Use the scatter plot of car resale values to answer the following question about making a prediction of the resale value of a
car.
Car Resale Values
100
80
60
40
20
10
Age of Car
Using the regression line, or line of best fit, predict the resale value of an 8-year-old car with an original cost of $15,000.
The 8-year-old car could be worth approximately $2000.
b The 8-year-old car could be worth approximately $5000.
The 8-year-old car could be worth approximately $3000.
d. The 8-year-old car could be worth approximately $4500.

Answer:

x=7   Thx pls mark as brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

In order for a polygon to be a parallelogram, the polygon needs to be a four-sided rectangle type shape, with two sets of parallel sides.

For this square to be a parallelogram, all  

4

angles need to be  

90

º

. This will give us to the two sets of parallel sides.

Knowing this, and the fact that on of the angles is being bisected, we need only multiply the defined angle by two and set it equal to  

90

.

Answer:

30.8 I believe is your answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(10,0)

Step-by-step explanation:

3x+6y=30

3x+6(0)=30

3x=30

x=10

Answer:

hmmm? well I guess I can solve for x in relation to y and vice versa

but to actually solve for x and y you will need another equation of x and y

3x=30+6y

x=10+2y=2y+10

-6y=30-3x

-2y=10-x

2y=-10+x=x-10

y=(1/2)x-5

well, y=(1/2)x-5 is a line with slope 1/2 and y-intercept (0,b) of

1 gallon of gas for William= 37.76 ÷ 16= 2.36 $

1 gallon of gas for Regina= 14.64 ÷ 6= 2.44 $

so william got a better deal per gallon.

Answer:

9 - 1 = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

We can simplify the equation by changing 9 +(-1) to 9 - 1, therefore making it a subtraction problem.

Answer:

9:17

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 9:17 am

Step-by-step explanation: I added all the minutes together and got 77 minutes. Then I simplified the 77 minutes into an hour and 17 minutes. Then I added the 1hour and 17minutes to 8:00 am.

Answer:

x = 25

Step-by-step explanation:

From the picture attached,

ΔABC and ΔADE are the similar triangles.

Therefore, their corresponding sides will be in the same ratio.

[tex]\frac{\text{AB}}{\text{AD}}=\frac{\text{AC}}{\text{AE}}=\frac{\text{BC}}{\text{DE}}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\text{AB}}{\text{AD}}=\frac{\text{BC}}{\text{DE}}[/tex]

And AB = AD + DB

             = 2(AD) [Since, AD = DB]

By substituting these values,

[tex]\frac{\text{2AD}}{\text{AD}}=\frac{\text{34}}{\text{(x-8)}}[/tex]

2 = [tex]\frac{34}{x-8}[/tex]

x - 8 = [tex]\frac{34}{2}[/tex]

x - 8 = 17

x = 17 + 8

x = 25

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

it would be 8 as 17 is on the y axis and then you go along the corridor and down the stairs and the dot is on 8

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

scale goes up in 2s

read from X axis

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:WAT

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Step one:

given data

lenght L= 5in

width W= 3 in

area= L*W

area= 5*3= 15in^2

Step two:

The rectangle was scaled by 2, this means that the dimensions were doubled

therefore the lenght and width will be

L=5*2= 10

W=3*2= 6

hence the area is

Area= 10*6= 60in^2

Answer:

13x + 24 or 37

Step-by-step explanation:

one of those answers.

Hope this helps and GOOD LUCK :)

Answer:

96%

Step-by-step explanation:

If you substitue values for the sides of the square, you can easily solve this problem.

If the side of each square was 10, then the area of the square would be 100. A 40% increase in side length would mean 10×.4 = 4 --> 10+4= 14.

14 would be your new side length meaning that the area would be 196.

From this, you can see that there is an increase by 96 from the original to the 40% increase. Since the value was initially 10, we can turn the 96 increase into 96 percent.

Answer:

40% iincrease

Step-by-step explanation:

A=l^2  (area of a square)      let the unknown dimensions be x                                                                                                                   Area of the original square without change=(x^2)                                                          Area of the square undergoing change =(1.4x^2)                                                            thus,% change=new-old/old*100%                                                                                   1.4-1.0=0.4*100=40%                                                                                    

Answer:

x = (40/4)-7.50

x= (10)-7.50

x = 2.50

Step-by-step explanation:

each boy had 2.50 left after the movie because miguel went with 3 other boys, which makes four of them all together. If they had forty dollars all together and all had the same amount of money, you can determine that amount by dividing forty(total money) by 4(number of boys). Which gets you to the answer of ten dollars each. Then you subtract the ticket cost(7.50) from 10 dollars, which gets you to 2.50 left over.

