Answer:
What is American Psychological Association
Explanation:
hyper-igm syndrome is a rare genetic disease caused by a loss-of-function mutation in the gene that codes for the cd40l protein. what are the two most likely direct effects of cd40l deficiency?
Can you maybe show us a picture?
Which type of glia is found outside the CNS?
Schwann cells
microglia
astrocytes
O oligodendrocytes
Answer:
What are Schwann cells
Explanation:
Primarily, glial cells provide support for the neurons. Think of them as a secretarial pool for your nervous system, plus the janitorial and maintenance staff. They may not do the big jobs, but without them, those big jobs would never get done.
Your central nervous system (CNS) is made up of your brain and the nerves of your spinal column.
Five types that are present in your CNS are:1
Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells
Radial glia
You also have glial cells in your peripheral nervous system (PNS), which comprises the nerves in your extremities, away from the spine. Two types of glial cells there are:
Schwann cells
Satellite cells
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The glial cells known as Schwann cells create the myelin coating on axons that leave the brain, hence option A is correct.
What is a type of glia?The most prevalent form of glial cells in the peripheral nervous system is Schwann cells (SCs). Outside the central nervous system, ganglia are collections of nerve cell bodies.
These structures contain groups of nerve cell bodies whose axons extend to various regions of the organ. Myelinating and non myelinating cells are the two main groups of SCs in the adult nervous system.
However, the presence of astrocytes significantly affects the degree of play crucial roles in the growth, upkeep, operation, and regeneration of peripheral nerves.
Therefore, Schwann cell contact with CNS axons by redefining the CNS-PNS (peripheral nervous system) border in a lesioned CNS and inhibiting Schwann cell invasion, hence option A is correct.
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If you have had the mumps once, you cannot get them again. This is an example of
Natural active immunity
Artificial active immunity
Natural passive immunity
Artificial passive immunity
Answer:
Natural active immunity
Explanation:
which term refers to distention of the renal calyces and pelvis?
rn targeted medical surgical neurosensory and musculoskeletal online practice 2019
Answer:
Explanation:
A nurse is planning care for a client who has. closed traumatic brain injury from a fall and is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following interventions is the nurses priority?
14. A child in a poor country has not had sufficient protein in her diet for an extended period of time. What classic sign of this
form of malnutrition will she most likely exhibit?
A. constant thirst
B. extremely thin appearance
C. distended abdomen
D. sunken eyes
Answer:
A:
Explanation:
Having less protein makes you want to have more liquids to the fact that protein has healthy and unhealthy fats in it.
what two types of defects does a cancerous cell possess?
Answer:
Cancerous cells possess defects that make proteins required for cell growth active, and tumor suppressor genes inactive.
Explanation:
what happens in the uterus that differentiates the fetus into either male or female?
Answer:
hope this helps <3
Explanation:
The fetus appears to be sexually indifferent, looking neither like a male or a female. Over the next five weeks, the fetus begins producing hormones that cause its sex organs to grow into either male or female organs. This process is called sexual differentiation.
X- or Y-chromosome sperm have an equal chance of fertilizing an ovum. If Y sperm fuses an ovum, the zygote becomes masculine. When sperm-carrying X combines an ovum, a female zygote develops.
Which body system differentiates a male from a female?The only human organ system that differs significantly between males and females is the reproductive system. Male and female embryonic structures that would eventually form the reproductive system begin similarly, but by birth, the reproductive systems have differentiated.
At fertilization, the embryo's chromosomal sex is determined. Humans need 6 weeks to show the earliest evidence of sex distinction, though.
An ovum has an equal chance of being fertilized by X- or Y-chromosome sperm. The zygote develops into a male when Y sperm combine with an ovum. A female zygote forms when an ovum and sperm-carrying X unite.
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Medic gaming?
Medic gaming.
Medic gaming!
Answer:
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the pharynx connects the nasal cavity and oral cavity at the back of the throat and leads to the larynx. true or false?
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
The Pharynx Connects the Nasal and Oral Cavities to the Larynx and Esophagus. The pharynx, or throat, is shaped like a funnel. During respiration, it conducts air between the larynx and trachea (or “windpipe”) and the nasal and the oral cavities.
