Answer: False
Explanation: Spinal cord injuries are not always immediately identifiable! Also, remember to consider all risk factors when assessing a potential head/spinal injury victim.
A spinal injury should be suspected if:
- the victim fell from 20 feet high --> (falling from heights is a big risk factor!)
- the victim was in a car that hit a telephone pole
- a piece of heavy equipment fell from a shelf onto the victims head
Falling from a ladder potentially puts the victim in a high risk situation. Suspect a spinal cord injury!
a client experiencing ventricular dysrhythmias is admitted to the intensive care unit status post a myocardial infarction. the nurse should anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe which medication?
A client experiencing ventricular dysrhythmias is admitted to the intensive care unit status post a myocardial infarction and the nurse should anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe medication of amiodarone.
Ventricular arrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that build the lower chambers of your heart twitch rather than pump. this may limit or stop your heart from activity blood to your body. whereas a number of these arrhythmias are harmless and do not cause symptoms, some will have serious — or maybe deadly — effects on your body.
Amiodarone is employed to treat grievous regular recurrence issues known as cavity arrhythmias. This drugs is employed in patients who have already been treated with alternative medicines that failed to work well.
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brown fc, buboltz wc, soper b. relationship of sleep hygiene awareness, sleep hygiene practices, and sleep quality in university students. behav med 2002
The discussion of "relationship of sleep hygiene awareness, sleep hygiene practices, and sleep quality in university students" is given in below paragraph-
Students in college are renowned for having erratic sleeping patterns. Such schedules are linked to bad sleep hygiene, along with other typical student behaviors (such drinking alcohol and caffeine). Researchers have shown in clinical settings that increasing knowledge of and adherence to good sleep hygiene habits can effectively alleviate insomnia. However, researchers who have looked at associations between sleep hygiene and habits in nonclinical samples and overall sleep quality have come up with contradictory results, possibly as a result of dubious metrics. To explore these variables and correct for inadequacies in earlier studies, the authors employed psychometrically sound instruments in this study. Their findings imply that practices of sleep, which are connected to total sleep quality, are associated to awareness of sleep hygiene. Their regression modeling's data showed that noise, thirst, disturbed sleep schedule, and stress lower the quality of sleep.
What is sleep hygiene?A behavioral and environmental technique known as sleep hygiene was created in the late 1970s as a treatment for mild to moderate insomnia. Clinicians examine patients with insomnia and other illnesses, such as depression, to determine their sleep hygiene and then make recommendations based on the findings.
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an older adult patient is experiencing slurred speech, vertigo, left-sided facial paralysis, and lethargy. which condition should the nurse suspect is most likely occurring in the patient?
An older adult patient is experiencing slurred speech, vertigo, left-sided facial paralysis, and lethargy and the condition which the nurse should suspect and is most likely occurring in the patient is ischemic stroke.
An ischemic stroke happens once the blood offer to a part of the brain is interrupted or reduced, preventing brain tissue from obtaining atomic number 8 and nutrients. Brain cells begin to die in minutes. A stroke could be a medical emergency, and prompt treatment is crucial. Early action will scale back brain harm and different complications.
Symptoms of ischemic stroke include sudden numbness or weakness of the face, arm or leg, especially on one side of the body, sudden confusion and slurred speech and trouble walking, sudden dizziness, loss of balance or coordination headache with no known cause.
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an elderly client comes into the emergency department reporting an earache. the client and has an oral temperature of 37.9° (100.2ºf) and otoscopic assessment of the ear reveals a pearly gray tympanic membrane with no evidence of discharge or inflammation. which action should the triage nurse take next?
Since the elderly client comes into the emergency department reporting an earache, the action that the triage nurse need to take next is to Palpate the client's parotid glands to see if there is swelling as well as tenderness.
How is the parotid gland palpated?The parotid gland can most easily be felt in front of the ear, behind the masseter muscle.
Therefore, Keep in mind to check the deep lobe, which may be felt and seen via the mouth and, if swollen, may displace the tonsil. In the event of involvement with secondary deposits from a parotid carcinoma, the local lymph nodes should be palpated.
