a circuit has two 11.4 volts batteries and a bulb with a resistance of 18.7 ohms calculate the current flowing through the circuit

Answer:

Because it is the standard operational range for measuring the body temperature of a living individual.

Explanation:

When making a measuring equipment like a thermometer, you attempt to keep the reading range (Span) as small as possible so that the reading is as accurate as feasible. Because sensors are often rated in percent of span (in this example, span = 45 C–32 C = 13 degrees Celsius), One percent of 13 equals 0.13 degrees Celsius, thus if your sensor has a usual accuracy of 1%, your temperature reading is accurate to roughly 0.1 degrees Celsius.

Your precision would be 0.2 degrees Celsius if you doubled the span. The reading accuracy is now becoming unsatisfactory. Readability is another advantage of analog and mercury clinical thermometers. The markings for 0.1 deg C would be ten times closer together if a mercury thermometer had ten times the range (span). There is a limit to the device's readability.

Answer:

12.65 Meters / Second (m/s)

Explanation:

the problem is really easy to solve, we begin by stating the kinetic energy formula which is:

KE = (1/2)(mass)(velocity)^2

We equate 1200 J to the formula, substitute the mass, and solve for velocity either using a CAS, app, or by hand

1200J = (0.5)(15kg)v^2

v = 12.65 m/s

The coefficient is needed in front of NaNO3 to balance the equation is 2.

When in a chemical reaction, both the product elements or compounds should have number of moles equal to that of the elements or compounds of reactants.

In the given chemical reaction equation,

Na2S + Zn(NO3)2 → ZnS + _NaNO3

Number of moles of S is 1 on both the product and reactant side. Zn has 1 mole on both side. NO3 has 2 mole and Na has 2 mole on reactant side. So to balance the equation, Na and NO3 both must have 2 moles on product side.

Thus, the coefficient is needed in front of NaNO3 to balance the equation is 2.

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Hello There!!

=> Let The Answer be "x"

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=> He don't have a child so he is not a father

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=> Kinematics is a part of science not history.

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Hope this helps :D

Answer:

i just wrote this much hope it will help u little

Explanation:

kinematics is the branch of physical which deals with the study of motion as the function of time.Frank reuleaux is known as the father of kinematics.the word *kinematics" comes from a greek word "kinesis" meaning motion.

Answer:

1. The faster the coil rotates the faster will it cut the magnetic field and the bigger will be the output voltage.

2. You could increase the output voltage of a generator by rotating it faster, increasing the number of turns on the coil or using stronger magnets,

Explanation:

Hopefully this helps if not im terribly sorry

[tex]\Large{\green}\fcolorbox{blue}{cyan}{\bf{\underline{\red{\color{red}Answer}}}}[/tex]

2300 N upward

Explanation:

The force by weight of balloon = 1000 N

The atmospheric force experienced by balloon = 3300 N

While weight of balloon is attracted by gravity so the force of weight will act downward

And the atmospheric force gives upward lifting force to the balloon

Net force = atmospheric force - weight of balloon

= 3300 - 1000

= 2300 N

As the atmospheric force is more dominating the balloon will goes upward with 2300 N force

Answer:

An object is in motion when its distance from another object is changing. A reference point is a place or object used for comparison to determine if something is in motion. An object is in motion if it changes position relative to a reference point.

option C is your CORRECT answer

If we keep increasing the ramp angle, the angle that the object starts to move downward is 26.6°

To find the ramp angle, we need to know the forces acting on the mass on the ramp.

Since the mass will just start to move, the force acting on the mass in the horizontal direction is the horizontal component of its weight in that direct. So, F = mgsinθ. where θ = ramp angle

The force acting on the mass in the vertical direction is the vertical component of its weight, F' = mgcosθ where θ = ramp angle

For the mass to just start to move downwards, the horizontal component of its weight must equal the static frictional force, f on it.

F = f

Since f = μN where

So, F = f

mgsinθ = μmgcosθ

Dividing through by mgcosθ, we have

mgsinθ/mgcosθ = μmgcosθ/mgcosθ

sinθ/cosθ = μ

μ = tanθ

So, the angle at which the object starts to move downward is

θ = tan⁻¹μ

Since μ = 0.5

θ = tan⁻¹0.5

θ = 26.57°

θ ≅ 26.6°

So, the angle at which the object starts to move downward is 26.6°.

