Which of the following markets is the LEAST likely to be perfectly competitive?
a. the market for 24K gold
b. the market for corn
c. the market for fast food in Chapel Hill
d. the market for US dollars

Answers

Answer 1

The market for 24K gold is the least likely to be perfectly competitive. Option a is answer.

Perfectly competitive markets are characterized by a large number of buyers and sellers, homogeneous products, ease of entry and exit, perfect information, and no individual buyer or seller has control over the market price. In the case of 24K gold, it is a unique and specialized product with limited availability.

The number of sellers is relatively small, and the market is dominated by a few major players. Additionally, the price of gold is influenced by various factors such as supply and demand dynamics, global economic conditions, and geopolitical events, making it less likely to exhibit perfect competition.

Option a. the market for 24K gold is answer.

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Related Questions

Brief Exercise 20-9 Pharoah Co. had the following amounts related to its pension plan in 2017. Actuarial liability loss for 2017 Unexpected asset gain for 2017 Accumulated other comprehensive income (G/L) (beginning balance) $30,800 17,000 7,700 Cr Determine for 2017: (a) Pharoah's other comprehensive income (loss), and (b) comprehensive income. Net income for 2017 is $26,900; no amortization of gain or loss is necessary in 2017. (Enter loss using either a negative sign preceding the number e.g. -45 or parentheses e.g. (45).) (a) Other comprehensive income (loss) s (b) Comprehensive income (loss) LINK TO TEXT VIDEO: SIMILAR EXERCISE

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a) Pharoah Co.'s other comprehensive income (loss) for 2017 is $21,500.

b) Pharoah Co.'s comprehensive income for 2017 is $48,400.

To determine Pharoah Co.'s other comprehensive income (loss) and comprehensive income for 2017, we need to calculate the net amount of the actuarial liability loss and the unexpected asset gain.

(a) Other comprehensive income (loss):

Other comprehensive income (loss) is the difference between the actuarial liability loss and the unexpected asset gain, considering the beginning balance of accumulated other comprehensive income.

Other comprehensive income (loss) = (Actuarial liability loss - Unexpected asset gain) + Accumulated other comprehensive income (G/L) (beginning balance)

= ($30,800 - $17,000) + $7,700

= $13,800 + $7,700

= $21,500

Therefore, Pharoah Co.'s other comprehensive income (loss) for 2017 is $21,500.

(b) Comprehensive income:

Comprehensive income is the sum of net income and other comprehensive income.

Comprehensive income = Net income + Other comprehensive income

= $26,900 + $21,500

= $48,400

Therefore, Pharoah Co.'s comprehensive income for 2017 is $48,400.

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a local partnership was considering the possibility of liquidation. capital account balances at that time were as follows. profits and losses were divided on a 4:2:2:2 basis, respectively. ding, capital $ 60,000 laurel, capital 67,000 ezzard, capital 17,000 tillman, capital 96,000 at that time, the partnership held noncash assets reported at $360,000 and liabilities of $120,000. there was no cash on hand at the time. if the assets could be sold for $228,000 and there are no liquidation expenses, what is the amount that tillman would receive from the liquidation?

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Tillman would receive $38,000 (40% of $95,000, rounded to the nearest thousand) from the liquidation.

**Amount Tillman Would Receive from Liquidation:**
Tillman would receive $38,000 from the liquidation.
In a partnership liquidation, the noncash assets are sold to pay off the liabilities and distribute the remaining amount among the partners based on their capital account balances. The total capital account balances sum up to $240,000 ($60,000 + $67,000 + $17,000 + $96,000). Since Tillman's capital account balance is $96,000, his ownership percentage is 40% (96,000 / 240,000).
After selling the assets for $228,000 and subtracting the liabilities of $120,000, there is a remaining amount of $108,000 ($228,000 - $120,000). Tillman would receive 40% of this remaining amount, which equals $43,200. However, since there was no cash on hand at the time, Tillman would receive his share proportionately from the remaining noncash assets. As a result, Tillman would receive $38,000 (40% of $95,000, rounded to the nearest thousand) from the liquidation.

