Answer:
All of the above
Explanation:
The scientific method allows us to fully understand our research and to keep it as organized and precise as possible.
A sample of cancer cells from a breast cancer tumor were treated with various concentrations of a drug, drug X. The percent survival for these tumor cells is shown in the graph here. Which statements are supported by the experimental design and the data shown in the graph? Select ALL that apply. A * B 4x D The safest dose of the drug is 1000 micromolar concentration. C All concentrations of the drug show a decrease in cell survival compared to the control. E The cells survive but stop dividing at low concentration of the drug. Only concentrations above 100 micromolar for drug X allow for greater than 50% of the cells to die. The dose response curve indicates that higher concentrations of the drug are more effective at decreasing cell viability of the cancer cells.
High attrition rates in the development of cancer drugs have been attributed, in part, to the low repeatability of preclinical drug discovery models. Ineffective experimental planning and a lack of scientific transparency may result in experimental biases that have an impact on the reliability, validity, and reproducibility of results.
Here, we identify causes of experimental variability in traditional 2D cell-based cancer drug screening to assess the impact of confounders on cell viability for platinum medicines (cisplatin and carboplatin) and a proteasome inhibitor treated MCF7 and HCC38 breast cancer cell lines (bortezomib). According to variance component analysis, differences in cell viability were more frequently related to the selection of the medication and cell line than to the kind of growth media or the length of the test incubation period.
Due to the possible danger of evaporation and the resulting impact on dose-response curves, alternative ways of keeping diluted pharmaceutical medicines and the use of DMSO controls should be carefully considered. For HCC38, MCF7, MCF-10A, and MDA-MB-436 cells that had been treated with bortezomib and cisplatin, the results were repeatable thanks to the optimization of the experimental conditions, which also significantly enhanced the quality of the data. Together, these results show that by identifying potential confounders and subsequently optimizing experimental parameters for each cell line, cell-based drug screens' replicability (the analyst repeats the experiment multiple times) and reproducibility (different analysts perform the same experiment under different experimental conditions) can be enhanced.
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The diagram shows a food web.
A flowchart. Cycle 1: 1, Grass. 2, Grasshopper. 3, Shrew or Mouse. 4, Fox. Cycle 2: 1, Grass. 2, Mouse. 3, Fox or Snake. Cycle 3: 1, Grass. 2, Rabbit. 3, Fox.
Which is the producer?
grass
grasshopper
mouse
fox
Answer:
a) Grass
Explanation:
From the flowchart grass is the only producer, other all are consumers. Therefore, the option (a) is correct answer.
A 40-year-old man who has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and who is undergoing highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) presents with progressive encephalomyeloradiculopathy. He has severe headaches but no fever, cough, or weakness. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is collected. The test results for the specimen are: 25 WBC/mm3 (25 white blood cells per cubic millimeter), low glucose, elevated protein, and no organisms on Gram stain or acid-fast stain. His studies are negative for cryptococcal antigen, Toxoplasma organisms (by serology), and herpes simplex virus (HSV) (by polymerase chain reaction [PCR]). Routine bacterial culture is negative. Despite therapy for HSV and routine aerobic bacterial causes of meningitis, over the next 4 days the patient spikes fevers. A second CSF specimen shows 415 WBC/mm3, with no diagnosis. A battery of viral encephalitis serology tests are done, and all are negative. In-house PCR testing on a third CSF specimen is positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which grows in culture after 4 weeks.
QUESTIONS
1. Why are the acid-fast smear results from all three of the specimens negative, but the second PCR result is positive?
2. How can M. tuberculosis be identified to the species level?
3. List the organisms present in the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex.
4. Sometimes in processing for mycobacterial culture, an aerosol is created and one specimen splashes into another tube and contaminates it. If the physician states that the patient does not appear to have tuberculosis, how can the laboratory confirm that the positive culture does not represent contamination?
1. Due to the slow development of these microorganisms, they were still not acid resistant bacteria that retain color.
2. It is possible to identify the species of this genus by biochemical tests, genetic tools and proteomics tools.
3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium africanum
Mycobacterium bovis and the Calmette–Guérin Bacillus
Mycobacterium microti
Mycobacterium canetti
Mycobacterium caprae
Mycobacterium pinnipedii
Mycobacterium suricattae
mycobacterium mungi
4. arrangement of colonies in the test tube.
