Write 24 as a product of prime factors.

Answer:

in the middle

Step-by-step explanation:

I did this before

Answer:your mom

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\huge \bf༆ Answer ༄[/tex]

Any value multiplied by Zero gives Zero, therefore ~

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer is 1

cuz nearest whole number, just check the next number that is nearest, that in this case is the decimal 1, hence, if it's 5 or above add a one to the whole number, if not then just write it as it is. in this case the nearest number is less than five so we just write it as 1.0000 or just 1

The distance travelled across the slant will be -

h = √({4v/g}{cot (22°)})² + {v/g(cos(22°) - 1)}² and yes it will slide down again.

If we take a single vector we can find a pair of vectors at right angles to each other that would combine to give the single original vector. This reverse process is called resolution or resolving vectors.

Given is that  body slides down a 22º inclined plane with constant speed. It is then thrown in the opposite direction by the same plane with an initial velocity of 4.0 m/s.

[A] -

We can write the total distance covered along the slant as a function of [x] and [y] components as -

h = h[x] i + h[y] j

Now -

h[x] = 4tcos(22°)

Now -

F = ma

F = m{dv/dt}

Fdt = mdv

mg sin(22°)dt = mdv

dt = {1/g sin(22°)}dv

∫dt = ∫ {1/g sin(22°)}dv

t = v/g sin(22°)

So, we can write -

h[x] = 4 cos(22°)v/g sin(22°)

h[x] = {4v/g}{cot (22°)}

Similarly -

h[y] = 4t'cos(22°)

F = ma

F = m{dv/dt}

Fdt = mdv

N cos(22°) - mg = F

{N cos(22°) - mg}dt' = mdv

{mg cos(22°) - mg}dt' = mdv

{g cos(22°) - g}dt' = dv

dt' = dv/{g cos(22°) - g}

∫dt' = ∫dv/{g cos(22°) - g}

t' = {v/g(cos(22°) - 1)}

So -

h[y] = 4 x  {v/g(cos(22°) - 1)} x  cos(22°)

h[y] = {4v/g(cos(22°) - 1)} cos(22°)

So -

Distance travelled across the slant -

h = √({4v/g}{cot (22°)})² + {v/g(cos(22°) - 1)}²

[2] -

Yes, it will slide down again.

Therefore, the distance travelled across the slant will be -

h = √({4v/g}{cot (22°)})² + {v/g(cos(22°) - 1)}² and yes it will slide down again.

To solve more questions on resolving vectors, visit the link below -

https://brainly.com/question/17264346

#SPJ5

{Question in english language -

A body slides down a 22º inclined plane with constant speed. It is then thrown in the opposite direction by the same plane with an initial velocity of 4.0 m/s. a) How far will it go up the plane before stopping? b) Will it slide down again? HELP IS FOR TODAY!!!}

Step-by-step explanation:

if 21 dollars = 35 liters

the ? dollars = 1 litre

it will be less so more which is the 35 divides

so we have

1/ 35 ×21

21/35

0.6

Step-by-step explanation:

(3⁵×2^-5×5^-5×2×3²)/(5⁵×3^-2×2^-2)

[3^(5+2+2)][2^(-5+1+2)][5^(-5-5)]

3⁹×2^-2×5^-10.

hope this helps you.

Answer:

225 pepper seedlings.

Step-by-step explanation:

WAY 1: common sense

half of 150 is 75

75 + 150 = 225

WAY 2: % of number

convert % to decimals (/100)

0.5 x 150 = 75

150 + 75 = 225

Step-by-step explanation:

105 is now total final value

Answer:

105..................

Answer:

212.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\huge\boxed{2p^6q^3}\\\boxed{m^3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]Use\\\\a^n\cdot a^m=a^{n+m}\\\\p^2\cdot2p^4\cdot q\cdot q^2=(p^2\cdot2p^4)\cdot (q\cdot q^2)=2p^{2+4}q^{1+2}=2p^6q^3[/tex]

[tex]Use\\\\a^n\cdot a^m=a^{n+m}\\\\a^n:a^m=a^{n-m}[/tex]

[tex](m^2\cdot m^4):m^5\cdot m^2=m^{2+4}:m^5\cdot m^2=m^{6-5}\cdot m^2=m^{1+2}=m^3[/tex]

Answer:

  y = -x +2

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope can be found from the slope formula:

  m = (y2 -y1)/(x2 -x1)

  m = (6 -5)/(-4 -(-3)) = 1/-1 = -1

The y-intercept can be found from ...

  b = y -mx

  b = 5 -(-1)(-3) = 2

The slope-intercept equation for the line is ...

  y = mx +b

  y = -x +2 . . . . use the values of m and b we found

Based on the information given the number of milliliters of milk does it contain is 42,000 mL.