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According to Phelps, since unemployment tends toward its natural rate the Inflation rate: Policy makers can achieve permanently higher inflation without permanently higher unemployment Policy makers can achieve permanently lower inflation at the same level of unemployment Policy makers can achieve permanently lower inflation without permanently lower unemployment Policy makers can achieve permanently lower inflation without permanently higher unemployment in actual output

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According to Phelps, policy makers can achieve permanently lower inflation without permanently lower unemployment. Phelps' theory, called the "natural rate hypothesis," suggests that unemployment tends towards its natural rate, which is the level of unemployment that is consistent with stable inflation.

This means that policy makers cannot simply lower the unemployment rate without causing inflation to rise.
However, Phelps does suggest that policy makers can achieve permanently lower inflation without permanently lower unemployment. This can be done by implementing policies that increase productivity and efficiency, such as investing in education and technology. These policies can lead to long-term economic growth and stability, which in turn can reduce inflation without causing unemployment to rise.
In other words, while policy makers may not be able to manipulate the natural rate of unemployment, they can still influence inflation through measures that promote sustainable economic growth.

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a philosophy is the combined ideas, beliefs, and core values held by an organization. true false

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False.A philosophy is not specific to organizations but is a broader concept that encompasses a system of beliefs, values, and principles that guide an individual or group's thinking and behavior.

It can be applied to organizations, but it is not limited to them. A philosophy can exist at the individual level, societal level, or within various fields of study, such as philosophy itself. It is a framework that helps shape perspectives, decision-making, and actions.

Philosophy often involves the examination and exploration of fundamental questions about existence, knowledge, values, ethics, and reasoning. It seeks to provide a coherent and logical framework for understanding the world and human experience. Philosophical principles form the basis for critical thinking, moral reasoning, and the development of personal and societal values.

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supply chain professionals need to know how to... create, execute, and monitor the right set of activities to achieve their goals manage processes and manage projects focus on initiating, planing, delivering, and closing on temporary activities designs to produce a unique product, service, or result all of the above

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Supply chain professionals play a crucial role in managing the flow of goods, services, and information across the entire supply chain.

Supply chain professionals need to know all of the above: create, execute, and monitor the right set of activities to achieve their goals, manage processes and projects, and focus on initiating, planning, delivering, and closing on temporary activities designed to produce a unique product, service, or result. Firstly, supply chain professionals need to be able to create, execute, and monitor the right set of activities to achieve their goals. This involves designing and implementing effective strategies and operational plans to optimize supply chain performance, including activities such as demand planning, procurement, production, logistics, and customer service.

Secondly, they must possess the ability to manage processes and projects. Supply chain management involves overseeing and improving various processes within the supply chain, such as inventory management, order fulfillment, transportation, and warehousing. Additionally, they may need to manage projects related to supply chain optimization, system implementations, or process improvements.

Lastly, supply chain professionals focus on initiating, planning, delivering, and closing on temporary activities designed to produce a unique product, service, or result. They are involved in activities like new product development, product launches, supply chain network design, or implementing supply chain improvements.

In summary, supply chain professionals need to possess a broad skill set that encompasses creating and executing activities, managing processes and projects, and focusing on delivering unique outcomes. Their expertise lies in effectively managing the complex and interconnected activities within the supply chain to achieve operational excellence and drive organizational success.

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.You can stay in control during your presentation, build credibility, and engage your audience by _____________
A.) using visual aids effectively
B.) avoiding eye contact
C.) speaking rapidly

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To stay in control during a presentation, build credibility, and engage the audience effectively, it is important to (a) use visual aids effectively.

The first key element is using visual aids effectively. Visual aids such as slides, charts, or props can enhance your message, clarify complex information, and make your presentation more visually appealing. They help to reinforce your points and keep your audience engaged by providing a visual representation of the information you're conveying.

