): In the United States, the FDA is responsible for regulating the safety and effectiveness of both generic and brand-name medications. The FDA has several initiatives in place to promote the use of generic medications, including the Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA) process, which allows generic drug manufacturers to obtain approval for their products based on the safety and efficacy of a reference-listed drug (brand name medication).European Medicines Agency (EMA): In the European Union, the EMA is responsible for regulating the safety and effectiveness of both generic and brand-name medications. The EMA has a number of initiatives in place to promote the use of generic medications, including the mutual recognition procedure, which allows generic drug manufacturers to obtain marketing authorization in multiple EU countries based on a positive assessment by a single member state.Overall, these initiatives aim to increase access to affordable medications and to ensure the quality, efficacy, and safety of both generic and brand-name medications.
in 2013, a social media company paid $800,000 to settle charges with the federal trade commission (ftc). the company had an application that allowed children to create journals and share those journals online. children could also post photos and share location information. the company collected the birth dates of 3,000 children before getting parental permission. the ftc alleged that the company violated which of the following?
The corporation allegedly broke the Children's Online Privacy Act (COPPA), according to the FTC.
What does protection serve to protect?To safeguard everything or an individual is to maintain him comfortable. Things are sheltered and defended through protection. Protection seems to be the act of providing refuge from danger since to do so is to protect. Parents watch after their children and ensure their safety.
Who do you refer to as a protector?Guard Share Add to list. A guard is someone who keeps something safe. A security officer at the shopping, a crossing guard in front of a school, or a castle guard at Parliament House are all possible sightings.
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The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client is dyspneic and crackles are audible on auscultation. What additional signs would the nurse expect to note in this client if excess fluid volume is present?
A. Weight Loss
B. Flat neck and Hand veins
C. An increase in blood pressure
D. Decreased central venous pressure (CVP)
An elevation in blood pressure is one of the other symptoms the nurse would anticipate seeing in this client if there is excess fluid volume.
A fluid volume excess, sometimes referred to as overhydration or fluid overload, happens when the body’s fluid requirements are exceeded by the amount of fluid consumed or retained. Cough, dyspnea, crackles, tachypnea, tachycardia, raised blood pressure, bounding pulse, elevated CVP, weight gain, edema, neck, and hand vein distention, altered level of consciousness, and lowered hematocrit are some assessment findings connected to fluid accumulation excess. Options 1 through 4 lists the symptoms of a fluid volume deficiency.
A state or condition is said to have a deficient fluid volume (also known as Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD), hypovolemia) when the fluid output exceeds the fluid intake. When the body loses electrolytes and water from the ECF in almost equal amounts, it results in this condition.
The correct response is therefore option C.
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you are ventilating an apneic 50-year-old woman with a bag-mask device. after squeezing the bag and noting visible chest rise, you should:
After supplemental oxygen has been attached, the candidate must oxygenate the patient by ventilating at a rate of 10 – 12/minute with adequate volumes of oxygen-enriched air.
What is ventilation in simple words?Ventilation is the process by which "clean" air, typically outdoor air, is consciously introduced to an area and stale air is systematically removed.You can do this using mechanical or natural methods.What is ventilation example?The breathing of a live thing is referred to as ventilation. For instance, pulmonary ventilation in humans is a type of ventilation which usually occurs between the lungs and the outside air. Mechanical ventilation and pulmonary ventilation are the two basic forms of ventilation.
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which of the following is not a public health measure used to control the transmission of a pathogen r disease?
The vehicle measure is not a public health measure to control the transmission of a pathogen. Keeping settings clean, including equipment, reduces the risk of transmission. Effective cleaning and disinfection are critical in any setting, particularly when food preparation is taking place.
