identify the type of function represented by f(x)(1)/(2)*(3)^(x)

Answer:

(8, 9) and (12, 3)

Step-by-step explanation:

The ends of the line would be (8, 9) and (12, 3)

Because the scale factor is negative, the guide lines go through the centre of enlargement rather than from it.

Answer:

it is 800.00

Step-by-step explanation:

i did this a while ago

Arithmetic sequence is done by adding or subtracting the difference. The 12th term of the arithmetic sequence will be 58.

The arithmetic sequence is the series of numbers where every two consecutive terms have the same difference between them.

We know that the nth term of an arithmetic sequence is given as,

[tex]a_n = a_1 + (n-1)d[/tex]

Also, we are given two functions adding the two functions we get,

[tex]f(x) + g(x)\\\\ = 25 + 3(n-1)[/tex]

comparing the sum we get with the arithmetic sequence formula for nth term, we will understand that,

[tex]a_1 + d(n-1)\\25+3(n-1)[/tex]

therefore,

a₁ = 25

and d = 3

that means the first term of the sequence is 25 while the difference between the two terms is 3.

Now, substituting the values in the formula we will get that the 12th terms of the sequence can be written as,

[tex]a_n = a_1 + (n-1)d\\\\a_{12} = 25 + (12-1)3\\\\a_{12} = 25 + 33\\\\a_{12} = 58[/tex]

Hence, the 12th term of the arithmetic sequence will be 58.

Learn more about Arithmetic Sequence:

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Answer:

1.) Option C

2.) Option B

3.) Option D

4.) Option A

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{3x {}^{2} }{y {}^{ - 3} } \\ [/tex]

Here, we know that

[tex]a {}^{ - 1} = \frac{1}{a} \\ [/tex]

So,

[tex] \frac{ {3x}^{2} }{y {}^{ - 3} } = \frac{ {3x}^{2} }{ \frac{1}{y {}^{ 3} } } = {3x}^{2} y { }^{3} \\ [/tex]

Thus, Option C is correct

[tex]( {4}^{0} )( {4}^{2} ) \\ [/tex]

We know that,

n⁰ = 1

where, n = any real number

So,

[tex]( {4}^{0} )(4 {}^{2} ) = 1 \times 16 = 16 \\ [/tex]

Thus, The answer is 16

[tex]( \frac{5}{3} ) {}^{ - 3} \\ [/tex]

We know that

[tex]a {}^{ - 1} = \frac{1}{a} \\ [/tex]

So,

[tex]( { \frac{5}{3} )}^{ - 3} = ( { \frac{3}{5} )}^{3} = \frac{27}{125} \\ [/tex]

Thus, Option D is correct

[tex] \frac{a {}^{2} {b}^{5}c {}^{0} }{ab {}^{7} } \\ [/tex]

[tex] \frac{a {}^{2} {b}^{5} c {}^{0} }{ab {}^{7} } = \frac{a}{ {b}^{2} } \\ [/tex]

Thus, Option A is correct

-TheUnknownScientist 72

Answer:

[tex]\sqrt{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the value under the square root is the same, you only subtract the coefficients, and you do not show the one in your final answer.

Answer:

630

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

630

Step-by-step explanation:

90/6=15

42/6=7

Those are the lowest you can go in those numbers and when you do 90*42  

it is 3780. Divide that by 6 and it is 630.

Answer:

  5.26% profit (NRs 7,894.24)

Step-by-step explanation:

The exchange of 1,50,000 NRs to A$ will give ...

  A$ 1/(NRs 77.02) = x /1,50,000

  x = A$ 1,50,000/77.02 = A$ 1947.54 . . . . . (rounded down)

If the Nepali rupees are devalued by 5%, then what did buy A$ 1 will now buy only A$ 0.95. Then the exchange back to NRs will give ...

  (NRs 77.02)/(A$ 0.95) = x/(A$ 1947.54)

  x = NRs (1947.54)(77.02/0.95) = NRs 1,57,894.24

The effective profit is the difference from the amount initially exchanged, NRs 7,894.24, or ...

