You have a portfolio which is composed by a risky asset with an expected rate of return of 15% and a standard deviation of 20% and a risk free asset with a rate of return of 10%. What portion of your portfolio should be invested in the risky asset if you want your portfolio to have a standard deviation of 8%?

Answer:

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= 16,497 favorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard labor-hours per unit of output 10.3 hours

Standard labor rate $14.10 per hour

Actual hours worked 8,100 hours

Actual output 900 units

To calculate the direct labor efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*standard rate

Standard quantity= 10.3*900= 9,270

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (9,270 - 8,100)*14.1

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= 16,497 favorable

Answer:

The United States has a comparative advantage producing caps

Explanation:

got a 100 yw dawg

Answer:

Change in real GDP = $13,333,332,000

Explanation:

MPC = 0.7

Change in real GDP = Change in autonomous spending * Autonomous spending multiplier

Change in real GDP = $4 billion * 1 / (1 - MPC)

Change in real GDP = $4 billion * 1 / 1 - 0.7

Change in real GDP = $4 billion * 3.33333

Change in real GDP = $13,333,332,000

Thus, the real GDP will rise by $13.33 billion

Answer:

Baker Manufacturing, Inc.

a) Predetermined factory overhead rate under the three different bases:

(1) direct labor hours = $196,000/14,000 = $14 per DLH

(2) direct labor costs = $196,000/$245,000 = $0.80 per DLC

(3) machine hours = $196,000/61,250 = $3.20 per MH

b) Based on the actual factory overhead of $308,000, there will be under-absorption of the factory overhead by $112,000.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Direct material (16,000 lb.) $ 160,000

Direct labor (at $17.50/hr.) 245,000

Indirect material 24,000

Indirect labor 44,000

Sales commissions 68,000

Factory administration 32,000

Non factory administrative expenses 40,000

Other manufacturing overhead* 96,000

*Provides for operating 61,250 machine hours.

Factory overhead costs:

Indirect material                           24,000

Indirect labor                                44,000

Factory administration                32,000

Other manufacturing overhead 96,000

Total factory overhead costs $196,000

Estimated direct labor-hours = $245,000/$17.50 = 14,000 hours

a) Predetermined factory overhead rate under the three different bases:

(1) direct labor hours = $196,000/14,000 = $14 per DLH

(2) direct labor costs = $196,000/$245,000 = $0.80 per DLC

(3) machine hours = $196,000/61,250 = $3.20 per MH

b) Actual factory overhead assumed to be $308,000:

Under-absorbed factory overhead = $112,000 ($308,000 - 196,000)

a. The predetermined factory overhead rate under three different bases: Application base are: Direct labor hours $14, Direct labor costs 80%, Machine hours $3.20.

First step

Total manufacturing overhead:

Total manufacturing overhead=Indirect materials + Indirect labor + Factory admin + Other manufacturing overheads

Total manufacturing overhead= 24,000+44,000+32,000+96,000

Total manufacturing overhead= 196,000

Second step

Method 1

Direct labor hours = 245,000/17.5

Direct labor hours = 14,000

Direct labor costs=196,000/14,000 = $14

Direct labor costs= $14

Method 2

Direct labor cost =Total manufacturing overhead/Direct labor

Direct labor cost = 196,000/245,000

Direct labor cost = 80%

Method 3:

Machine hours = Total manufacturing overhead/Provided operating machine hours

Machine hours = 196,000/61,250

Machine hours = $3.20

b.  Actual factory overhead:

Under-absorbed factory overhead = $308,000 - $196,000

Under-absorbed factory overhead =$112,000

Inconclusion the predetermined factory overhead rate under three different bases: Application base are: Direct labor hours $14, Direct labor costs 80%, Machine hours $3.20.

Learn more about predetermined overhead rate here:https://brainly.com/question/4337723

Answer:

Thank you, appreciate it.

Explanation:

Because I secretly love you.