Hence, When this is the first presenting symptom, the parotid gland needs to be closely inspected for any indications of cancer.
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a client has received a diagnosis of oral cancer. during client education, the client expresses dismay at not having recognized any early signs or symptoms of the disease. the nurse tells the client that in early stages of this disease:
Answer:
it's true
Explanation:
cause coming up withan idea is more like working on fire
When a patient is to begin lithium therapy, which laboratory results would the health care team be sure to check before administering the patient’s first dose?.
When a patient is to begin lithium therapy TSH and BUN laboratory results would the health care team.
What is the purpose of lithium therapy?It is employed to treat mental health issues like depression (feeling highly excited, overactive or distracted) low blood sugar (akin to mania, but much less severe) (similar to mania, but less severe) depression that occurs and disappears on a routine basis and for which other treatments have failed.
What results does lithium therapy produce?Lithium may aid inside the treatment of bipolar depression and helps lessen the degree and frequency of mania, the raised, euphoric end of mood spectrum. Lithium may help you feel less if you have already been at risk. Additionally, lithium aids in preventing future manic and depressive episodes.
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a client has been diagnosed with achalasia based on his history and diagnostic imaging results. the nurse should identify what risk diagnosis when planning the client's care?
Option A is correct risk diagnosis when planning the client's care is Aspiration Related to Inhalation of Gastric Contents
As a result of esophageal nerve injury, achalasia develops. As a result, the esophagus gradually loses its ability to force food into the stomach and becomes paralyzed and dilated. After that, food gathers in the esophagus where it may occasionally ferment before washing back up into the mouth, where it may taste bitter. Herpes simplex virus infection: The herpes simplex virus is connected to the emergence of achalasia. Age: Although achalasia can develop at any age, it most usually affects adults between the ages of 30 and 60.
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a client tells that nurse in the doctor’s office that her friend developed high blood pressure on her last pregnancy. she is concerned that she will have the same problem. what is the standard of care for preeclampsia?
The standard of care for preeclampsia is frequently detected during normal prenatal visits when your healthcare practitioner examines your weight growth, blood pressure, and urine.
When preeclampsia is suspected, your doctor may:
Additional blood tests to monitor kidney and liver function should be ordered.
Suggestion: collect urine for 24 hours to check for proteinuria.
Perform an ultrasound and other monitoring to determine the size and amniotic fluid content. Preeclampsia is classified as moderate or severe. If you have high blood pressure as well as high quantities of protein in your urine, you may be diagnosed with mild preeclampsia.
Preeclampsia is a pregnancy-specific illness that complicates up to 8% of all births globally. It accounts for around 15% of all preterm births in the United States (delivery before 37 weeks of pregnancy).
Who is prone to preeclampsia?
Practitioners are unsure why some women develop preeclampsia.
High blood pressure, renal illness, or diabetes in the past.
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Yusuke works in a lab studying the rabies virus, which can infect both humans and animals. As he experiments with
different solutions to treat rabies in the common racoon, Yusuke hopes that this will unlock the key to a better
treatment for humans who are exposed to the virus. In what aspect of veterinary science would you say that Yusuke
MOST likely works?
comparative medicine
animal health
food safety
biosecurity
Yusuke MOST likely work comparative medicine.
Comparative Medicine- Frontiers in Veterinary Science's "Comparative Medicine" specialty section is devoted to publishing and disseminating basic & translational research on laboratory animal models and animal models, including naturally occurring small and large domestic animals as well as experimental rodent as well as primate models. In order to improve medical care, comparative medicine aims to best integrate knowledge from fundamental research, reductionistic animal studies, and the monitoring and treatment for spontaneous diseases in animals.
Disease- A disease that affects how normally an animal or plant functions or one of its parts, and is often characterized by distinct signs and symptoms.
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the nurse is teaching a pregnant client about safety issues during a prenatal visit. the nurse advises the client that infection with which foodborne organism typically results in spontaneous abortion or stillbirth?