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term for the biceps brachii during forearm flexion
Answer:
What is prime mover (agonist) term for the biceps brachii during forearm flexion. synergist. term that describes the relation of brachioradialis to biceps brachii during forearm flexion. antagonist.
Explanation:
The term for the biceps brachii during forearm flexion is the agonist. In the context of muscle movements, the agonist is the muscle responsible for creating a specific movement.
When you flex your forearm, the biceps brachii contracts and shortens, causing movement. The biceps brachii is located on the front of the upper arm and is a two-headed muscle that crosses both the shoulder and elbow joints.
During forearm flexion, the biceps brachii acts as the primary muscle responsible for generating the force required to lift the forearm towards the upper arm, allowing you to perform actions like bending your elbow or lifting objects closer to your body.
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A 73-year-old woman is experiencing recurrent constipation. The woman reports to the nurse that she experiences constipation despite the fact that she takes docusate on a daily basis and performs cleansing enemas several times weekly. How should the nurse best respond to this client's statement
Answer:
Taking too many laxatives can make your bowels dependent on them, making you more susceptible to constipation.
Explanation:
"The woman reports to the nurse that she experiences constipation despite the fact that she takes docusate on a daily basis and performs cleansing enemas several times weekly."
docusate is a type of a laxative, which she also states that she takes it everyday and performs a cleansing enemas several times weekly, and taking too many laxatives is not a good idea, as it makes you more susceptible to constipation.
what are the four organs of the integumentary system
Answer:
The integumentary system is an organ system consisting of the skin, hair, nails, and exocrine glands.
Explanation:
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Upon the release of renin, is produced and stimulates vasoconstriction and the release of aldosterone. FSH and LH are examples of hormones, which target the ovaries or testes. Overeating, or , is a sign associated with diabetes mellitus. Overproduction of urine, or polyuria, is a sign of diabetes mellitus. An enzyme that degrades second messengers like cAMP or cGMP is
Answer:
Overproduction of urine, or polyuria, is a sign of diabetes mellitus.
Explanation:
does sympathetic nervous system increase body temperature
research has found that the nucleus accumbens and the amygdala, both of which are part of the ________, are brain areas that are particularly important in sexual motivation.
Answer:
What is the basal forebrain.
Explanation:
The Nucleus accumbens and the Amygdala are the part of the Limbic System.
What is the Limbic System?
The limbic system is the part of the brain involved in behavioral and emotional responses, especially when it comes to behaviors that is required for survival ,feeding, reproduction and caring for our young, and fight or flight responses.
The limbic system is located within the cerebrum of the brain, immediately below the temporal lobes, and are buried under the cerebral cortex (the cortex is the outermost part of the brain).
Limbic system comprises of:
- Limbic cortex
- Hippocampal formation
- Amygdala
- Septal area
- Hypothalamus
What is Nucleus Accumbens?The nucleus accumbens is a region in the basal forebrain rostral to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus.
The nucleus accumbens has a significant role in the cognitive processing of motivation, aversion, reward , and reinforcement learning hence, it has a significant role in addiction.
In addition, part of the nucleus accumbens core is centrally involved in the induction of slow-wave sleep. The nucleus accumbens plays a lesser role in processing fear (a form of aversion), impulsivity, and the placebo effect. It is involved in the encoding of new motor programs as well.
What is Amygdala?The amygdala is an almond-shaped structure, located right next to the hippocampus.
The main function of the amygdala is in emotional responses, including feelings of happiness, fear, anger, and anxiety.
This area is also key for the formation of new memories. The amygdala interacts with the hippocampus by attaching emotional content to memories.
It has a role in how memorable memories can be – memories that have strong emotional components tend to stick, rather than those with little emotional content. ‘Fear learning’ is also an element of the amygdala.
Damage to the amygdala can result in more aggression, irritability, loss of control of emotions, and deficits in recognizing emotions, especially recognizing fear.
There are also links of amygdala differences in those with Autism, depression, posttraumatic stress disorder, and bipolar disorder.
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what is the relationship of the arms to the body’s core?
at what bac level is an individual considered intoxicated if they are over the age of 21?
Answer:
The BAC is calculated from the concentration of alcohol in the breath. In most states, the legally-defined level of alcohol intoxication is a BAC of 0.08%.