What is the M. tuberculosis complex?The Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex is a group of bacteria of the genus Mycobacterium capable of causing tuberculosis in humans or other organisms.
What are the complementary tests for tuberculosis?For the diagnosis of tuberculosis, the following tests are mainly used: direct microscopic examination (direct bacilloscopy), culture for mycobacteria with species identification, antimicrobial sensitivity test, rapid test for tuberculosis (TR-TB) and chest X-ray.
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Write a scientific explanation about how different organisms compare throughout development.
Due to the fact that some homologous components can only be observed during embryonic development, embryology was crucial to understanding how a species has evolved.
The discipline of comparative anatomy known as embryology examines how vertebrate animals grow before giving birth or hatching. Similarities between embryos and adults can be evidence of shared ancestry. For instance, as seen in the figure below, all vertebrate embryos possess tails as well as gill slits.
The embryological stages of several creatures are very similar, pointing to shared ancestry.
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sort the following items according to whether they are reactants or products in the anaerobic reduction of pyruvate during lactic acid fermentation. Drag each item to the appropriate bin.
A. NAD+
B. NADH+
C. lactate
D. pyruvate
1. reactants
2. products
In the anaerobic reduction of pyruvate during lactic acid fermentation, the reactants will be NADH and pyruvate and the products will be NAD+ and lactate.
Anaerobic reduction is the conversion of pyruvate into lactate in the absence of oxygen. Thus reaction occurs in the anaerobic organisms as well as in the muscles oh humans during intense exercise. For this to happen, the NAD+ is reduced to NADH.
Pyruvate is the product formed due to the breakdown of glucose in the reaction glycolysis. It is a 10 step process that requires ATP as well as yields some ATP. The net gain of ATP in the reaction is of 2. The process can occur in both aerobic and anaerobic organisms.
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Which of these is a base? O NaOH Vinegar Lemon Juice HCI
Answer:
NaOH
Explanation:
Since no acid-base reaction equations are provided for each substance, we will have to use logic to find the answer. We can immediately eliminate vinegar and lemon juice, which are both acids, as acidic substances generally taste sour. Next, we can apply the idea of most acids having a +H in their chemical formula while most bases have a -OH in their chemical formula. Because HCl has a +H in its formula, it is an acid, and since NaOH has a -OH in its formula, NaOH is a base.
Using the terms solar radiation and terrestrial radiation, explain the heating of the earth by the
sun.
Solar power is referred to as solar radiation. The amount of solar energy that reaches the earth is referred to as insolation. The radiation that the planet emits is known as terrestrial radiation.
How does the earth's atmosphere maintain its temperature?A tiny amount of radiation from the Earth's surface and the warmed upper atmosphere both radiate into space. The majority of the longwave radiation produced warms the lower atmosphere, which then warms the surface of our planet.
Does terrestrial radiation heat the atmosphere effectively?Therefore, long wave terrestrial radiation is primarily responsible for warming the atmosphere. The majority of the energy that reaches the earth's surface is in short wavelengths. Incoming solar radiation, often known as insolation, is the name for the energy that the earth receives from the sun.
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Which cells are most directly associated with the formation of csf?
Explanation:
CSF is produced by specialised ependymal cells in the choroid plexus of the ventricles of the brain, and absorbed in the arachnoid granulations. There is about 125 mL of CSF at any one time, and about 500 mL is generated every day.
As scientists have studied the evolution of BSE, they note that it is very similar to a disease that affects sheep. It has also been shown to be similar to a disease that affects rodents. Humans have been infected with a variation as well. What is the MOST reasonable conclusion that can be made from these studies?
A. Every species is exposed to the disease in different ways.
B. The disease can mutate and infect different species.
C. Animals like cattle can be considered a “dead end host.”
D. Scientists are confusing separate diseases as just one disease.
The conclusion that can be made about the evolution of BSE and similar type of disease affecting sheep, rodents and humans is: (B) The disease can mutate and infect different species.