Answer:
To stay away from the things that will make you very ill
Explanation:
and could cause harm to the body
a 22-year-old client is admitted to room 13. he states that he does not want to remain in the room because the number will bring him bad luck. the nurse should:
Answer: Move the client; because his fears, even when unfounded, can impede recovery.
a 50-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressive fatigue and darkening of his skin during the past 2 years. he has not spent much time in the sun during this period. physical examination shows slate-gray skin and hepatomegaly. serum studies show: ferritin 500 ng/ml transferrin saturation 70% (n
Ferritin is a protein whose level of 500 mg/ml is a cardinal symptom of an anemic patient taking the dose and may contribute to a classic case of pigmentation.
What are pigmentation and fatigue, and how did the 50-year-old guy develop these problems?See here the 50-year-old patient here is facing pigmentation, and darkening because of hepatomegaly.Hepatomegaly is a disorder in which the liver is enlarged and results in skin yellowing and a slight increase in pigmentation, along with escalating complications over time.This 50-year-old patient is also suffering from fatigue which is a symptom of hepatomegaly too.Now comes ferritin which is the protein that helps in iron building in the human body, a classic case of leukemia in which ferritin has a great role.To know more about hepatomegaly visit:
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There is an order for fluid restriction on a patient with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension who is being induced with oxytocin. The patient has infusing LR 500 mL with 20 g magnesium sulfate added at the rate of 2.5 g/hr. The oxytocin 20 units is mixed in LR 1000 mL. The oxytocin infusion rate is 6 milliunits/min. The total fluid volume intake is not to exceed 125 mL/hr.
How many mL of water can the patient have PO per hour? (Round to the tenth.)
The 2.5 g/hr magnesium sulfate and the 6 milli units/hr oxytocin, the patient takes per hour, gives;
The volume of water the patient can take per hour is 80.5 mL/hour
What is the concentration of a solution?The concentration of a solution indicates the number of solute particles present per unit volume of the solution.
The given parameters are;
The material the patient was infusing = LR 500 mL containing 20 g of magnesium sulfate
The rate at which the liquid was taken = 2.5 g/hour
Volume of the oxytocin = LR 1000 mL
Quantity of oxytocin in the mixture = 20 units
Rate at which the oxytocin is taken = 6 milli units/minute
Required; The volume of water that the patient can take per hour
Solution;
The concentration of the magnesium sulfate solution = 20 g/(500mL) = (1/25) g/mL
The volume taken per hour is therefore;
(2.5 g/hr)/((1/25) g/mL) = 62.5 mL/hr
The concentration of oxytocin = (20 units)/(1000 mL) = (1/50) units/mL
Which gives;
Number of units per hour is
6 milli units per minute = 360 milli units per hour = 0.36 units per hour
The volume is therefore;
V = 0.36/(1/50) (units/hr)/(units/mL) 18 mL/hr
The allowable volume per hour is therefore;
62.5 mL/hr. + 18 mL/hr = 80.5 mL/hr
The volume of the water the patient can have per hour is approximately; 80.5 mL/hr
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the first u.s. study on nurses’ evidence-based practice competencies indicates major deficits that threaten healthcare quality, safety, and patient outcomes
The specific purposes of substantiation- Grounded Nursing are To identify, using predefined criteria, the stylish quantitative and qualitative original and review papers on the meaning, cause, course, assessment, forestallment, treatment, or economics of health problems managed by nursers and on quality assurance.
Although the practice of substantiation- grounded drug is an important strategy for perfecting the safety and quality of health care, harmonious use of known stylish practices doesn't do. In this study, experimenters sought to assess nanny faculty throughout the United States across 13 substantiation- grounded practice capabilities for nursers as well as 11 fresh capabilities for advanced practice nursers. They administered an anonymous online check and entered responses from 2344 nursers across 19 hospitals or health systems. In general, nursers reported a lack of faculty across all 24 disciplines, but youngish nursers and those with further training reported better faculty. A recent PSNet interview bandied the part of nursers with regard to patient safety and issues.
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the main goal of diabetes treatment is to normalize insulin activity and blood glucose levels to reduce the development of vascular and complications.
