There are 351 identical plastic chips numbered 1 through 351 in a box. What is the probability of reaching into the box and randomly drawing a chip number that is smaller than 212

Answer:

C) 10

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps youuuuuu

Answer:

i got c) 10

Step-by-step explanation:

(11^2-9^2)*(1/2)^2

(121-81)

40*(1/2)^2

40*0.25

10

vwala can i have brainliest?

Answer:

-5

Step-by-step explanation:

2×9/3 - (4+7)

18/3 -11

18/3 - 33/3

-15/3

-5

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

2x/3- y +7; x = 9, y=4

plug in the numbers

2(9)/3-(4)+7

simplify 2(9)/3

2 • 9=18

18/3=6

6-4+7

6-4= 2

2+7=9

6 * 5 = 30

42 - 30 = 12

? * 2 = 12

? = 6

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A.)

[tex]a^{2} + b^{2} = c^{2}[/tex]

[tex]16^{2} +20^{2}= c^{2}[/tex]

256 + 400 = [tex]c^{2}[/tex]

656 = [tex]c^{2}[/tex]

25.6 = c

__________________________________________________________

B.)

[tex]a^{2} + b^{2} = c^{2}[/tex]

[tex]25^{2}+ 10^{2} = c^{2}[/tex]

625 + 100 = [tex]c^{2}[/tex]

725 = [tex]c^{2}[/tex]

26.9 = c

__________________________________________________________

C.)

[tex]a^{2} + b^{2} = c^{2}[/tex]

[tex]12^{2} +10^{2}= c^{2}[/tex]

144 + 100 = [tex]c^{2}[/tex]

244 = [tex]c^{2}[/tex]

15.6 = c

__________________________________________________________

D.)

[tex]a^{2} + b^{2} = c^{2}[/tex]

[tex]26^{2}+ 24^{2} =c^{2}[/tex]

676 + 576 =  [tex]c^{2}[/tex]

1,252 =  [tex]c^{2}[/tex]

35.4

__________________________________________________________

Sry it takes a lot of time to put in these equations and all that

Hope it helped!

Answer:

Around 2080

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer is: 2000

Step-by-step explanation:

945 rounds to 900

537 rounds to 500

617 rounds to 600

Add them up to get 2000

Answer:

BE =DE

BEC=DEC

AEB AED

Step-by-step explanation:

not that hard lol

Answer:

The answer would be 28 becasue if you divide th right number by the m substitue that for the number 97

The sum of the expressions for n = -2 and m = 5 is -43

We have the following expressions (3m + 2n − 6) and (− 4 − 6m + 7n).

We can write the sum of the expression as -

(3m + 2n − 6) + (− 4 − 6m + 7n)

3m + 2n - 6 - 4 - 6m + 7n

3m - 6m + 2n + 7n - 6 - 4

- 3m + 9n - 10

At n = - 2 and m = 5, we get -

(- 3 x 5 + 9 x -2 - 10)

- 15 - 18 - 10

- 43

Therefore, the sum of the expressions for n = -2 and m = 5 is -43.

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Answer:look below

Step-by-step explanation: The prime factorization of number is the break down into factors which are prime numbers (numbers without factors except 1 and itself). The factors 22 and 32 are composite numbers since they have more than 1 and itself as factors. They are not prime.

However, the factorization of 22 * 32 * 5 will equal a number. 22*32*5 = 3, 520. But it does not match the solutions given.

Answer:

2464

Step-by-step explanation:

prime factors : 32,11,7

32×11×7=2464

Answer:

The 2nd equation

Given:

In [tex]\Delta ABC, \overline{CA}=\overline{CB}[/tex].

[tex]\overline{CD}[/tex] is an altitude drawn from C to [tex]\overline{AB}[/tex].

To prove:

[tex]\overline{CD}[/tex] bisects [tex]\overline{AB}[/tex].

Proof:

In [tex]\Delta ABC[/tex], [tex]\overline{CD}[/tex] is an altitude drawn from C to [tex]\overline{AB}[/tex].

It means, [tex]\Delta ACD\text{ and }\Delta BCD[/tex] are right angle triangles.

In [tex]\Delta ACD\text{ and }\Delta BCD[/tex],

Hypotenuse : [tex]\overline{CA}=\overline{CB}[/tex]       [Given]

Leg : [tex]\overline{CD}=\overline{CD}[/tex]       [Common]

If the hypotenuse and leg of one right triangle are congruent to the hypotenuse and leg of another right triangle, then by HL postulate both triangles are congruent.

[tex]\Delta ACD\cong \Delta BCD[/tex]        [HL postulate]

[tex]\overline{AD}\cong \overline{BD}[/tex]       [CPCTC]

[tex]\overline{AD}=\overline{BD}[/tex]

It means, point D is the midpoint of [tex]\overline{AB}[/tex].

So, [tex]\overline{CD}[/tex] bisects [tex]\overline{AB}[/tex].

Hence proved.

Answer:

there are 7 fives in 35

and each 5 slices makes 3 cups

so,,7×3=21 cups

Answer:

21 cups

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

the probability  of selecting a spade: 14/52 = 1/4

sample response

No his statement is not correct. Brody confused value and magnitude. [-4]= 4 and -[+1] = 1. The magnitude of -4 is grater than the magnitude of +1. Stock F had a greater price change.