Secondly, avoiding eye contact is not recommended. Establishing eye contact with your audience builds rapport and trust. It shows that you are confident, sincere, and actively connecting with each individual in the room. Eye contact also allows you to gauge the audience's reactions and adjust your presentation accordingly, ensuring that you maintain their attention throughout.

Lastly, speaking rapidly should be avoided. While it's important to maintain a steady pace, speaking too quickly can make it difficult for your audience to follow along. It may also give the impression that you are nervous or unsure of your content. Instead, speak clearly, enunciate your words, and allow for pauses to emphasize important points or give the audience time to process the information. A controlled and deliberate pace demonstrates confidence and enables your audience to comprehend and engage with your presentation effectively. To stay in control, build credibility, and engage your audience during a presentation, it is crucial to utilize visual aids effectively, maintain eye contact, and speak at a suitable pace. These practices will enhance your communication skills, capture your audience's attention, and ensure a successful and impactful presentation.

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revenue and cost of sales are accounts shown on the statement of income that deal with operating decisions. group of answer choices true false

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Revenue and cost of sales are accounts shown on the statement of income that deal with operating decisions is true.

Revenue and cost of sales are accounts shown on the statement of income (also known as the income statement or profit and loss statement) that deal with operating decisions. Revenue represents the total amount of money earned from the sale of goods or services during a specific period. It is a key indicator of a company's operating performance and reflects the core business activities. Cost of sales, also known as the cost of goods sold (COGS), represents the direct costs associated with producing or acquiring the goods or services sold by a company. It includes the cost of raw materials, direct labor, and other direct expenses related to the production or acquisition of goods. Both revenue and cost of sales are essential in determining a company's gross profit, which is calculated by subtracting cost of sales from revenue. The statement of income provides valuable information about a company's operating performance, profitability, and efficiency.

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In monopolistic competition there is/are
A) many sellers who each face a downward-sloping demand curve.
B) a few sellers who each face a downward-sloping demand curve.
C) only one seller who faces a downward-sloping demand curve.
D) many sellers who each face a perfectly elastic demand curve.

Answers

In monopolistic competition there is/are: the correct answer is  the A) many sellers who each face a downward-sloping demand curve.

In monopolistic competition, there are many sellers in the market, each offering a slightly differentiated product. This means that consumers have a range of options to choose from. As a result, each seller faces a downward-sloping demand curve, as they have some control over the price of their product due to product differentiation.

The downward-sloping demand curve indicates that as the seller increases the price of their product, the quantity demanded decreases. However, since there are many sellers offering similar but differentiated products, each seller has a limited market share and faces competition from other sellers. This competition and product differentiation are the key characteristics of monopolistic competition.

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Suppose Miguel borrows $6500 at an interest rate of 2% compounded each year. Assume that no payments are made on the loan.
(a) Find the amount owed at the end of 1 year.
(b) Find the amount owed at the end of 2 years.

Answers

Miguel borrowed $6500 at an interest rate of 2% compounded annually. At the end of one year, the amount owed will be $6630. At the end of two years, the amount owed will be $6767.20.

To calculate the amount owed at the end of each year, use the formula for compound interest: [tex]A = P(1 + r)^n[/tex], where A is the amount owed, P is the principal amount borrowed, r is the interest rate, and n is the number of years.

(a) At the end of one year, the amount owed is calculated as follows:

[tex]A = $6500(1 + 0.02)^1 = $6500(1.02) = $6630.[/tex]

Therefore, at the end of one year, Miguel will owe $6630.

(b) At the end of two years, the amount owed is calculated as follows:

[tex]A = $6500(1 + 0.02)^2 = $6500(1.02)(1.02) = $6500(1.0404) = $6767.20[/tex].

Hence, at the end of two years, the amount owed by Miguel will be $6767.20.