With diabetes, your body doesn't make enough insulin or can't use it as well as it should. When there isn't enough insulin or cells stop responding to insulin, too much blood sugar stays in your bloodstream. Over time, that can cause serious health problems, such as heart disease, vision loss, and kidney disease.
The main goal of diabetes treatment is to keep blood glucose levels as close to normal as safely possible. Since diabetes may greatly increase risk for heart disease and peripheral artery disease, measures to control blood pressure and cholesterol levels are an essential part of diabetes treatment as well.
People with diabetes must take responsibility for their day-to-day care. This includes monitoring blood glucose levels, dietary management, maintaining physical activity, keeping weight and stress under control, monitoring oral medications and, if required, insulin use via injections or pump. To help patients achieve this, UCSF's Diabetes Teaching Center offers self-management educational programs that emphasize individualized diabetes care. The program enables patients to make more consistent and appropriate adjustments in their therapy and lifestyle.
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many stroke patients are candidates for thrombolytic drugs. one of the most important things that an emt can do to optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a candidate for the drugs is:
The most important thing that the EMT can do is to determine the exact time of the onset of the symptoms.
What is Stroke?A stroke is a condition where there is insufficient blood supply to the brain, which results in cell death. Strokes can be ischemic or hemorrhagic, which refers to a lack of blood circulation or bleeding, respectively. Both stop certain brain functions in their tracks.
Due to the configuration of the current nerve fibers and the fact that this blood supply failure typically affects a particular region of the brain, some bodily processes on the opposite side of the damage may be negatively or positively impacted.
Contralateral paralysis is one of the most common symptoms, meaning that if the right part of the brain is afflicted, the paralysis will also affect the left side of the body, and vice versa.
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dave is a 70 year old patient with heart failure. he has been treated with ace inhibitors and diuretics. recently, his symptoms have worsened and become life threatening despite pharmacologic treatment. he has been hospitalized for evaluation and stabilization on a cardiac glycoside. 1. explain how the cardiac glycoside will act to lessen the patient's heart failure. 2. what type of cardiac glycoside do you expect the physician will most likely prescribe the patient and explain why? 3. which medications should the patient be advised to avoid because they can potentiate glycoside toxicity? 4. explain why the patient should also be counseled to avoid taking antacids while being treated with cardiac glycosides.
1. The cardiac glycoside will act to lessen the patient's heart failure by raising the output force and contractions rate.
2. The type of cardiac glycoside that I expect the physician to prescribe to the patient is digoxin.
3. The medication that the patient should be advised to avoid are Quinidine and flecainide.
4. The patient should also be counseled to avoid taking antacids because they won't make the medicine effective.
How to illustrate the information?1. Cardiac glycosides are a group of chemical substances that work on the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in cells to raise the output force and rate of contraction of the heart. They are crucial medications for the treatment of heart failure and irregular heartbeats. They are selective steroidal glycosides.
2. Given that cardiac glycosides, such as digitalis and digoxin, have been used for a long time in clinical practice and are known to inhibit Na+/K+-ATPase, which leads in cytosolic Na+ buildup, I believe the doctor will recommend digoxin to this patient.
3. Calcium channel blockers should not be used when taking glycoside due to the possibility that they may raise digoxin levels. Quinidine, flecainide, verapamil, and amiodarone are a few of these medications. Digoxin levels may also be raised by erythromycin, clarithromycin, propafenone, and tetracyclines.
4. When antacids are given with acidic medications, such as digoxin Digitek, they inhibit the absorption of the acidic medications, resulting in low blood concentrations of the medications, which in turn reduces the effects of the medications.
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he nurse is admitting a client in early labor and notes: fhr 120 bpm, blood pressure 126/84 mm hg, temperature 98.8°f (37.1°c), contractions every 4 to 5 minutes lasting 30 seconds, and greenish-color fluid in the vaginal vault. which finding should the nurse prioritize?
The findings that the nurse should prioritize is Meconium in the amniotic fluid.
What is Meconium?Meconium is the term that is used to describe the first stool of an infant immediately after delivery which occurs within the first 48hours after the delivery of the baby.
The features of meconium is that is appears sticky, thick and dark greenish in color.