BSE stands for Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy. It is a neurological disease affecting the cattle. It is caused by a transmissible agent called prion. The disease can be transmitted from cattle to humans via there meat.
Mutation is the change in the sequence of DNA that may cause some harmful effects. Mutations can be of two types: Point mutation and Frameshift mutation. Some mutation do not cause any harmful or visible changes, these are termed silent mutations.
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Differences in traits such as hair texture are determined by differences in:_____.
a. the location of sugar groups in DNA
b. the sequence of nucleotides in DNA
c. the number of nitrogenous bases in DNA
d. the molecule attached to the phosphate in DNA
Answer. C-the number of nitrogenous based in DNA.
Explanation:
Differences in traits such as hair texture are determined by differences in the sequence of nucleotides in DNA.
What is DNA?
Deoxyribonucleic acid, also known as DNA, is a large molecule that houses our distinct genetic code.The four fundamental "bases" or "building blocks" of DNA are adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T) .The genome instructions are formed by the arrangement, or sequence, of these nucleotides.A two-stranded molecule, DNA.DNA is shaped like a twisted ladder and has a special "double helix" form.Traits controlled by nucleotide sequence:
A section of DNA known as a "gene" is used as a template during gene transcription to produce messenger RNA, which is then utilized as a template to produce proteins during the translation process.
The sequences of the proteins produced by transcription and subsequent translation are determined by the nucleotide order in a gene.
Both structural and enzymatic proteins have a major role in determining the phenotypic characteristics.
In conclusion, variations in the SEQUENCE of nucleotides in DNA are what cause variations in traits like hair texture.
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What is electromagnetic spectrum in?
The electromagnetic spectrum consists of :
Gamma radiation.X-ray radiation.Ultraviolet radiation.Visible light.Infrared radiation.Microwave radiation.Radio waves.What is the electromagnetic spectrum?
The electromagnetic (EM) spectrum is the range of all types of EM radiation.
What is the use of the electromagnetic spectrum?
Electromagnetic waves have a vast range of practical everyday applications that includes such diverse uses as communication by cell phone and radio broadcasting, WiFi, cooking, vision, medical imaging, and treating cancer.
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Differences in traits such as hair texture are determined by differences in:_________.
a. the location of sugar groups in DNA
b. the sequence of nucleotides in DNA
c. the number of nitrogenous bases in DNA
d. the molecule attached to the phosphate in DNA
What will happen to an animal cell in a Hypotonic solution?
Cyto-
Lysis-
Maria slips on the wet floor of the school hallway and falls flat, the back of her head hitting the floor. Which bones are a risk of injury from this impact?
Answer:
All of them, I tripped her and am now kicking Maria.
Explanation:
yes
HELP!!! What mechanism within the Earth's mantle causes the plates to
move?
The respiratory system works hand in hand
with the cardiovascular system
O True
O False
Please help
The complementary DNA sequence of CTC-GAC-GGA is -
A.TTC-CTG-ATT
B.GAG-CTG-CCT
C.TGT-AGT-AAG
D. OTTA-ATG-CTT
Which of following does not describe a common reason people immigrate? (4 points)
Drought in the area
To avoid conflict or war
New job opportunities
More housing options
More housing options does not describe a common reason people immigrate.
A root cause is the essential motive for the incidence of an event, on this case, immigration. Often, withinside the migration context, there are each push and pull elements with push elements being motives why humans could need to go away their domestic united states and pull elements being motives why humans could need to return back to a brand new united states. In migration, push and pull elements may be economic, environmental, social and political.
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3. As a result of meiosis, each of the daughter cells produced from the original cell... Group of answer choices
receives a few chromosomes from the original cell
receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the original cell
donates a chromosome to the original cell
receives exactly half the chromosomes from the original cell
The result of meiosis is that each daughter cell produced from the original cell receives exactly half the chromosomes from the original cell (option D).
What is meiosis?Meiosis is the cell division of a diploid cell into four haploid cells, which develop to produce gametes or sex cells.
These cells are the gametes; sperms in males and egg in females. The process of meiosis is divided into 2 stages. Each stage is subdivided into several phases.