In both cases, the compound interest formula is used to account for the interest earned on the principal amount over time. As the interest is compounded annually, the interest earned in each year is added to the principal, resulting in an increased amount owed at the end of each year.

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Which of the following is not a potential solution to moral hazard in the labor market?a. an extensive vetting process when hiring employeesb. Commission pay and bonus systems based upon employee performancec. Monitoring and supervision of employees' performanced. Profit-sharing

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The potential solution to moral hazard in the labor market that is not effective is **a. an extensive vetting process when hiring employees**.

While an extensive vetting process when hiring employees can help identify candidates with the desired skills and qualifications, it does not directly address the issue of moral hazard. Moral hazard refers to the tendency of individuals to take risks or act in a way that is detrimental to others when they are protected from the consequences of their actions. Vetting processes primarily focus on selecting qualified individuals but may not necessarily prevent moral hazard.
On the other hand, options b, c, and d provide potential solutions to moral hazard in the labor market:
- **Commission pay and bonus systems based upon employee performance** create incentives for employees to work harder and perform well, reducing the likelihood of moral hazard.
- **Monitoring and supervision of employees' performance** helps to ensure that employees are following established rules and guidelines, reducing the opportunity for moral hazard.
- **Profit-sharing** involves sharing a portion of the company's profits with employees, aligning their interests with the company's success and reducing moral hazard.
Therefore, option a is not a direct solution to moral hazard, while options b, c, and d can help address this issue in the labor market.

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which of the following is not a component of the money market? a. commercial paper b. real estate investment trusts c. money market mutual funds d. eurodollars

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Option b. real estate investment trusts is not a component of the money market

The money market is a segment of the financial market where short-term debt securities are traded. It consists of highly liquid and low-risk instruments. The components of the money market typically include commercial paper, money market mutual funds, and eurodollars.

a. Commercial paper refers to short-term unsecured promissory notes issued by corporations to raise funds for their short-term financing needs.

b. Real estate investment trusts (REITs) are investment vehicles that own and operate income-generating real estate properties. They are not typically considered a part of the money market as they are not short-term debt securities.

c. Money market mutual funds are investment funds that invest in short-term debt instruments. They provide investors with a low-risk option to invest in the money market.

d. Eurodollars are U.S. dollar-denominated deposits held in banks outside the United States. They are an important component of the money market.

Therefore, the correct answer is b. real estate investment trusts, as they are not a component of the money market.

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In the context of Porter's five industry forces, the threat of new entrants can be defined as:a. a measure of the ease with which customers can find substitutes for an industry's products or services.b. a measure of the influence that customers have on the firm's prices.c. a measure of the degree to which barriers to entry make it easy or difficult for new companies to get started in an industry.d. a measure of the intensity of competitive behavior among companies in an industry.

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In the context of Porter's five industry forces, the threat of new entrants can be defined as c. a measure of the degree to which barriers to entry make it easy or difficult for new companies to get started in an industry.

The threat of new entrants refers to the potential for new companies to enter an industry and compete with existing firms. This aspect of Porter's five forces framework assesses the obstacles that may deter or facilitate the entry of new players into the market. When barriers to entry are high, such as significant capital requirements, strict regulations, or strong brand loyalty, it becomes more difficult for new companies to establish themselves and pose a threat to existing firms. Conversely, when barriers to entry are low, new entrants can easily enter the market, increasing competition and potentially impacting the profitability and market share of established players. Evaluating the threat of new entrants helps companies understand the competitive landscape and formulate appropriate strategies to defend their position in the industry.

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affiliates who set up a monthly auto-delivery for the builder bundle gets ____ additional csas.

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Affiliates who set up a monthly auto-delivery for the builder bundle receive 1.5 additional CSA (customer acquisition sales) for each bundle purchased through their unique referral link.

This means that if an affiliate sets up a monthly auto-delivery for 10 builder bundles, they will receive 15 additional CSA for their efforts. This is a powerful incentive for affiliates to promote the builder bundle and can help to drive sales and increase revenue for the business.