Answer:

B: class and sequence.

please brainlist answer

Answer:

market rate falls to 7%

market price of bonds after 2 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / 1.07⁸ = $582.01

PV of coupon payments = $120 x 5.9713 (PV annuity factor, 7%, 8 periods) = $716.56

market price = $1,298.57

market price of bonds after 3 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / 1.07⁷ = $622.75

PV of coupon payments = $120 x 5.3893 (PV annuity factor, 7%, 7 periods) = $646.72

market price = $1,269.47

market rate increases to 13%

market price of bonds after 2 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / 1.13⁸ = $376.16

PV of coupon payments = $120 x 4.7988 (PV annuity factor, 13%, 8 periods) = $575.86

market price = $952.02

market price of bonds after 3 years:

PV of face value = $1,000 / 1.13⁷ = $425.06

PV of coupon payments = $120 x 4.4226 (PV annuity factor, 13%, 7 periods) = $530.71

market price = $955.77

Answer: punitive damages

Explanation:

Damages awarded in a civil lawsuit to punish the wrongdoer in cases involving willful or malicious misconduct are called punitive damages.

Punitive damages can also be referred to as exemplary damages and they're awarded so as to prevent the defendant from commiting such offence again and for.others to also learn and not do such in the future.

Answer:

c

Explanation:

Answer: B

Explanation:

Answer: $1,800,000

Explanation:

The merchandise inventory of Glaus at December 31, 2017 will be:

Begining Inventory = $1,600,000

Add: Purchases = $3,200,000

Less: Cost of goods sold = $4,000,000

Add: Gross profit = 25% × $4,000,000 = $1,000,000

Ending Inventory = $1,800,000

The answer is $1,800,000.

Answer:

A. decreases.

Explanation:

When provided with the sales figure and the costs of golds sold (COGS), the calculation of gross profit will be the sales revenue minus the cost of goods sold.

I.e., Sale revenue - COGS = gross profit.

IF sales revenue is high and the cost of goods is low, a business will have a gross profit. The business will make losses if the cost of good s sold is greater than sales.

If sales revenue reduces and COGS increases, the gross profit percentage will decrease.

Answer:

The Electronic Fund Transfer Act (EFTA) is an Act of Congress that was enacted to protect the transactions of customers transferring their funds by electronic means such as through Automated Teller Machines (ATMs) and debit cards.

The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) is meant to ensure that financial institutions like banks have strong and secure network infrastructure to protect customers and their details.

EFTA

PCI

Answer:

EFTA: report a stolen debit card, place a stop payment on recurring payments

PIC standards: protect credit card data, maintain a secure network

Explanation: my brain

Answer: are: (1) which method should be used.

2) where should the resulting translation adjustment be reported in the consolidated financial statements.

Explanation:

The two major problems which are usually encountered when translation of foreign financial statements are concerned are,

a. What method should be used, he the method to be used is discussed and one agreed on.

b. Where should the adjustments arrived at be reported on the consolidated financial statements. were it should be reported and recorded down on the financial statements is also decided.

Answer:

($45,000 + $0)/2 = $22,500

Explanation:

we cant tell the percentage per year because we don't know how much they are paying in taxes annually.

Answer:

b. $82.50

Explanation:

The computation of the product cost per unit under absorption costing is shown below:

= Direct labor + Direct materials + variable overhead per unit + (Total fixed overhead ÷ Units produced)

= $35 + $28 + $17 + ($105,000 ÷ 42,000)

= $35 + $28 + $17 + $2.5

= $82.50 per unit

Hence, the product cost per unit under absorption costing is $82.50 per unit

Therefore the correct option is b. $82.50

Answer:

Sales Returns and Allowances $140 and Accounts Receivable $140

Explanation:

When goods are returned, the sales revenue decreases through Sales Returns and Allowances which is an expense so it is debited and the goods sold on account so the Accounts Receivable which is an asset decreases so it is credited.