Based on your understanding of the scenario, which o the abbreviations mentioned primarily affect the lungs? Check
all that apply.
OMS
URI
IBD
DAD
ОВА
PE
Answer:
12
Explanation:
Which of the fallowing statements is true
-Bacterial infections should be treated with anitfungal medication
-viral infections can be treated with antibiotics
-fungal infections must be treated only with rest and fluid replacement
-viral infections are usually treated with rest and fluid replacement
how soon after laparoscopic gallbladder surgery can you go back to work
Answer:
6 to 8 weeks
Explanation:
8. What type of doctor would you be if you completed a bachelor's degree, medical school, and a
medical residency. (1 point)
• phD
• MD
• EdD
• all of the above
Hello there!
The answer to your question is MD.
If you complete a bachelor's degree, medical school, and a medical residency, you wil be an MD.
Hope this helps!
~Just a joyful girl
Aggressive debridement should be avoided in which of the following types
of wounds that presents with necrosis?
Answer: This method uses the body's own enzymes and moisture beneath a dressing, and non-viable tissue becomes liquefied. Maintaining a balance in moisture is important. Dressing frequency and absorbency. Dressing types commonly used are hydrocolloids, hydrogels, and transparent films (semi-occlusive and occlusive).
Explanation:
Hope this helps!!
a/an drug is administered to treat symptoms of severe disorders of thinking and mood that are associated with neurological and psychiatric illnesses such as schizophrenia, mania, and delusional disorders.
Answer:
What is Antipsychotics
Explanation:
Antipsychotics are a class of drugs used commonly to treat psychotic disorders -- conditions in which thinking can be irrational, and people have false beliefs (delusions) or perceptions (hallucinations) -- and sometimes to treat mood disorders such as bipolar disorder or major depression.
curare blocks action at acetylcholine synapses and causes paralysis. this drug is an example of an
Answer:Antagonist, which is a drug that inhibits the production of a chemical in the body. This is the opposite of an agonist drug.
you demonstrate high-quality cpr by keeping interruptions in cpr to less than _____ seconds.
You demonstrate high-quality CPR by keeping interruptions in CPR to less than TEN (10) seconds.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is a fundamental medical technique used during emergency situations.This technique (cardiopulmonary resuscitation ) can save a life when it is applied properly.High-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation includes a chest compression fraction higher than 80% of the compression rate of 100-120/min.In conclusion, you demonstrate high-quality CPR by keeping interruptions in CPR to less than TEN (10) seconds.
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what is the muscular layer of the heart wall called
Answer:
The muscle layer of the heart is termed the myocardium and is made up of cardiomyocytes. The myocardium is found in the walls of all four chambers of the heart, though it is thicker in the ventricles and thinner in the atria
Explanation:
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In the middle of a stormy night, emergency medical responder Zoey is dispatched to a busy mountain road. It seems that a delivery truck has failed to clear a tight curve and has tipped onto its side. The driver is conscious but unable to move. The truck is situated halfway into the road, right on the curve, and is blocking one lane. What steps should Zoey take to keep herself, the truck driver, and others on the road safe while she attends to this patient?
Put on your flashers. Set out reflective triangles to warn other traffic. Make sure other drivers can see them in time, especially on a curve to avoid another accident. Stop traffic by blocking the remaining half of road until police arrive to direct traffic to one single lane.
which client statement indicates a good understanding of the nutritional modifications needed to manage hypertension?
Answer:
"Limiting my salt intake to 2 grams per day will improve my blood pressure."
Explanation:
Which client statement indicates a good understanding of the nutritional modifications needed to manage hypertension?
"I should eliminate caffeine from my diet to lower my blood pressure."
"A glass of red wine each day will lower my blood pressure."
"If I include less fat in my diet, I'll lower my blood pressure."
"Limiting my salt intake to 2 grams per day will improve my blood pressure."
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what food can eat on the morning of colonoscopy prep day
Answer:
Water can get boring, so keep a variety of clear liquids on hand. On the day before your colonoscopy — when you're restricted to clear liquids — you can have popsicles, Jell-O, clear broth, coffee or tea (without milk or creamer), soft drinks, Italian ice, or Gatorade. But take nothing with red, blue, or purple dye.
Explanation: Hope this helps at least a little bit :)