Additionally, the monthly auto-delivery feature provides a convenient and hassle-free way for customers to receive their builder bundle on a regular basis, which can help to build customer loyalty and repeat business.  

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what is one of the main reasons cited for rising income and wealth inequality in the united states?

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One of the main reasons cited for rising income and wealth inequality in the United States is the phenomenon of unequal distribution of economic gains and benefits.

Technological advancements: Advances in technology and automation have led to shifts in the job market. Certain industries and professions have experienced significant growth and income gains, while others have seen a decline in demand for labor, resulting in stagnant wages or job losses for workers in those sectors.

Globalization and outsourcing: Globalization has facilitated the outsourcing of jobs to countries with lower labor costs, leading to increased competition for certain types of employment. This has contributed to wage stagnation and job insecurity for workers, particularly in industries where offshoring has been prevalent.

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the last step in the instructional design process involves choosing a training method.a. trueb. false

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True. The last step in the instructional design process is choosing a training method that is appropriate for the audience, content, and delivery method.


This involves selecting the most effective way to deliver the training, which could include classroom instruction, e-learning, on-the-job training, or a combination of these methods. The training method should align with the goals and objectives of the instructional design plan and should be evaluated to ensure that it is successful in meeting the intended outcomes. Therefore, the statement "the last step in the instructional design process involves choosing a training method" is true.

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If Canada has a trade deficit with the US, then ___. A) The demand for Canadian dollar should increase and the U.S. dollar should depreciate against the Canadian dollar. B) The supply for Canadian dollar should increase and the Canadian dollar should appreciate against the U.S. dollar. C) the demand for U.S. Dollar should increase and the U.S. Dollar should appreciate against the Canadian dollar.

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If Canada has a trade deficit with the US, then (C) The demand for U.S. Dollar should increase and the U.S. Dollar should appreciate against the Canadian dollar.

When Canada has a trade deficit with the US, it means that Canada is importing more goods and services from the US than it is exporting to the US. This results in a net outflow of Canadian dollars to pay for the imports.

In this scenario, Canadian importers will need to exchange their Canadian dollars for U.S. dollars to purchase goods and services from the US. As the demand for U.S. dollars increases, the value of the U.S. dollar relative to the Canadian dollar tends to appreciate. This means that it will take more Canadian dollars to buy one U.S. dollar.

Conversely, the supply of Canadian dollars in the foreign exchange market will increase as Canadian importers exchange their currency for U.S. dollars. However, it is the increase in demand for U.S. dollars that has a more significant impact on the exchange rate between the two currencies.

Therefore, option C) is correct: the demand for U.S. Dollar should increase and the U.S. Dollar should appreciate against the Canadian dollar when Canada has a trade deficit with the US.

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one way to assess the importance of retailing to the u.s. and global economies is to measure the

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One way to assess the importance of retailing to the U.S. and global economies is to measure the total sales revenue generated by retail businesses. This reflects the economic impact of retailing, as it contributes to overall economic growth and employment opportunities.

One way to assess the importance of retailing to the US and global economies is to measure the revenue generated by retail businesses. Retailing is a significant contributor to both the US and global economies, as it creates jobs, generates income, and stimulates economic growth. The revenue generated by retail businesses can be measured through various indicators such as sales figures, profit margins, and market share. Additionally, other factors such as consumer spending, employment rates, and GDP can also provide insight into the significance of retailing to the economy. Overall, retailing plays a vital role in driving economic activity and is a crucial component of both the US and global economies.

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a simple difference is also called interaction effect. b.a marginal means difference. c.a factorial design. d.a main effect.

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A simple difference is also called interaction effect The correct Option is "d. a main effect."

A main effect refers to the overall effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable, regardless of the levels of other independent variables.

This is in contrast to an interaction effect, which occurs when the effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable depends on the level of another independent variable. A marginal means difference refers to the difference between the means of a dependent variable across the levels of one independent variable, while holding all other independent variables constant. Finally, a factorial design is a research design that examines the effects of two or more independent variables on a dependent variable.