The meiotic process is called reduction division because it reduces the number of chromosomes in the parent cell by half.
For example, if the somatic cell of a dog posseses 78 chromosomes, this means that as a result of meiosis, the gametes of the dog will possess 39 chromosomes each.
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Compare and contrast the jejunum and the
ileum. Consider discussing shape, texture, and
color between the two human specimens in
Figure 2. (Refer to the structure checklist for
discussion ideas.)
Enter your answer here
Jejunum is the central portion of the small intestine transports food rapidly to the ileum via wave-like muscle contractions. Ileum is basically the longest section of your small intestine.
What is alimentary canal?The gastrointestinal tract is the digestive tract or passageway that connects the mouth to the rectum.
The small intestine's entire wall is made up of folds. The duodenum is a C-shaped structure located at the start of the small intestine. The jejunum comes after the duodenum.
The main distinction between the duodenum and the jejunum is that the duodenum contains submucosal Brunner's glands, whereas the jejunum does not.
Thus, this can be the comparison between jejunum and ileum.
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HELP
In Illinois, the two most common crops grown are corn and soybeans. Corn is a that depletes the soil of nitrogen. Soybeans are a crop that have symbiotic bacteria living on their roots. Do farmers use the information stated above when they plan out their crops from one year to the next?
Yes, the farmers use the information when they plan out their crops from one year to the next because the presence of nitrogen in the soil is very important for higher yield.
What is the relationship between symbiotic bacteria and nitrogen?Legumes are leguminous crops that can form a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria known as rhizobia which are present in the soil. The result of this symbiosis is to produce nodules in the root of crops in which the bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia and nitrates that can be absorbed by the crops.
Bacteria play a key role in Nitrogen-fixing bacteria which convert nitrogen from the atmosphere to nitrates. Some species of bacteria which convert decaying nitrogen waste into ammonia whereas Nitrifying bacteria which convert ammonia into nitrates.
So we can conclude that the farmers use the information due to the presence of nitrogen in the soil which is very important for higher yield of crops.
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A cell is the smallest unit of biological organization that has all of the characteristics of life. Which of the following are considered characteristics of life?
Check All That Apply
Passes on genetic information to offspring
Acquires materials and energy to manufacture cellular components
Unresponsive to changes in the internal and external environment
Adapts to changes in its environment
Internal environment is unregulated and unstable
Answer:
unresponsive to changes in the internal and external environment
Unresponsive to changes in the internal and external environment.
What is Biological Organization?Living things have a strong sense of order and organization that may be studied on a scale from small to enormous. The lowest and most basic unit of matter is the atom. It consists of an electron-surrounded nucleus.
Macromolecules, which are big molecules often generated by polymerization, are many of the biologically significant compounds (a polymer is a large molecule that is made by combining smaller units called monomers, which are simpler than macromolecules).
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), which carries the blueprints for the structure and operation of every living thing, is an illustration of a macromolecule.
Therefore, Unresponsive to changes in the internal and external environment.
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Helpp
The lactose (lac) operon in E. coli is an example of a gene that is repressed when lactose is not available in a cell. In 3-5
sentences, explain what this means, using correct terminology (4 points)
The set of genes known as the lactose operon in E. coli controls the synthesis of the enzymes required for breaking down lactose in bacterial cells.
The genes in the lac operon are active when lactose is not present.
When lactose isn't present, the lac repressor forms a strong bond with the operator and stops RNA polymerase from starting transcription. However, the lac repressor loses its capacity to bind DNA when lactose is present. It detaches from the operator and makes room for RNA polymerase to start transcription of the operon.
It is an illustration of an inducible operon where the transcription of structural genes is induced by the presence of a crucial metabolic component (lactose, an alternative energy source).
The lactose molecule acts as a signal molecule if lactose is present in the medium because it binds to the repressor and prevents it from binding to the operator.
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Answer: E. coli controls the synthesis of the enzymes required for breaking down lactose in bacterial cells.