Because patterns of interaction between various populations and groups of populations alter depending on socioeconomic, cultural, and other characteristics, the channel of transmission is important to epidemiologists. Some communities experience these disorders more frequently than others, which could provide insight into how the illness spreads. Cleaning with detergent and water is normally all that is needed as it removes most germs that can cause diseases. For example, if it turns out that polio is more prevalent in cities in developing nations without access to clean water than in communities with decent plumbing, we might advocate for the idea that polio is spread via the fecal-oral route. For instance, poor food habits and poor personal hygiene brought on by a lack of clean water supplies may contribute to a drop in the fecal-oral pathway of disease transmission, such as cholera.
The complete question is:
which of the following is not a public health measure used to control the transmission of a pathogen r disease?
1) Direct Contact measure
2) Droplet Spread measure
3) Airborne measure
4) Vehicles measure
5) Vectors measure
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The receptor for static equilibrium is the?
A.) semicircular canals
B.) macula
C.) utricle
D.) cochlea duct
The semicircular canals serve as the static equilibrium receptor. follows an explanation.
The inner ear, which is the deepest region of each ear, has three semicircular, linked tubes called semicircular canals or semicircular ducts. The horizontal, superior, and posterior semicircular canals are the three canals. A system is said to be in static equilibrium when all of its parts are at rest and there is no net force acting on it. When all the forces pulling on an item are in balance and it is not moving with respect to the relative plane, the object is said to be in static equilibrium. The transmission of inappropriate and inaccurate signals to the central nervous system can result from conditions that alter and have an impact on the semicircular canals' biomechanics (CNS)
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patients experiencing hypertension (high blood pressure) may be prescribed drugs called beta-blockers. these drugs bind to receptors on cardiac muscle cells and block the action of the sympathetic neurotransmitter (click to select) on the heart. this prevents the (click to select) effect that the sympathetic innervation would normally have on the heart. consequently, both heart rate and the force of contraction are (click to select) .
Patients experiencing hypertension (high blood pressure) may be prescribed drugs called beta-blockers.
Beta-blockers
Cardiovascular illnesses and other conditions are the main conditions that beta-blockers, a class of medications, are used to treat. For the treatment of tachycardia, hypertension, myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias, hyperthyroidism, essential tremor, aortic dissection, portal hypertension, glaucoma, migraine prophylaxis, and other disorders, beta-blockers are recommended and have FDA approval. Additionally, they are employed in the management of uncommonr diseases such long QT syndrome and hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. This activity describes the clinical uses of beta-blockers, their mode of action, safe administration, side effects, contraindications, toxicity, and monitoring of the wide range of physiological possibilities.
these drugs bind to receptors on cardiac muscle cells and block the action of the sympathetic neurotransmitter Beta 1 receptor on the heart. this prevents the chronotropic effect that the sympathetic innervation would normally have on the heart. consequently, both heart rate and the force of contraction are decreases.
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why does testing for hcg work as a pregnancy test early in pregnancy but not late in pregnancy? biology
Monoclonal antibodies are bonded to the end of a pregnancy test stick, which is urinated on. HCG will be present in her urine if she is pregnant and will bind to the monoclonal antibodies on the test stick.
This will result in a change in color or pattern, indicating pregnancy.
Antibodies are used in pregnancy tests to detect human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). It is an excellent pregnancy indicator since it rises swiftly and reliably in early pregnancy and may be found in urine. 3
The sooner you take a home pregnancy test following a missing period, the more difficult it is for the test to detect HCG. Repeat the test one week after missing a period for the most reliable results.
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Under the federal hipaa regulations, state health privacy laws: ___________
Under the federal HIPAA regulations, state health privacy laws remain in effect if more stringent than what HIPAA provides.
What is HIPAA?This is also referred to as Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act and it is a federal law which contains standards to help protect sensitive patient health information from being disclosed. This helps to ensure that the information is only given to the patient and not to a third party unless consent is given.
Under the federal HIPAA regulations, state health privacy laws remain in effect if more stringent than what HIPAA provides so as to ensure that no rule is broken thereby making it the correct choice.
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Of the components of patient-focused interventions to enhance adherence, which component includes the following strategies: adaptive thinking, use of cues, and support?