In conclusion, The correct Option is "d. a main effect."it is important to understand the different terms used in experimental research to accurately interpret and communicate study results.

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which affects the business environment because it provides the most options for consumers?

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In the modern business landscape, consumers have more options than ever before when it comes to choosing products and services. This is largely due to the proliferation of technology and the internet, which has made it easier for businesses to reach consumers directly and for consumers to research and compare different options.

One of the primary ways in which consumer choice affects the business environment is by driving competition. When consumers have a range of options to choose from, businesses must work harder to stand out and differentiate themselves from their competitors. This can lead to increased innovation as businesses seek to offer unique features or services that will attract customers. Competition can also drive down prices as businesses seek to undercut one another, which can benefit consumers in the long run.

At the same time, consumer choice can also create challenges for businesses. With so many options available, businesses must work harder to build brand loyalty and retain customers. This can require significant investment in marketing and customer service, which can be difficult for small or emerging businesses. Additionally, businesses must be careful to stay up-to-date with changing consumer preferences and trends in order to remain relevant and competitive.

In conclusion, consumer choice is a key factor in shaping the business environment. While it can provide consumers with a wide range of options and drive competition and innovation, it can also create challenges for businesses. As such, businesses must be strategic in how they respond to changing consumer preferences and trends in order to stay ahead of the curve.

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All of the following have been cited as reasons that international communications may fail EXCEPT:
A)media inadequacy
B)poor product design
C)misunderstanding of the message by the target audience
D)poor understanding of the wants and needs of the target market
E)poor implementation

Answers

Among the given options, all except B) poor product design have been cited as reasons for potential failures in international communications.

International communications can encounter various challenges that hinder their effectiveness. Media inadequacy refers to situations where the chosen communication channels or platforms are insufficient or ineffective for reaching the intended audience. Misunderstanding of the message by the target audience can occur due to cultural, linguistic, or contextual differences, leading to misinterpretation or confusion. Poor understanding of the wants and needs of the target market can result in messages that are irrelevant or unappealing to the audience, thus failing to generate the desired response. Poor implementation involves shortcomings in the execution of communication strategies, such as errors in timing, delivery, or presentation. However, poor product design, is not typically considered a direct cause of communication failures but rather a separate aspect related to the quality and appeal of the product itself.

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for a perfectly competitive firm, the short-run break-even point occurs at the level of output where group of answer choices mr = p > mc. p > mr = mc. mr < p = mc. p = mc = atc.

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For a perfectly competitive firm, the short-run break-even point occurs at the level of output where the following condition is met: P = MC = ATC. At this point, the firm covers all its costs and earns zero economic profit.

Competitive refers to the state or nature of rivalry, contest, or competition among individuals, organizations, or entities in a particular market, industry, or arena. It involves striving to outperform others, gain an advantage, or achieve success in terms of market share, customer acquisition, profitability, or other desired outcomes. Competitive environments drive innovation, efficiency, and improvement as participants seek to differentiate themselves, offer superior products or services, and attract customers. Competition can be fierce, leading to intense rivalry, price wars, or aggressive marketing strategies. Businesses often employ competitive analysis, strategic planning, and market research to understand competitors, identify opportunities, and develop effective strategies to gain a competitive edge.

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agarwal, incorporated, has a 50-day average collection period and wants to maintain a minimum cash balance of $40 million, which is what the company currently has on hand. the company currently has a receivables balance of $198 million and has developed the following sales and cash disbursement budgets (in millions): q1 q2 q3 q4 sales $ 459 $ 531 $ 612 $ 576 total cash disbursement 302 466 720 477
Complete the following cash budget for the company. Note: A negative answer should be indicated by a minus sign. Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answers in millions rounded to the nearest whole million dollar amount

Answers

The completed cash budget for Agarwal, Incorporated is as follows:

Q1: $119 million surplus

Q2: $65 million deficit

Q3: $208 million deficit

Q4: $77 million surplus

To complete the cash budget, we need to consider the average collection period, minimum cash balance, receivables balance, and the sales and cash disbursement budgets.