Date   Account Titles and Explanations    Debit   Credit

          Sales Returns and Allowances          $140

                 Accounts Receivable                                $140

           (To record sales returns)  

Answer:

Barriers to entry, Internal industry rivalry, Supplier power, buyer power,etc.

Explanation:

Firms that are capable of excessive productions could boost sales volume by increasing the productions at cost advantage of reducing price. But firms that are incapable of increasing the productions capacity will be unable to produce extra quantity to gain any market share.

Barrier to entry : A established large MES of the industry prevents small entrants from entering into the industry.

Answer:

Companies enters the foreign market through several tactics. But it has both advantages and disadvantages in doing so.

Explanation:

If there are opportunities in the foreign of the goods and a good market prospects, one can invest and expand his or her business in the foreign market. However, there are some difficulties in entering a new market in other countries which may include new competition in the market as well adapting a new environment regulatory.

Some of the ways by which one can enter the foreign market are License agreement, joint ventures, online sales of product, purchasing some of the foreign assets, etc.

The advantages are :

-- Selling products online is a low cost method. It is more convenient than having a physical asset in the foreign land.

-- Cost of establishment is saved.

The disadvantages are :

-- The freight cost will be high to and from the country.

-- There will be no direct control and one will be reliable on the association.

-- The potential country may have some strict rules and regulations for business contracts, franchises, licenses or partnerships, etc.

Answer:

1. A. Dr Cash 50,000

Cr Customers Saving Account 50,000

B.Dr Interest Expense 125

Cr Cash 125

C. Dr Loan Receivables 50,000

Cr Cash 50,000

D. Dr Interest Receivables 750

Cr Interest Income 750

2. $625

Explanation:

Answer and Explanation:

1. Preparation of journal entries

a. In a situation where A customer made deposits of the amount of $50,000 in WaMu savings account on 1/1/2006 the Journal entry will be:

Dr Cash 50,000

Cr Customers Saving Account 50,000

(Being to record the deposit from customers)

b. In a situation where WaMu pays a 1% as annual interest on the deposit on 3/31/06 the journal entry will be:

Dr Interest Expense 125

(50,000*1%*3/12)

Cr Cash 125

(Being to record the payment of interest Expense)

c. In a situation where WaMu lends out the

amount of $50,000 to another customer the Journal entry will be:

Dr Loan Receivables 50,000

Cr Cash 50,000

(Being to record the receivable lent to customers)

d. In a situation where WaMu accrues interest on this date 3/31/06 the journal entry will be:

Dr Interest Receivables 750

(50,000*6%*3/12)

Cr Interest Income 750

(Being to record the interest accrued)

2. Calculation for How much net interest income (profit) did WaMu earn in the first quarter

First step is to calculate the Net Interest Rate

Interest Rate on Receivables 6%

Less Interest Rate on Payable 1%

Net Interest Rate 5%

Second Step will be to calculate the Annual Net Interest

Using this formula

Annual Net Interest=Principal *Net Interest Rate

Let plug in the formula

Annual Net Interest=50,000*5%

Annual Net Interest= 2,500

Last step is to calculate the first quarter net interest income

Using this formula

First quarter net interest income=Time*Annual Net Interest

Let plug in the formula

First quarter net interest income= 3/12*2,500

First quarter net interest income= $625

Therefore the First quarter net interest income will be $625

Answer:

Option C: if the increase in her nominal income is more than five percent.

It is true only if only if the increase in her nominal income is less than five percent.

Explanation:

An inflation is simply an increase (slight or Sharp) in the average price level of prices of goods and services of which the opposite is deflation.

INFLATION RATE is simply an annual percentage rate of increase in the average price level of commodities/services.

NOMINAL INCOME

Is defined simply as the amount of money received in a given period of time. It is usually measured in current dollars and does not change or simply as the numbers of dollars received as wages, rents, interests, or profits.

nominal incomes tend to rise with inflation

If inflation is higher than what was expected, creditors receive a lower real interest rate than they had anticipated and vice versa.