Answer:

27.47059

Step-by-step explanation:

Just use a calculator :^

Answer:

Yes, any equation of the form y=mx +c is a proportional relationship.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

One solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

This question has different coefficients so it has one solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

2 sides of the parallelogram are 13cm and the other 2 sides are 16cm

Perimeter of the parallelogram

= 2 * 13cm + 2 * 16cm

= 26cm + 32cm

= 58cm.

Answer:

58 [tex]cm^{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

F(3,3)

Step-by-step explanation:

The coordinate of F is (3, 3).

Three vertices of parallelogram DEFG are D(0, 2), E(-1, 5), and G (4, 0).

Diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other, meaning they divide each other into equal parts.

The formula is used to find the midpoints are as follows;

[tex]\rm \dfrac{x_1+x_2}{2} , \ \dfrac{y_1+y_2}{2}[/tex]

Let (x, y) = coordinates of vertex F.

DF and EG are diagonals of parallelogram DEFG, therefore:

The midpoint of DF = midpoint of EG

Then,

The midpoint of D(0, 2) and F(x, y) is;

[tex]\rm \dfrac{x_1+x_2}{2} , \ \dfrac{y_1+y_2}{2}\\\\\dfrac{0+x}{2}, \ \dfrac{2+y}{2}[/tex]

The midpoint of E(-1, 5) and G(4, 0) is;

[tex]\rm \dfrac{x_1+x_2}{2} , \ \dfrac{y_1+y_2}{2}\\\\\rm \dfrac{-1+4}{2} , \ \dfrac{5+0}{2}\\\\\dfrac{3}{2}, \dfrac{5}{2}[/tex]

Comparing the equation;

[tex]\rm \dfrac{0+x}{2} = \dfrac{3}{2}\\\\\dfrac{x}{2} = \dfrac{3}{2}\\\\x=3[/tex]

[tex]\rm \dfrac{2+y}{2} =\dfrac{5}{2}\\\\2+y =5\\\\y = 5-2\\\\y =3[/tex]

Hence, the coordinate of F is (3, 3).

To know more about Midpoints click the link given below.

https://brainly.com/question/2994861

Answer:

733.3

Step-by-step explanation:

The number is

880÷1/5:1/6

880÷(1/5×6)

880÷6/5

880×5/6

440×5/3

2200/3

733.3

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that w and 2 are the same here, so substitute w with 2: 7(2)

this means 7 times 2, and that is 14

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

If w=2

Plug in 7(2)... Multiply then you would have 14.

Answer:

the prime number is 31

Step-by-step explanation:

hi I got it right

Answer:

1. c

2. b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The plane will have traveled 675 miles in 1 1/2 hours.

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok so there are 90 minutes in 1.5 hours and since it travels 7.5 miles per minute to get the total: 7.5*90=675.

Answer:

17.3

Step-by-step explanation:

You use sine and use SOH of SOHCAHTOA. Plug in sin(25)=o/41. Do sin(25) times 41 to find o. Hope this helps.

Answer:

8.4

Step-by-step explanation:

d=√(x2-x1)+(y2-y1)

d-√ (-1-(-7))^2+(-1-(-7))^2

d=√ (-1+7)^2+(-1+7)^2

d=√ (6)^2+6^2

d=√ 36+36

d=√ 72

d=6√ 2=8.4852

d=8.4

The probability that the team will win the second game given that they have already won the first game is 7/10

Event win in the 1st game is represented with A

Event win in the 2nd game is represented with B

In the question

i. The probability that they will win both games is P(AnB) = 42%

ii. The probability that they will win the first game is P(A) = 60%

The probability that the team will win the second game given that they have already won the first game is:

P(B/A) = P(BnA) / P(A)

P(B/A) = P(AnB) / P(A)

From the question

P(B/A) = 42% / 60%

P(B/A) = 0.42 / 0.60

P(B/A) = 7/10

In conclusion: The probability that the team will win the second game given that they have already won the first game is 7/10

See related question here https://brainly.com/question/23423241

Answer:

The correct answer is

Step-by-step explanation:

D would be the correct answer