The average collection period of 50 days indicates that 1/50th of the receivables balance will be collected each day. As the company wants to maintain a minimum cash balance of $40 million, any excess cash beyond that can be used to cover deficits in other periods. In Q1, the sales budget is $459 million, and the cash disbursement is $302 million, resulting in a $157 million surplus ($459 million - $302 million). Since the minimum cash balance is already met, the surplus can be carried forward.

In Q2, the sales budget is $531 million, and the cash disbursement is $466 million. However, the receivables balance of $198 million will be collected during this period, resulting in a $65 million deficit ($531 million - $466 million - $198 million).In Q3, the sales budget is $612 million, and the cash disbursement is $720 million. The receivables balance is still $198 million, resulting in a $208 million deficit ($612 million - $720 million - $198 million).

In Q4, the sales budget is $576 million, and the cash disbursement is $477 million. The remaining receivables balance is collected, resulting in a $77 million surplus ($576 million - $477 million).In summary, the completed cash budget shows a surplus of $119 million in Q1 and $77 million in Q4, while Q2 and Q3 have deficits of $65 million and $208 million, respectively.

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the word that would best describe what took place in corporate america during the 1990s would be

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The word that would best describe what took place in corporate America during the 1990s would be "globalization".

The 1990s was a decade of significant changes in the corporate world, as businesses began to expand their operations across the world. This process was driven by advancements in technology, increased trade liberalization, and the opening up of new markets. Companies began to focus on improving their competitiveness by investing in new technologies and streamlining their operations. The rise of the internet also played a major role, as businesses began to leverage the power of the web to reach customers and expand their markets. Overall, the 1990s was a period of rapid change and globalization in the corporate world, as companies adapted to new technologies and markets to remain competitive.

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the formal acceptance of the adequacy of a system's overall security by the management is called:

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The formal acceptance of the adequacy of a system's overall security by the management is called "security accreditation".

Security accreditation is a process that involves evaluating and verifying that a system meets specific security requirements, and that the management has approved the level of risk associated with the system. This process is typically conducted by an independent body or team of experts who review the system's security controls, policies, procedures, and documentation to ensure they are sufficient and effective in protecting the system from potential threats. Once the system has been accredited, the management can feel confident that the system is secure and can be used for its intended purpose.

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a geographic roll-out opportunity is available in a(n) ______ industry.

Answers

A geographic roll-out opportunity is available in almost any industry, as it refers to expanding the reach of a business or product to new geographic locations.

This could be relevant to industries such as retail, healthcare, education, technology, hospitality, and many more. For example, a retail company may be looking to open new stores in different regions to increase their customer base and revenue. Similarly, a healthcare organization may be interested in expanding their services to new areas to provide better access to healthcare for more people. In today's global economy, there are numerous opportunities for businesses to expand geographically, and it ultimately depends on the goals and strategies of the specific company.

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True/False.the primary purpose of a default premium is to measure of an issuer's future financial prospects.

Answers

The statement is False. The primary purpose of a default premium is not to measure an issuer's future financial prospects. Instead, a default premium is an additional interest rate that is charged by lenders or investors to compensate for the higher risk of default associated with lending or investing in a particular borrower or security.

Essentially, the default premium is an extra amount that lenders or investors require in order to be compensated for the additional risk they are taking on. This is why borrowers with a higher risk of default, such as those with poor credit ratings or a history of missed payments, will typically have to pay a higher interest rate on their loans. In summary, while a default premium can give an indication of the level of risk associated with a particular borrower or security, its primary purpose is to provide compensation to lenders or investors for taking on additional risk.

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one consequence of using low-price tactics will often be lower profits.a. Trueb. False

Answers

Answer:

True,

One consequence of using low-price tactics will often be lower profits.