Explanation:
100 POINTS HELP PLEASEEEE!!!!!! BRAINLIEST TO BEST ANSWER
3 skulls
2 tibiae (left)
4 hip bones (called os coxae) (1 right and 3 left)
6 femora (4 right and 2 left)
2 humeri (right)
5 scapulae (3 right and 2 left)
2. Which of the bones in the collection belong to the axial skeleton? Which belong to the appendicular skeleton?
Answer: axial= 3 skulls. and the rest go to appendicular
Explanation: The maximum number of individuals that could be represented by the bones is 22. This is because each bone could be from a different person. At first glance some may assume that there would be only 3 people because there were only 3 skulls, however, there were 4 right femurs, so that means there is a missing skull to go with one of the right femurs. With this in mind, you can only assume that each bone goes to a separate individual until more evidence appears.
Axial Skeleton: 3 skulls,
Appendicular Skeleton: 2 tibiae, 4 hip bones(1 right and 3 left), 6 femora (4 right and 2 left), 2 humeri (right), 5 scapulae (3 right and 2 left)
GUYS! Use examples to explain how the atmosphere interacts with two other of Earth's spheres.
Interaction between the atmosphere and other Earth spheres occurs when:
rain falls come from the clouds in the atmosphere down to the lithosphere to form rivers, streams that provide other living organisms in the biosphere with drinking waterwater from the hydrosphere evaporates to the atmosphereoceans in the hydrosphere absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmospherevegetation from the lithosphere takes up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and releases oxygen for the survival of organisms in the biosphereWhat are the four spheres of the earth?The Earth is made up of four spheres namely; lithosphere (land), atmosphere (air), biosphere (organisms) and hydrosphere (water).
These sphere interact to ensure the survival of each other, so when one is damaged it affect all. They interact through rainfalls, evaporation, cellular respiration and so on.
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Why is Mendel's model of genetics not the only model of inheritance?
Mendel's model of genetics is not the only model of inheritance, because may be another model, was also presented by another scientist.
How is Mendelian inheritance different from Non-Mendelian inheritance?The Mendelian quality is determined by dominant and receding alleles of one gene. On the opposite, non-Mendelian traits are not determined by dominant and relapsing alleles and can be governed by more than one gene. Non-Mendelian inheritance is any design in which traits do not segregate in accordance with Mendel's laws.
The genetic traits that follow the truth of Mendel's law are known as Mendelian inheritance while the genetic traits. Non-Mendelian genetics are inheritance motif that is different from Mendelian inheritance.
So we can conclude that Mendelian inheritance reports the inheritance of phenotypes, determined by only two alleles. One of the two alleles is dominant.
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how many pgal molecules will it take to make one molecule of glucose
PGAL molecules will it take to make one molecule of glucose Calvin Cycle (light independent reactions).
Phosphogly ceraldehyde, or PGAL for short, is a 3-carbon compound as you can see from the diagram of its chemical shape. as soon as PGAL has been made, its carbon atoms are used to synthesize different natural compounds, which are crucial for the increase and survival of plants.
The response is catalyzed via the enzyme ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (Rubisco). The six-carbon intermediate reacts with water and decomposes into two identical 3-carbon molecules called phosphoglycerate. those, in turn, react with ATP and NADPH to produce PGAL molecules.
One turn of the Calvin Cycle fixes 3 CO2 C O 2 molecules and generates 1 molecule of phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL). So, whilst 54 molecules of CO2 C O 2 enter the Calvin Cycle, 18 molecules of phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL) also called glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) will leave the cycle.
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Let -5 represent the change in gas every hour. Which expression represents
the total change in gas after 6 hours?
6-(-5)
-6-(-5)
-6-(-6) 5-(-5)
What phase is the indicated cell currently in?
A. Anaphase
B. Interphase
C. Cytokinesis
D. Prophase
Answer:
Interphase
Explanation:
Because in interphase chromosomes are not visible
Please help me I’ll give u Brainly
Answer:
1. UAG, AUG, CAU, UUU, GGG, AUG, CUA, CAC
2. 24 nucleotides
3. 8 amino acids
Explanation:
Most of this is explained in the last answer I gave you.
2. A codon is made up of 3 nucleotides, time x amount of codons by 3 and that's your answer.
Ex: we have 6 codons, how many nucleotides would you have?
6x3 is 18.
We will have 18 nucleotides.