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Hi there!

We can begin by deriving the magnetic field strength for a circular loop at its center.

Using Biot-Savart's Law:
[tex]dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi }\frac{idl \times \^r}{r^2}[/tex]

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (Tm/A)

dl = Differential length element

r = radius (m)

We can rather use 'ds' to represent a differential arc length since we are finding the magnetic field for a circular loop.

We must begin by dealing with the cross-product. Luckily, this derivation is simple since the radius vector is ALWAYS perpendicular to the path of integration along the loop's circumference. (ONLY if we are finding the field for the direct center.) Thus, since sin(90) = 1, we can get rid of the cross-product.

Therefore:

[tex]dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi }\frac{ids}{r^2}[/tex]

Now, we can integrate with respect to ds.

[tex]= \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi }\int\limits^{2\pi r}_0 {\frac{i}{r^2}} \, ds\\\\ = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi }{\frac{i * 2\pi r}{r^2}} \, ds[/tex]

Simplify:

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_0 i_{circle}}{2r}\\[/tex]

Now, for a straight conductor (assuming of infinite length), we know the magnetic field strength equation to be:

[tex]B = \frac{\mu_0 i_{rod}}{2\pi r}[/tex]

Set the two equal.

[tex]\frac{\mu_0 i_{circle}}{2r}= \frac{\mu_0 i_{rod}}{2\pi r}[/tex]

Cancel out '2', μ₀, and 'r':
[tex]i_{circle}}= \frac{ i_{rod}}{\pi }[/tex]

Plug in the given values and solve.

[tex]40\pi = i_{rod}\\\\i_{rod} = \boxed{125.663 A}[/tex]

Answer:

A. Sulfur _________ group 16 chalcogens

B. Sodium _________ group 1 alkali metals

C. Argon _________ group 18 noble gases

D. Silicon _________ group 14 carbon family

E. Chlorine _________ group 17 halogens

F. Phosphorus_________ group 15 pnicogens

Answer:

The acceleration of an object as produced by a net force is directly proportional to the magnitude of the net force, in the same direction as the net force, and inversely proportional to the mass of the object

Explanation:

it's newton's second law

During a race, a sprinter accelerated 1.8 m/s 2 in 2.5 seconds. The sprint increase with this amount of acceleration by 4.5 m/s.

Acceleration is the time rate of change of velocity.

Acceleration a = velocity v / time t

1.8 = v/2.5

v = 4.5 m/s

The sprint increase with this amount of acceleration by 4.5 m/s.

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rxcuobudbbgvd CT I ng a ubjnr. hbgvw

Answer:

C. The poster provides an emotional picture of a young, innocent girl with a slightly worried expression to make protective feelings.

Explanation:

The girl looks quite worried in the poster. Attached is the image:

From the calculation, we can see that the electrostatic force on the material is 1200 N.

The electrostatic force is described by Coulumb's law. According to the law;

F = Kq1q2/r^2

Where;

q1 = -4 * 10^-3 C

q2 = -3 * 10^-3 C

r = 3 m

K = 9 * 10^9

Hence

F = 9 * 10^9 * -4 * 10^-3 C * -3 * 10^-3 C/(3)^2

F = 1200 N

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Answer:

The smart car hit with the greater force

Explanation:

Despite the trailers weight, the smart car moves with more speed and momentum than that of the trailer...

I don't even understand what I'm typing

Both will exert equal and opposite force on each other.

When a tractor-trailer and a smart car collide head-on, we can determine the relative forces experienced by each vehicle using Newton's second law of motion.

According to this law, the force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum.

Let's consider the tractor-trailer as object 1 with mass [tex]\(M_1\)[/tex] and velocity [tex]\(V_1\)[/tex], and the smart car as object 2 with mass [tex]\(M_2\)[/tex] and velocity [tex]\(V_2\)[/tex].

The force exerted on object 1 due to object 2 [tex](\(F_{12}\))[/tex] can be calculated as:

[tex]\[F_{12} = M_1 \cdot \frac{{dV_1}}{{dt}}\][/tex]

Similarly, the force exerted on object 2 due to object 1 [tex](\(F_{21}\))[/tex] can be calculated as:

[tex]\[F_{21} = M_2 \cdot \frac{{dV_2}}{{dt}}\][/tex]

Since the collision is head-on, the direction of the forces will be opposite for the two objects.