Explanation:

a fair die is one for which each of the outcomes 1,2,3,4,5,6 are equally likely. according to the law of large numbers: a several (four or five) consecutive rolls for which the outcome 1 is observed is impossible in the long run. if such an event did occur, it would mean the die is no longer fair. b after rolling a 1, you will usually roll nearly all the n

Answers

According to the law of large numbers, it is highly unlikely to observe several consecutive rolls resulting in the outcome 1 with a fair die in the long run. If such an event were to occur, it would indicate that the die is no longer fair.

The law of large numbers states that as the number of trials or observations increases, the average of those outcomes will converge to the expected value or true probability. In the case of a fair die, where each outcome has an equal chance of occurring, the expected probability of rolling a 1 is 1/6. This means that as the number of rolls increases, the observed frequency of rolling a 1 should approach 1/6.

If we were to observe several consecutive rolls resulting in the outcome 1, such as four or five consecutive 1s, it would be highly unlikely to occur with a fair die in the long run. The probability of rolling a 1 four or five times in a row with a fair die is[tex](1/6)^4 or (1/6)^5[/tex], respectively, which is significantly low.

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.Michelle Duncan wants to know what price home she can afford. Her annual gross income is $50,400. She owes $830 per month on other debts and expects her property taxes and homeowners insurance to cost $220 per month. She knows she can get an 11.00%, 30-year mortgage so her mortgage payment factor is 9.52. She expects to make a 15% down payment. What is Michelle's affordable home purchase price? (Round your answer to the nearest dollar amount.)


a) $766
b) $65,048
c) $67,474
d) $49,350

Answers

Rounded to the nearest dollar, Michelle's affordable home purchase price is $4,097. Therefore, none of the options provided (a, b, c, d) match the calculated amount.

To calculate Michelle's affordable home purchase price, we need to consider her gross income, monthly debt payments, property taxes, homeowners insurance, mortgage payment factor, and down payment percentage.

First, let's calculate Michelle's monthly gross income:

$50,400 / 12 = $4,200

Next, let's calculate her total monthly debt payments:

$830 (other debts) + $220 (property taxes and insurance) = $1,050

Now, let's calculate her monthly mortgage payment:

$4,200 - $1,050 = $3,150 (monthly income available for housing expenses)

$3,150 / 9.52 (mortgage payment factor) = $330.64 (monthly mortgage payment)

To determine the affordable home purchase price, we need to calculate the loan amount based on the monthly mortgage payment and the interest rate:

Loan amount = Monthly mortgage payment / Mortgage payment factor

Loan amount = $330.64 / 0.0952 = $3,471.64

Now, let's calculate the total affordable home purchase price, considering the down payment:

Affordable home purchase price = Loan amount / (1 - Down payment percentage)

Affordable home purchase price = $3,471.64 / (1 - 0.15) = $4,096.64

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Select the correct answer.
Which of the following is an example of secured debt?
O a credit card that you signed an application for
O a credit score inquiry that turns up a bad debt
a student loan for college
a loan for a new car

Answers

A  loan for a new car is an example of secured debt. Option D


Secured debt refers to a type of loan where the borrower pledges some form of collateral, such as a car or a house, to secure the loan. In the case of a loan for a new car, the car itself is the collateral. This means that if the borrower defaults on the loan, the lender can repossess the car to recover the money owed.

In contrast, unsecured debt refers to a type of loan where no collateral is required, such as a credit card or a personal loan. These types of loans are typically granted based on the borrower's creditworthiness and ability to repay the debt.

Secured debt is generally considered to be less risky for lenders, as they have a tangible asset that they can recover in the event of a default. As a result, secured loans often have lower interest rates than unsecured loans. However, borrowers need to be aware that if they default on a secured loan, they could lose the asset they pledged as collateral.

In summary, a loan for a new car is an example of secured debt because the car itself is used as collateral to secure the loan. Option D.

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