The components of meconium include the following:
cells,
protein,
fats, and
intestinal secretions, like bile.
During an early labor with contractions every 4 to 5 minutes lasting 30 seconds, and greenish-color fluid in the vaginal vault, this indicates that the infant has released meconium inside the amniotic fluid which predisposes it to Meconium aspiration syndrome.
Meconium aspiration syndrome occurs when a newborn breathes a mixture of meconium and amniotic fluid into the lungs around the time of delivery.
Therefore the nurse should prioritize Meconium in the amniotic fluid to avoid complications after delivery.
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Lymphatic vessels provide a conduit for metastasizing cancer cells. Ideally, such cells are removed and destroyed by what structure, which thus prevents the spread of cancer?.
Answer:When cancer cells break away from a tumor, they may become stuck in one or more of the nearest lymph nodes.
Explanation:
a client is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath, cyanosis and an oxygen saturation of 82% (0.82) on room air. which action should the nurse implement first?
The action that the nurse should implement first is the administration of oxygen.
What is oxygen administration?The oxygen administration is the artificial administration of oxygen with the use of oxygen cylinders and a face mask to help increase the oxygen saturation of an individual's blood.
The normal oxygen saturation of an adult is 95% to 100%.
The indication for the use of oxygen administration include the following:
Maintenance of oxygenation while providing anesthesia, Supplementation during treatment of lung illnesses that affect oxygen exchange which leads to shortness of breath without intervention.Exposure to gaseous poison such as carbonmonoxide exposure.Since the client has oxygen saturation of 82%, oxygen administration should be the first action of the nurse to avoid any further complications.
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In the heart, all the following are true except :
a) the pericardium limits sudden dilatation of the ventricl
b) the left ventricle gives an aid to the right ventricle
c) the left atrium is the first part to contract.
d) the left side of the intervent. septum is depolarized bet
right side .
Answer: c
Explanation:
during the initial assessment of a laboring client, the nurse notes the following: blood pressure 160/110 mm hg, pulse 88 beats/minute, respiratory rate 22 breaths/minute, reflexes 3/ 4 with 2 beat clonus. urine specimen reveals 3 protein, negative sugar and ketones. based on these findings, a nurse should expect the client to have which complaints?
Answer: headache, blurred vision, and facial and extremity swelling
Explanation: The client is exhibiting signs of preeclampsia. In addition to hypertension and hyperreflexia, most clients with preeclampsia have edema. Headache and blurred vision are indications of the effects of the hypertension. Abdominal pain, urinary frequency, diaphoresis, nystagmus, dizziness, lethargy, chest pain, and shortness of breath are inconsistent with a diagnosis of preeclampsia.
Some white blood cells are named based on the types of substances that stain them for microscopic study. true or false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
the nurse is seeing a client who was born in mexico but has lived in the united states for 25 years. as a result of acculturation, the client's eating pattern has likely increased in what foods?
Answer:
junk food
Explanation:
most food the is found in the us are junk
a client calls the clinic and tells the nurse they have a foamy, greenish, and itchy vaginal discharge. the client asks the nurse what the significance of this discharge is. what is the best response by the nurse?
A client calls the clinic and reports having a foamy, greenish, and itchy vaginal discharge. The client inquires of the nurse about the significance of this discharge. The nurse's best response is that the client may have trichomoniasis.
Trichomoniasis is a parasitic infection that is spread through sexual contact. Trichomoniasis can cause foul-smelling vaginal discharge, genital itching, and painful urination in women. Trichomonasis usually causes no symptoms in men. Trich increases the likelihood of contracting or spreading other sexually transmitted infections. Trich, for example, can cause genital inflammation, making it easier to contract HIV or pass it on to a sexual partner.
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a nurse helps a postpartum woman out of bed for the first time postpartum and notices that she has a very heavy lochia flow. which assessment finding would best help the nurse decide that the flow is within normal limits?