  (1,57,984.24/1,50,000 -1) × 100% ≈ 5.26%

__

Additional comment

Except for the loss in the exchange due to rounding down, the profit would be 1/0.95 -1 = 5.2632%. Instead, it is 5.2628%. This is why investors move their money to investments that retain their value when the local currency is losing its value.

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

140/100 = 56/x

=> x = (100x56)/140 = 40

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

140%  x __ = 56

140/100 x __ = 56

x = 56 x 140/100

x = 40

Answer:

-1/2 or the decimal form -0.5

Answer:

100 and 101

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi there!

Let x be equal to the smaller number.

Let x + 1 be equal to the larger number, which is consecutive to the smaller number.

We are given that the sum of the two numbers is 201:

[tex]x+(x+1)=201\\x+x+1=201\\2x+1=201\\2x=200\\x=100[/tex]

Therefore, the smaller number is 100. Because the larger number is x + 1, it is 101.

I hope this helps!

Answer:

.071 times 101

Step-by-step explanation: The purpose of scientific notation is for scientists to write very large, or very small, numbers with ease.

Value of [tex]x[/tex]is [tex] - 12[/tex].

Final Answer is [tex]480[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Assume that:

First number = x

Second number = 20 - x

Putting the given conditions,

[tex]2x^{2} + 3(20 - x)^{2} [/tex]

Putting the formula (a-b)²=(a²+2ab+b²) in (20-x)²,

[tex]2 {x}^{2} + 3(20^{2} - 2 \times 20 \times x + {x}^{2})[/tex]

[tex] = > 2 {x}^{2} + 3(400 - 40x + x^{2})[/tex]

Opening the brackets,

[tex]2 {x}^{2} + 3 \times 400 - 3 \times 40x + 3 \times {x}^{2} [/tex]

[tex] = > 2 {x}^{2} - 1200 - 120x + 3{x}^{2}[/tex]

[tex] = > (2x^{2} + 3 {x}^{2}) - 120x + 1200[/tex]

[tex] = > 5 {x}^{2} - 120x + 1200[/tex]

[tex]As \: x= - \frac{b}{2a}[/tex]

[tex] = > - \frac{120}{2 \times 5}[/tex]

[tex] = > - \frac{120}{10} [/tex]

[tex] = > - 12[/tex]

Now substituting the value of x in 5x²-120x+1200,

[tex] = > (5 \times {12}^{2} )-(120 \times 12)+1200[/tex]

[tex] = > (5 \times 144)-(1440)+1200[/tex]

[tex] = > 720 - 1440 + 1200[/tex]

[tex] = > 720 - (1440 - 1200)[/tex]

[tex] = > 720 - 240[/tex]

[tex] = > 480[/tex]

Answer:

The answer is A.

Answer:

tomato B weighs more than tomato A

Step-by-step explanation:

Tomato A: 6oz = 169.8g

Tomato B: 6.10oz = 173g

Answer:

1. correct (conversion = x1000)

2. correct (conversion = [divided by] 1000)

3. wrong (conversion should be x100)

4. wrong (conversion should be x1000)

5. correct (conversion = x10)

Answer:

option 1, 2 and 5 are correct

Step-by-step explanation:

1 Km = 1000 m

1) 1.25 km = 1.25 * 1000 = 1250 m

2) 0.345 km = 0.345 *1000 = 345 m

5)   1.7m cm = 1.7 * 10 = 17 mm

Step-by-step explanation:

the ratio of 1/18 simply means that 1 inch in the drawing represents 18 inches in reality.

so, the real flag is therefore

2×18 = 36 inches long and 1×18 = 18 inches wide (or high).

the area of the actual flag is therefore

36 × 18 = 648 in²

Answer:

95

Step-by-step explanation:

the interior angles of a square add upto 360

and from the arrows we know that the parallel sides are equal

so there will be two angles which are 85

so:

360-85-85 = 190

190/2 = 95

Prediction for some count is usually expressible as expectation of some random variable. The reasonable prediction for the number of times a white or red marble will be drawn is 54

A  random variable is usually taking some numerical information of each elementary event of the sample space . (map from sample space to real numbers). Its expected value is the best prediction value in most of the cases.