Answer: -8/7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(c) 24 (d) 2 -4 (e) 22 2 1.25 0

Step-by-step explanation:

Problem 1.1 (10 Points) Let 21 2j, and 23 j. Find the value of each of the following 3 4j, 22 expressions and give your answers in rectangular form z t jy. (a) 132122 (b) 321 421 (c) (21)3 (Note that superscript denotes conjugation.) 222 21 (d) 22 (e) 2223 Problem 1.2 (10 Points) (a) Find real numbers r and y such that 5z -3y j(5y z) 4. (b) Show that any complex number z can also be expressed as z e 2"* k 0, 1,2, 3. Problem 1.3 (10 Points) Express each of the following complex numbers in polar form. a) 2 2V3 (c) 1 j j2 7 4j (d) 3-2j (e) Problem 1.4 (10 Points) Use the results from Problem 1.2 (b) above to find all roots of the following complex numbers and plot your results in the complex plane. (a) 1 (Hint: there are 5 different answers and one is 2 (b) 23 (1 -j) (Hint: there are 3 different answers. (c) 24 (d) 2 -4 (e) 22 2 1.25 0

Answer:

18.5 days

Step-by-step explanation:

Count by two's on your fingers until you have nine fingers up, and that equals 9 x 2 = 18, plus that .5 eqauls 18.5 days.

The dog has been dieting for 19 weeks.

The unitary method is a technique for solving a problem by first finding the value of a single unit, and then finding the necessary value by multiplying the single unit value.

According to the given problem,

Starting weight of the dog = 89.5 pounds

Halfway weight of the dog = 80 pounds

Weight the dog loses per week = 0.5 pounds

Weight loss = (89.5 - 80) pounds

                    = 9.5 pounds

If the dog loses 0.5 pounds in 1 week,

Then the dog will lose 9.5 pounds in (9.5 × 2) weeks

⇒ The dog will lose 9.5 pounds in 19 weeks.

Hence, we can conclude that the dog has week dieting for 19 weeks and lost 9.5 pounds.

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Answer:

A. $4.80 + $2.40 = $7.20

Step-by-step explanation:

10% is the same as 10/100 or 1/10. To find 10% of a number, move the decimal point one place to the left.

10% of $48 is $4.80

Now he needs 5% of $48 which is half of 10% of $48, so 5% of $48 is $2.40.

$4.80 + $2.40 = $7.20

Answer: A. $4.80 + $2.40 = $7.20

Answer:

There are no solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

No intersections or points that apply for the equations.

Answer:

she is wrong x would be -1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

-6x - 2 = 0

x = -2/6 which is equal to -1/3

Answer:

1.15 pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

5 - 3.85 = 1.15

Answer:

1.15

Step-by-step explanation:

5.00

-3.85

---------

1.15

Hope this helps!

Answer:

The answer is $270

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Take the original price.

2. Divide the original price by 100 and times it by 10.

3. Move the decimal one place to the left.

4. Minus this new number from the original one.

5. This will give you the discounted value.

I hope this helped! :)

Answer:

x = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

For complementary angles, the sum of two angles is equal to 90 degrees.

We have,

[tex]m\angle ABC = 4x-10\\\\m\angle DBC = x+30[/tex]

ATQ,

[tex]4x-10+x+30=90[/tex]

Taking like terms together,

4x+x =90-30+10

5x = 70

x = 14

So, the value of x is 14.

Answer: 14

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The probability of drawing a red is 50% blue is 1/3 or 33.33% yellow is 1/6 or 16.66

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1075 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: A) 6 in^2

First, you need to find the length of the base.

a = 3, b = ?, c= 5

Using Pythagorean Theorem*: a^2 + b^2 = c^2

b^2 = c^2 - a^2

b^2 = 5^2 - 3^2

b^2 = 25 - 9

b^2 = 16 (square root both sides)

b = 4

Now, you have to find the area using the area of a triangle formula: A = (bh)/2

A = (bh)/2

A = (4·3)/2

A = 12/2

A = 6 in^2

Pythagorean Theorem is used for this question since it's a right triangle.

Answer: A) 6in^2

Step-by-step explanation:

base = 4 in

height = 3 in (pythagorean theorem)

A = (bxh)/2 = (4x3)/2 = 12/2 = 6 in^2

Answer:

Yes, the probability distribution is valid.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

Income range ___ midpoint(x) ___ %

5 - 15 __________ 10 _____20%

15 - 25 _________ 20 _____13%

25- 35 _________ 30 _____ 21%

35 - 45 _________40 _____ 17%

45 - 55_________ 40 ____ 20%

55 or more _______ 50 _____9%

Yes, we do have a valid probability distributuon ; as the summation of the percentage values is equal to 100%

Yes. Using the income midpoints  x and the percent of super shoppers, we can conclude that we have a valid probability distribution.

Given:

Income ranges: 5-15, 15-25, 25-35, 35-45, 45-55, 55 or more.

Midpoints x:       10,     20,      30,      40,       50,      60

Percent of super shoppers: 20%, 13%, 21%, 17%, 20%, 9%.

A valid probability distribution has two must have properties:

Its probabilities are non-negative.

Its probabilities sum to 1.

In the given data, the percentages can be converted to probabilities by dividing by 100 as :

0.2, 0.13, 0.21, 0.17, 0.2, 0.09

None of the probabilities are negative.

All probabilities add up to 1

[tex]0.2 + 0.13 + 0.21 + 0.17 + 0.2 + 0.09 = 1[/tex]

Thus, given distribution is a valid probability distribution.

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Answer:

5940 cm^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Step one:

given data

Height = 27 cm^3

Area= 220 cm^2

Required

the volume of the box

Step two:

the expression for volume is

V= Area* height

v= 220*27

V= 5940 cm^3