To determine which object experiences a greater force, we need to compare the magnitudes of [tex]\(F_{12}\) and \(F_{21}\)[/tex] = 0 by Newton's third law.

Thus, both will exert equal and opposite force on each other.

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==============================

[tex] \large \sf \underline{Question:}[/tex]

==============================

[tex] \large \sf \underline{Answer:}[/tex]

[tex] \qquad \qquad \huge \bold{Option \: D}[/tex]

==============================

[tex] \large \sf \underline{Explanation:}[/tex]

==============================

Answer:

1125 J

Explanation:

W=F x s

= 75 x 15

=1125

A magnet can be used to show electromagnetic forces by showing how negative charges can move a particular piece of  metal.

A scientific question is a given question derived from observation of the real world and can be answered by applying the scientific method.

In this case, a plausible scientific question might be how electromagnetic forces can move a piece of metal and we need to develop an explanation (hypothesis) to understand it.

In conclusion, a magnet can be used to show electromagnetic forces by showing how negative charges can move a metal.

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Answer:

How can magnetic and electric fields be demonstrated?

Explanation:

Answer:

c

Explanation:

X-ray tube is an evacuated electron tube that creates X rays by accelerating electrons to a high velocity and causing them to collide with a target, the anode plate, using a high-voltage field.

Answer:

its 20 n because of the temeture

Explanation:

because

Hi there!

Recall Faraday's Law:
[tex]\epsilon = N\frac{d\Phi_B}{dt}[/tex]

ε = Emf (V)
N = Number of loops

ΦB = Magnetic Flux (Wb)
t = time (s)

Since the magnetic field is constant, we can take this out of the time derivative:
[tex]\frac{d\Phi_B}{dt} = B * \frac{dA}{dt}[/tex]

Therefore:
[tex]\epsilon = N B \frac{dA}{dt}[/tex]

We can express 'A', the area in which the magnetic field passes as:

[tex]A = Acos(\omega t)[/tex]

Taking the time derivative:

[tex]\frac{dA}{dt} = A\omega sin(\omega t)[/tex]

ω = angular speed of coil (rad/sec)

Now, combine with the above expression:

[tex]\epsilon = NBA\omega sin(\omega t)[/tex]

The maximum output will occur when the loop's area vector is PERPENDICULAR to the field, so sin(ωt) = 1.

Therefore:
[tex]\epsilon = NBA\omega \\\\[/tex]

Rearrange to solve for ω:

[tex]\omega = \frac{\epsilon}{NBA}\\\\\omega = \frac{24}{(200 * (.10^2) * 0.25} = \boxed{48 \frac{rad}{sec}}[/tex]

Hi there!

Recall the equation for magnetic force on a wire:
[tex]F_B = B \times iL[/tex]

[tex]F_B[/tex] = Magnetic force (N)

B = Magnetic field strength (0.2 T)
i = Current in wire (? A)
L = Length of wire (0.25 m)

This is a cross-product, but we can assume the field is perpendicular to the current since it is not explicitly stated otherwise.

The equation for the weight of an object (Force due to gravity) is given by:
[tex]F_g = mg[/tex]

m = mass of object (0.01 kg)
g = acceleration due to gravity (9.81 m/s²)

Set the two equations equal to each other and solve for 'i'.

[tex]F_B = F_g\\\\BiL = mg\\\\i = \frac{mg}{BL} = \frac{0.01 * 9.81}{0.2 * 0.25} = \boxed{1.962A \approx 2.0 A}[/tex].

Answer:

when you lag in culture

Explanation:

it makes sense

Answer:

Well it could possibly be because of where you live, or if there is a strong power source or WiFi thing.

Explanation:

I’m sorry if my answers not the best I’m just doing it of my own experience from bad WiFi.

Answer:

it’s going to be times 3

Explanation:

so the answer would be three times which means it will change by a factor of 3.

I’m sorry I wrote it wrong the first time.

Answer:

3.74 x 10^12  electrons

Explanation:

.6 x 10^-6 C *  1/( 1.60218 x 10^-19)   e /C

  = 3.74  x 10^12   electrons

Internal energy is directly proportional to temperature