Binomial distributions consists of n independent Bernoulli trials.

Bernoulli trials are those trials which end up randomly either on success (with probability p) or on failures( with probability 1- p = q (say))

Suppose we have random variable X pertaining binomial distribution with parameters n and p, then it is written as

[tex]X \sim B(n,p)[/tex]

The probability that out of n trials, there'd be x successes is given by

[tex]P(X =x) = \: ^nC_xp^x(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

For the given case, as the ball being drawn is being replaced too, so we can take all 180 experiments to be independent from each other.

If we call

Success = Event of drawing white or  red marble

Failure = Event of drawing any other marble instead of white or red

Then, each marble drawing event is having two outcomes: success or failure. This makes each drawing a Bernoulli  experiment.

Modelling this situation with binomial distribution would be good.

Let X = number of successes in those 180 experiments.

Thus, we get

[tex]X \sim B(n = 180, p= 0.3)[/tex]

The expectation of random variable X is the best prediction of count of times we will get in those 180 trials.

The expectation of a  random variable is: [tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

Thus, we get:

[tex]E(X) = 180 \times 0.3 = 54[/tex]

Thus, the reasonable prediction for the number of times a white or red marble will be drawn is 54

Learn more about binomial distribution here:

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[tex]\tt \dfrac{2.7}{2.5}=\dfrac{6.2}{AC}\\\\AC=5.740[/tex]

Answer:

45 sq cm

Step-by-step explanation:

A triangle has an area of half of a rectangle if it has the same base and height.

Answer:

- B

x = 9

y = 3

Answer:

81 because area=lxh so 9x9 is 81

[tex]i \: hope \: it \: will \: hellp \: you \: [/tex]

Standard deviations are used to measure the variability of the set

The reason they choose the standard deviation as the measure of variability is (a) when plotted, the data set had a normal distribution

When a data is distributed, the data can be measured using the median, the mean or the standard deviation.

If the data is a normal distribution, then the best measure of variability to use is the standard deviation

Hence, the true statement is (a) when plotted, the data set had a normal distribution

Read more about measure of variability at:

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Answer:

[tex]3(8) - 4(2) + ( - 6) \\ \\ 24 - 8 - 6 \\ \\ 16 - 6 \\ \\ 10[/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \sf \: 3x - 4y + z [/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \sf \: 3( 8 ) - 4 ( 2 ) + ( -6 )[/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \sf \: 24 - 8 - 6[/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \sf \: 16 - 6[/tex]

[tex] \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \sf \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \underline{ 10}[/tex]

Answer:

Check the attachment.

Hope it helps ⚜

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

one dumpling in 3 minutes

Answer:

Answer:

118

Step-by-step explanation:

150+16%=174

174 - 32% = 118.32

118.32=118(to nearest whole number)

Number 1

_______________

_______________

Now we can solve Number 1, there is one pair of Vertical angles being ∠5 and ∠3

_______________

Number 2

Since we know the definition of a Linear Pair we can solve this problem also, the only Linear Pair that we can choose out the ones give to us is ∠4 and ∠3, because they are adjacent.

_______________

[tex]{\huge{\boxed{\mathfrak{Answer}}}[/tex]

    2. ∠4 and ∠3

Answer:

if it took her 14 hours to make a 30-inch scarf, we can assume it will take her to double that time to make a 60-inch scarf. 28 hours is double of 14, if she only knits one hour every day it will take her 4 weeks, 28 days is equal to exactly 4 weeks 28/7=4 weeks

Answer:

4 weeks

Step-by-step explanation:

14 hours for a 30-inch

multiply them both by 2

28 hours for 60-inch

28 divided by 7 = 4

Have a blessed and great day<3

Answer:

ok so we now now many do have 0.35 so now lets just find out how many do

1-0.35=0.65

65% do have a ocean room so lets just multiply

0.65*160=104

104 do have a ocean facing room

Hope This Helps!!!