A.
Motivation
B.
Skills
C.
Logistics
D.
Education
Answer:
B.SKILLS
Explanation:
Adaptive thinking is the ability to adapt to different situations and challenges, it involves strategies such as problem-solving and goal-setting.
Use of cues involves the use of reminders or prompts to help a person remember to take their medication or perform other important tasks. Support can take many forms, such as social support from loved ones or professional support from healthcare providers.These strategies altogether help a person develop the skills they need to effectively manage their condition and adhere to their treatment plan.#SPJ4
.
22. Which of the following is a precursor to vitamin D?A. CholineB.LecithinC.CholesterolD.Chylomicrons
Cholesterol is a precursor to vitamin D. So, the correct option is (C).
What is Vitamin D?Vitamin D is defined as a group of fat-soluble secosteroids which is responsible for enhancing intestinal absorption of calcium, magnesium, and phosphate, and for a number of other biological effects. The most important compounds it contains in humans are vitamin D₃ and vitamin D₂.
Cholesterol is the precursor of Vitamin D. It is a fat-soluble vitamin which is known to help the body absorb and retain calcium and phosphorus. These are important for bone formation. Vitamin D may reduce cancer cell growth, help control infection, and reduce inflammation.
Thus, Cholesterol is a precursor to vitamin D. So, the correct option is (C).
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A nurse is participating in a disaster simulation in which a toxic substance is released into a crowded stadium. Multiple clients are transported to the facility. Which of the following activities would be the lowest priority for the nurse?
a.Preventing cross-contamination of clients
b.Performing concise client assessment
c.Transferring a client to the discharge location
d.Maintaining a client tracking system
Transferring a patient to the place where they will be discharged if a nurse is taking part in a catastrophe simulation where a poisonous material is released into a packed stadium.
Why is anything toxic?A substance's toxicity is determined by three things: its chemical makeup, how much of it is absorbed by the body, and how well the body is able to detoxify the substance, turn it into less harmful compounds, and expel it from the body.
What specifically qualifies as a natural poison?Natural poisons are chemicals that living things make on their own. These toxins do not harm the organisms, but they may be hazardous if taken by humans or other animals. Some plants have the capacity to naturally produce toxins that are harmful to humans if consumed.
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which of the following is an anxious-fearful personality disorder characterized by extreme fear of being criticized, low self-esteem, and a lack of social interaction?
Extreme social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, especially sensitivity to rejection and harsh criticism are characteristics of avoidant personality disorder.
What kind of personality disorder exhibits avoidant behavior?Because they worry about being judged, rejected, or the disapproval of others, individuals suffering from avoidant personality disorder eschew social interaction—even at work. For instance, they might carry out the following: They might decline a promotion out of concern for their coworkers' judgment.
What do avoidants most dread?Because they worry about being rejected, they avoid becoming close to their spouses. Getting close to somebody makes them uncomfortable. Avoidant adults are concerned about getting wounded if they get too connected to others.
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Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
With the exception of increasing preload, all of the following may cause cardiogenic shock.
A potentially dangerous condition known as cardiogenic shock occurs when your heart is suddenly unable to pump enough blood through your body. Despite the fact that a serious heart attack is the syndrome’s most frequent cause, not all heart attacks lead to cardiogenic shock. Heart-related shock is uncommon. If untreated, it typically results in death. When treated quickly, the disease’s mortality rate is approximately 50%.
When your heart is unable to appropriately supply the brain and other vital organs with blood and oxygen, cardiogenic shock, also known as cardiac shock, happens. A life-threatening emergency has occurred. It can be treated if caught in time.
The following signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock are present: rapid breathing, severe shortness of breath, sudden, rapid heartbeat (tachycardia), loss of consciousness, weak pulse, low blood pressure (hypotension), sweating, pale complexion, cold hands or feet, and decreased or absent urination.
The complete question is:-
Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
1 heart attack.
2 increased afterload.
3 increased preload.
4 poor contractility.
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