As the price level rises, the value of money decreases, so people must hold more money to purchase goods and services.

Answer:

Michalko's weighted-average cost of capital is 9.65 %.

Explanation:

Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is the return that is required by providers of Long term sources of finance.

WACC = Ke x (E/V) + Kp x (P/V) + Kd x (D/V)

Therefore,

Ke = Cost of Equity

     = Return on Risk free Security + Beta x (Return on Market Portfolio -       Return on Risk free Security)

     = 4.2% + 1.25 × 6.2%

     = 11.95 %

E/V = Market Weight of Equity

      = $25,700/ ($25,700 + $19,100)

      = 0.57

Kd = Cost of Debt

  = Market Interest x ( 1 - tax rate)

  = 11% × (1 - 0.40)

  = 6.60 %

D/V = Market Weight of Debt

      = $19,100/($25,700 + $19,100)

      = 0.43

Thus,

WACC = Ke x (E/V)  + Kd x (D/V)

           = 11.95 % × 0.57 + 6.60 % × 0.43

           = 9.65 %

Answer:

A. Inventory-related selling costs

Explanation:

Cost of goods sold is the carrying value of a good produced by a company. It involves all the costs that were incurred by a business in transporting and processing the product before it is ready for sales.

This includes inspection costs, inventory preparation costs, and freight charges.

However costs related to sales are not part of cost of goods sold. It does not add to the cost of producing the good.

Rather this is classified as general and administrative expenses

Answer:

APR= 23.91%

EAR= 8%

Explanation:

A stock was bought at $51.27 three months ago

The current share price is $55.36

Therefore the APR of the investment can be calculated as follows

= 55.36-51.27/51.27

= 4.09/51.27

= 0.0797

= 7.97%

APR= 3×7.97

= 23.91%

EAR= (1+0.079/3)^3-1

= 1+0.0263^3-1

= 1.026^3-1

= 0.08×100

= 8%

Answer: Margin of error 1012.144.

I would recommend a sample size of 246.

Explanation:

Given data:

Mean= M = $11,500

Standard deviation =s = $4,000

sample size=n= 60

s x = standard error of mean

=s / square root of n= 516.4 = ( 4000 / square root of 60)

Confidence level= 95%

Therefore, Significance level= a (alpha) = 5% = 1- 0.95

No of trails= 2

This is so because it’s a 2 tailed test because we need to find the margin of error.

Since sample size= 60 >= 30

we will use normal distribution

Z at the 0.05 level of significance 2 tailed test = 1.96

Margin of error =z*s x

= 1.96*516.4

= 1012.144.

if the study requires us to assume a margin of error of $500, we will then need to increase the sample size

•Therefore,

Standard deviation =s = $4,000

confidence interval= 95%

Z corresponding to 95% and two tailed test is = 1.96

We have to ensure that Z* s x < $500

or s x < =500/Z

= 500/1.96

= or s x < 255.102041

But

s x=standard error of mean=s / square root of n

s = 4000

or n=(s ^2)/(s x^2)

= 4000^2/255.102041^2

= 246.

Therefore, the sample size should be increased to 246.

Answer:

the loss at the time of sale is $89,800

Explanation:

The computation of the gain or loss at the time of sale is shown below:

Written down value of trucks at the sale date is

= Cost - Accumulated Depreciation

= $1,416,000 - $1,271,000

= $145,000

And, the sale value is $55,200

So, the loss would be

= $145,000 - $55,200

= $89,800

This is the answer but the same is not provided in the given options

hence, the loss at the time of sale is $89,800

Answer: False

Explanation:

It is not always more profitable to operate a full flight at a lower cost per ticket because this depends on the unique situation in question. If the tickets are so low that even with the amount of people in the airplane the company is unable to recuperate its cost, then the condition does not hold.

Meanwhile sometimes the partially full price might see the prices being paid would offset the costs of the flight which would bring profits to the company. It therefore depends on the unique situation.