The first-line treatment for postpartum hemorrhage is oxytocin, which can be given intramuscularly at dosages of 10 international units (IU) or at a rate of 250 milliliters per hour in 1 liter of saline with good results. Over ten minutes, 500 mL of fluid
What examinations would the nurse run to see if the patient's lochia is excessive?Consideration should be given to the lochia's color, size, and scent. Knowing how much lochia to check for is crucial since having too much of it can signify bleeding. Furthermore, lochia that smells bad can be unwell. When Lochia is initially born, it is frequently bright crimson and covered in tiny clots.
What is the primary method of stopping postpartum bleeding?The first-line treatment for postpartum hemorrhage is oxytocin, which can be given intramuscularly at dosages of 10 international units (IU) or at a rate of 250 milliliters per hour in 1 liter of saline with good results. Over ten minutes, 500 mL of fluid
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1. after repair of a hip fracture, the physician ordered the 252-pound patient a group 2 standard single power wheelchair with a sling, solid seat, and back
After repair of a hip fracture, the physician ordered the 252 pound patient a Group 2 standard single power wheelchair with a sling, solid seat and back. The correct HCPCS Level II code is K0822.
What is fracture?Fracture is often described as a complete or partial break in a bone.
The main symptom associated with fracture is pain. There may also be loss of functionality depending on the area affected.
Treatment for fracture usually involves resetting the bone in place and immobilizing it in a cast or splint to allow time to heal.
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The full question is here:
After repair of a hip fracture, the physician ordered the 252- pound patient a Group 2 standard single power wheelchair with a sling, solid seat, and back. Assign the correct HCPCS Level II codes.
a client wants to take a supplement between meals to help maintain or increase muscle mass without adding calories. what type of supplement would best help him achieve this goal?
If the person follow a high-resistance training regimen and consume at least 2.4g of protein and 4-6g of carbohydrates per kg of bodyweight each day, the person can gain strength without having a caloric surplus.
Carbohydrate- Having the standard chemical formula Cx(H2O)y, a carbohydrate is a naturally occurring substance or a derivative of one, made composed of molecules of carbon (C), hydrogen (H), as well as oxygen (O) (O). The most prevalent organic compound is a carbohydrate, and all life depends on them.
Protein- Large, intricate molecules known as proteins play a variety of vital functions in the body. They are crucial for the structure, operation, and control of the body's organs and carry out the majority of their job inside cells.
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a 51-year-old male presents with recurrent chest pain on exertion. he is diagnosed with angina pectoris. when he asks what causes the pain, how should the nurse respond? the pain occurs when:
A male patient, age 51, complains of recurring chest pain with activity. He has an angina pectoris diagnosis. The myocardial oxygen supply has gone below demand, it responds when he asks what is causing the pain.
The meaning of angina pectoris is chest pain brought on by ischemia. Coronary arteries might become spastic or obstructed when the heart isn't receiving enough oxygenated blood. Notably, recurrent angina is a warning sign for a possible heart attack.
An individual does not risk losing their life, despite the fact that Angina Pectoris might cause severe physical discomfort. It serves as a warning sign for a fatality, such as cardiac arrest.
The causes include coronary artery blockage and a shortage of oxygenated blood flow. The cholesterol plaque that builds up in the walls of arteries might contain cholesterol. Such plaque buildup results in artery narrowing. The proper flow of oxygenated blood is hampered by such a condition. Angina Pectoris oxygen deprivation is the cause of angina or chest pain.
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the hipaa privacy and security rules dictate that all who may come into contact with protected health information go through training on hipaa policy.
The primary goal of the Privacy Rule is to ensure that individuals' health information is appropriately protected while facilitating the information flow necessary to deliver and promote high-quality healthcare.
What are the primary objectives of the HIPAA privacy and security rules?The primary goal of the Privacy Rule is to ensure that individuals' health information is appropriately protected while facilitating the information flow necessary to deliver and promote high-quality healthcare, as well as to protect the health and wellbeing of the general public.
Who exactly is covered by HIPAA regulations?Who Must Follow These Regulations. Businesses that must abide by HIPAA regulations are known as "covered entities." Examples of covered entities include health insurance companies, HMOs, group health plans, and particular government health care payment schemes like Medicare and Medicaid.
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