1 liter=1000 ml

Using this formula

Number of milliliters=Number of liters×1,000 ml

Where:

Number of liters=42 liters

Let plug in the formula

Number of milliliters=42 liters×1,000 ml

Number of milliliters=42,000 ml

Inconclusion  the number of milliliters of milk does it contain is 42,000 mL.

Learn more about milliliters here:https://brainly.com/question/1295017

Answer: Would you like all of them?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3x

Step-by-step explanation:

because both terms are common 12 and 6 is 3 and x² and x is x

Hence, the inequality is x > -4/3.

Hoped this helped.

[tex]BrainiacUser1357[/tex]

Answer:

x > - [tex]\frac{4}{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

7x + 8 > 4x + 4 ( subtract 4x from both sides )

3x + 8 > 4 ( subtract 8 from both sides )

3x > - 4 ( divide both sides by 3 )

x > - [tex]\frac{4}{3}[/tex]

Answer:

She will still need about 450$

Step-by-step explanation:

So from what I have learned, she will need to work in order to get the money, but even when she is working, she may have expenses to pay and she may not make it, but she will because she can do loans and when she earns the money from loans, then she can pay, then she may have left over money she can use while on trip.

Answer:

[-5, 5]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a) 3/16

b) 8/7

Step-by-step explanation:

i think the idea there was just simplifying the fractions.

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Each number you're adding 12.

24 + 12 = 36, 36 + 12 = 48,. etc..

B

A shows factors of 12 instead of multiples, and C just doesn’t show numbers of relation to 12

Answer:

75

Step-by-step explanation:

15 divided by .20 = 75

Answer:

5n+p>40

n+p<20

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Answer below

Step-by-step explanation:

The currency called the dollar can be split into smaller forms called nickels, pennies, dimes, and quarters.

The system of inequalities that represents how many pennies and nickels that Jada could have is given as:

p + n < 20

0.01p + 0.05n > 0.40

Let's represent the number of :

pennies = p

nickels = n

It is important to also note that:

1 penny = $0.01

1 nickel = $0.05

40 cents can also be written as: $0.40

Jada has p pennies and n nickels that add up to more than 40 cents.

The word more than means greater than and this can be represented by the inequality sign ">". Hence, our inequality equation is given as:

$0.01 x p + $0.05 x n > $0.40

0.01p + 0.05n > 0.40

She had fewer than 20 coins altogether.

The word fewer means less than and this can be represented by the inequality sign "<". Hence, our inequality equation is given as:

p + n < 20

Therefore, the system of inequalities that represents how many pennies and nickels that Jada could have is given as:

Correct answer is  p + n < 20 0.01p + 0.05n > 0.40

_____________________________________________________

(Hope this helps can I pls have brainlist (crown)☺️)

Answer:

16. 5/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Rise/run

2- (-3)=5

-2- (-4)=2

rise/run= 5/2 (Five over two)

Answer: Please upload the image or PDF.

Answer:] ):::::::::::

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

This is already in its simplest form, but if you set the equation equal to zero, it's (x-3)(x+3).

Step-by-step explanation:

x^2-9=0

a= 1

b=0

c=-9

Factors of c (-9) that add up to make b (0): -3, 3

(x-3)(x+3)

we know:   [tex]a^2-b^2=(a+b)(a-b)[/tex]

So:    [tex]x^{2} -9=x^{2} -3^2=(x+3)(x-3)[/tex]

Ok done. Thank to me :>

Answer:

3781

Step-by-step explanation:

80 hours × $18=$1440 for labor. 1440+15%(1440×.15)=$216.00 + material cost=$2125

(2125.00+1440.00+216=3781)

Answer:

5/10 more

Step-by-step explanation: