Ferritin is a protein whose level of 500 mg/ml is a cardinal symptom of an anemic patient taking the dose and may contribute to a classic case of pigmentation.
What are pigmentation and fatigue, and how did the 50-year-old guy develop these problems?See here the 50-year-old patient here is facing pigmentation, and darkening because of hepatomegaly.Hepatomegaly is a disorder in which the liver is enlarged and results in skin yellowing and a slight increase in pigmentation, along with escalating complications over time.This 50-year-old patient is also suffering from fatigue which is a symptom of hepatomegaly too.Now comes ferritin which is the protein that helps in iron building in the human body, a classic case of leukemia in which ferritin has a great role.To know more about hepatomegaly visit:
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an 80-year-old client comes to the clinic reporting shortness of breath. when listening to the client's lungs, the nurse hears crackles (intermittent, high- and low- pitched popping sounds in the lower bases of the lungs) during inspiration. in which conditions might the nurse auscultate crackles? select all that apply.
Since an 80-year-old client comes to the clinic reporting shortness of breath. when listening to the client's lungs, the conditions might the nurse auscultate crackles are:
2. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
3. Pneumonia
4. Pulmonary edema
Where do you Auscultate for crackles?Crackles are most audible during the first, deep breathes at the posterior lung bases. If the small airways remain open during the duration of the examination, these fine crackles will go away after numerous such breaths or deliberate coughing. Additionally crucial is the crackle's timing.
Note that Pneumonia, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and heart failure are clinical situations where crackles may be present.
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an 80-year-old client comes to the clinic reporting shortness of breath. when listening to the client's lungs, the nurse hears crackles (intermittent, high- and low- pitched popping sounds in the lower bases of the lungs) during inspiration. in which conditions might the nurse auscultate crackles? select all that apply.I painless spin 2. Acute respiratory distress syndrome, 3. Pneumonia, 4. Pulmonary edema
many women develop iron-deficient anemia during pregnancy. what diagnostic criteria would the nurse monitor for to determine anemia in the pregnant woman?
Answer: A serum ferritin concentration <30 μg/L together with an Hb concentration <11 g/dL during the 1st trimester, <10.5 g/dL during the 2nd trimester, and <11 g/dL during the 3rd trimester are diagnostic for anemia during pregnancy.
Pregnancy: Oral iron
NATA: Hb ≤11 g/dL (2nd Trimester)
Asia-Paci c: 10< Hb ≤10.5 g/dL
Germany: 9< Hb ≤11.5 g/dL
the nurse is assessing a multipara client who presents to the hospital after approximately 2 hours of labor and notes the fetus is in a transverse lie. after notifying the rn and primary care provider, which action should the lpn prioritize?
The nurse is assessing a multipara client who presents to the hospital after approximately 2 hours of labor and notes the fetus is in a transverse lie. After notifying the RN and primary care provider. The LPN should prioritize the prepare to assist with external version.
Multipara- A lady who has experienced two or even more successful pregnancies is referred to as multipara. Regardless matter whether the child is born alive, this phrase is utilized. For a pregnancy to be regarded as viable, it must endure at least 20 weeks. Primipara is a woman that has only experienced one successful pregnancy.
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a nurse is preparing to administer an antidepressant medication to an older adult client with depression. which information would the nurse need to keep in mind?
The nurse needs to keep in mind that the side effects that can occur in older adults are likely to be significant.
What is antidepressant medication?Antidepressants are medications used to treat major depressive disorder, some anxiety disorders, some chronic pain conditions, and to help manage some addictions. Common side-effects of antidepressants include dry mouth, weight gain, dizziness, headaches, sexual dysfunction, and emotional blunting.
Antidepressant medications are used to treat the symptoms of depression. Antidepressant medications act on chemical substances found in the brain, called neurotransmitters, which are deficient or out of balance in persons with depression.
Medications used to treat depression usually come with side effects. The specific changes you may experience depend in part on the class of drug you're taking.
Common side effects:
Gastrointestinal symptoms: indigestion, diarrhea, constipation, loss of appetite.
ill feeling: headache, dizziness, dry mouth, sweating.
nervousness: restlessness, shakiness, nervous feeling
Changes in heart rhythm: Palpitations, fast heartbeat.
vision changes: blurred vision
Weight changes: unexpected weight loss or weight gain.
Sexual dysfunction: low sex drive
Sleep changes: Insomnia
Hence, The nurse needs to keep in mind that the side effects that can occur in older adults are likely to be significant.
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a nurse is assigned to care for a client admitted to the health care facility with the diagnosis of atelectasis. when interviewing the client, the nurse would anticipate a history of:
Answer: Pneumonia.
Rationale: Atelectasis is "complete lung expansion or collapse of alveoli", preventing pressure changes and gas exchange by diffusion in the lungs. Conditions that predispose patients to atelectasis are obstructions of the airway by disease or condition that results in thickening of alveolar-capillary membranes, like pulmonary edema, which makes diffusion difficult. Stiffer lungs also tend to collapse and their alveoli also collapse.
Following an injury to your hand, the injured area appears red and swollen. It feels painful and warm to the touch. What is the cause of these symptoms?.
Increased blood flow is what causes these symptoms.
Does worry reduce blood flow?A quicker heart rate, greater blood pressure, and lower blood flow through the coronary artery vessels that supply the heart are just a few of the impacts that might come from the rise in adrenal hormones brought on by stress.
How can greater blood flow occur?Vasodilation, as it is known in medicine, occurs when blood vessels in your body open up, enabling more blood to flow through them and resulting in a reduction in blood pressure. You are not aware of this process as it occurs naturally in your body. You may get it through what you eat, drink, take, or from medications you take.
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Mable, a 65-year-old female, is seen by her family physician for an office visit. Her physician decides to admit Mable to the observation unit at the local hospital to monitor her continued complaint of generalized lower abdominal pain. The physician performs a detailed history and examination with a straightforward medical decision making complexity.
The physician performs a detailed history and examination with a straightforward medical decision about lower abdominal pain and the code is therefore 99218,99217, R10.84 which is denoted as option B.
What is Medical coding?This is referred to as the process in which a medical diagnosis or treatment is translated into numeric and alpha numeric characters and it is done to eliminate ambiguity in the healthcare system and ensure that several factors are considered in this scenario.
The code 99217 depicts observation care discharge service in which the client is discharged at a different date and the R10.84 depicts the code for abdominal pain which is experienced by the client.
This is therefore the reason why option B was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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The full question is:
Mable, a 65-year-old female, is seen by her family physician for an office visit. Her physician decides to admit Mable to the observation unit at the local hospital to monitor her continued complaint of generalized lower abdominal pain. The physician performs a detailed history and examination with a straightforward medical decision making complexity.
Code this encounter. A) 99234, R10.0, Z04.89 B) 99218,99217, R10.84, Z04.89 C)99221, R10.30, Z04.89 D) 99218, R10.30
the nurse is admitting a client at 23 weeks' gestation in preparation for induction and delivery after it was determined the fetus had died secondary to trauma. when asked by the client to explain what went wrong, the nurse can point out which potential cause for this loss?
The nurse is admitting a client at 23 weeks' gestation in preparation for induction and delivery after it was determined the fetus had died secondary to trauma and when asked by the client to explain what went wrong, the nurse can point out which potential cause for this loss is placental abruption.
The most common explanation for fetus death when a trauma is placental gap or abruption, wherever the placenta separates from the womb, and therefore the craniate isn't ready to survive. Genetic abnormalities usually cause abortion (miscarriage) within the trimester. Trauma doesn't cause toxaemia of pregnancy (which is said to numerous problems within the mother) nor will trauma typically cause promenade.
Placental aburption happens once the placenta separates from the inner wall of the womb before birth. It will deprive the baby of chemical element and nutrients and cause serious harm within the mother. In some cases, early delivery is required.
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the nurse has administered oral penicillin as ordered for prophylaxis of endocarditis. the nurse instructs the parents to immediately report which reaction?
Prophylaxis of endocarditis the nurse instructs the parents to immediately report Wheezing reaction .
What is the purpose of penicillin?Penicillins are used to treat bacterial infections. They function by either eradicating the germs or stopping their growth. There are numerous varieties of penicillin. Each is employed to treat various infections.
How can taking too much penicillin affect you?If you unintentionally take one extra dose of your antibiotic, you most likely won't experience any severe complications. However, it will increase your likelihood of obtaining unpleasant side effects like diarrhea, stomach pain, and feeling or being ill. A virus-induced cough cannot be treated with antibiotics. Most sore throats will disappear on their own within a week.
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the mediterranean diet has what key characteristic? a. low intakes of phytochemicals b. high relative intakes of monounsaturated fats c. high relative intakes of animal fats d. low intakes of fish e. low intake of complex carbohydrates
The mediterranean diet has the key characteristic of high relative intakes of monounsaturated fats.
The traditional Mediterranean diet is characterized by high consumption of vegetables, fruits and loopy, legumes, and unprocessed cereals; low consumption of meat and meat merchandise; and low consumption of dairy farm products (with the exception of the long-preservable cheeses). Examples - olive and canola oil, avocados, pumpkin and sesame seeds, nuts like almond, etc.
Monounsaturated fat is just a style of dietary fat. It's one in every of the healthy fats, beside fat. Monounsaturated fats are liquid at temperature however begin to harden once chilled. Saturated fats and trans fats are solid at temperature.
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The central nervous system is composed solely of the Brian and the
the nurse knows that inflammatory response following a burn is proportional to the extent of injury. which factor presents the greatest impact on the ability to modify the magnitude and duration of the inflammatory response in a client with a burn?
The nurse knows that inflammatory response following a burn is proportional to the extent of injury and the factor which presents the greatest impact on the ability to modify the magnitude and duration of the inflammatory response in a client with a burn is the preexisting conditions.
Burn wounds induce an excessive inflammatory response. Body fluid levels of complement and also the acute section chemical C-reactive protein (CRP) are upregulated in response to burn injury and are shown to be associated with the severity of burn trauma and to the clinical outcome.
Each burn kind instigates a wound healing response consisting of 3 over-lapping phases: inflammation, proliferation, and re-modelling. The response starts with unleash of amine, free radicals and inflammatory cytokines, that increase dilation and tissue puffiness.
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15. fritz jk, waddell bs, kitziger kj, peters pc, gladnick bp. is dislocation risk due to posterior pelvic tilt reduced with direct anterior approach total hip arthroplasty? j arthroplasty. 2021;36(11):3692-3696. doi:10.1016/j.arth.2021.07.003
Demonstrate no elevated risk for THA dislocation in patients who underwent a DA approach and had a PSCD 0 mm.
What causes dislocation after hip replacement?Impingement is the most typical dislocation mechanism. A dislocation that shifts the head to the anterior or posterior can be brought on by osteophytes on either the acetabular or femoral side, capsular tissue, or scar tissue. The abductors and adductors exert force on the femur, proximizing it.
The surgeon performs an anterior hip replacement by making a small incision close to the front of the hip to enable the removal of worn-out bone and cartilage and the implantation of an artificial hip without injuring nearby muscles and tendons. Patients are discharged from the hospital earlier than they otherwise might be.
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the nurse is discussing the new medication that a client will be taking for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. which disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (dmard) will the nurse educate the client about?
Client is informed by the nurse about methotrexate (Rheumatrex).
Rheumatoid arthritis :A condition that causes chronic inflammation and affects many joints, including the hands and feet.
The immune system of the body attacks its own tissue, including joints, in rheumatoid arthritis. In severe cases, internal organs are attacked.
Joint linings are influenced by rheumatoid arthritis, that also results in painful swelling. Rheumatoid arthritis-related inflammation can result in joint deformity and bone erosion over an extended period of time.
Test in rheumatoid arthritis :One of the most popular blood tests, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), can be used to assess the degree of inflammation in the body. C-reactive protein (CRP) testing is an additional method for determining the degree of inflammation.
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the nurse is caring for a patient with a myocardial infarction (mi). which physiological response to cardiogenic shock after a myocardial infarction (mi) should the nurse expect?
If the nurse is caring for a patient with myocardial infarction (MI) then the expected physiological response to cardiogenic shock after a MI is an increased stroke volume.
What is myocardial infarction?Myocardial infarction (MI) is a life treating problem associated with heart attack due to the myocardium muscle tissue (which is one of the three tissues of this organ), which is unable to pump enough blood to all body parts. Myocardial infarction condition may suddenly increase the stroke volume due to the increase in the left ventricle systolic volume.
Moreover, cardiogenic shock is caused by severe situations of heart attacks which may be finally denoted by refractory issues associated with heart functioning.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that myocardial infarction is a health problem associated with the heart myocardium tissue of the heart and it may be triggered by increased stroke volume after severe heart attacks.
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a client at 38 weeks' gestation has an ultrasound performed at a routine office visit and learns that her fetus has not moved out of a breech position. which intervention does the nurse anticipate for this client?
Since the client at 38 weeks' gestation has an ultrasound performed at a routine office visit, the intervention does the nurse anticipate for this client is option B: External cephalic version.
What is the External cephalic version?An external cephalic version occurs when a fetus is turned from breech to cephalic before birth. Although the typical window is 37 to 38 weeks of pregnancy, it can be done as early as 34 to 35 weeks.
When a woman's inlet measurement is just adequate) and the fetal lay and position are satisfactory, a trial birth is undertaken. This entails letting labor progress normally for as long as the presenting part continues to descend and the cervix continues to dilate.
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See options below
Which intervention does the nurse anticipate for this client?
a) Vacuum extraction
b) External cephalic version
c) Trial labor
d) Forceps birth
the nurse is assessing a newborn in the nursery. the nurse notes the infant has episodes in which breathing ceased for 20 seconds on 2 occasions. the nurse correctly recognizes this condition as:
The nurse is assessing a newborn in the nursery, so she notes the infant has episodes in which breathing ceased for 20 seconds on 2 occasions and the nurse correctly recognizes this condition as apnea.
Apnea could be a probably serious upset within which respiration repeatedly stops and starts. If you snore loudly and feel tired even once a full night's sleep, you would possibly have sleep disorder. the most varieties of sleep disorder are: clogging sleep disorder, the additional common kind that happens once throat muscles relax.
It's normal for newborn baby to own short pauses in respiration. In child symptoms of apnea, these pauses are too long, and therefore the heart slows down an excessive amount of. this can be additional common in premature babies born before thirty seven weeks. Symptom could be a pause in respiration.
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describe the healthy meal that you have created from the fast food restaurant using the nutritional value of menu items. write a nutritional analysis of the meal you have created and discuss the macronutrients, key vitamins, minerals and any other nutrient worth mentioning. include all of the nutrients found in the meal and their levels (needs to include as many nutrients as possible as it would be valuable to see what the meal has in it with regard to nutrients). discuss your reaction to the analysis by explaining how the levels of the nutrients meets or exceeds the recommended daily intake (rdi) for various nutrients. for example, one of the things you could discuss would be the amount of sodium in the meal and how this amount meets or exceeds the dietary recommendations for that nutrient. (you will need to discuss at least two other items in addition to sodium). how will this information affect your future food choices?
A healthy meal from a fast food restaurant might be an avocado, tuna and egg sandwich.
What are the nutritional values of the sandwich?The sandwich consists of two slices of wholegrain bread, half a mashed avocado, 3 tablespoons of grated tuna and 1 boiled egg. The sandwich's carbohydrate source is contained in the two slices of wholegrain bread, which contains an average of 135 calories, whose macros are 72% carbohydrates, 14% fat and 14% protein.
The amount of half an avocado, equivalent to 100gr, has an amount of 160 calories, containing approximately 12gr of fat, which is a monounsaturated fatty acid, a healthy fat if associated with a healthy diet.
The 3 tablespoons of tuna have an average of 53 calories and 12gr of fat. And to complement the ingredients, a boiled egg has 77 calories, and 6.25 grams of protein.
The amount of fat recommended per day by the WHO is 66gr, and that of protein is 48gr, so according to nutritional values, the sandwich is a healthy option for food.
Therefore, it is also important to discuss the amount of sodium used in meals, whose recommended daily amount is 5gr, and meals should be seasoned with healthier herbs and seasonings. This information will affect future food choices through knowledge that gives the opportunity for healthier food choices.
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a client who is living with chronic pain has received a health care provider's order for tens. when applying the device to the client's skin, the nurse should do what action?
Pain that is nociceptive is chronic musculoskeletal pain. Such pain is treated in a staged manner using a combination of non-pharmacological, non-opioid, and opioid analgesics. Start with the lowest intensity and raise it to the right level gradually.
What is the standard of care for chronic pain?
Pain that is nociceptive is chronic musculoskeletal pain. Such pain is treated in a staged manner using a combination of non-pharmacological, non-opioid, and opioid analgesics. Acetaminophen or NSAIDs would be the first line of treatment. Both are successful in treating osteoarthritis and persistent back pain.
The first line of treatment for mild to moderate pain, such as that caused by a headache, skin injury, or musculoskeletal disease, is typically acetaminophen. For the treatment of osteoarthritis and back pain, acetaminophen is frequently given. To lessen the amount of opioid required, it may also be used with opioids.
The objective is to gradually increase function while staying within pain and discomfort tolerance levels. Over a three-month period, patients have been observed to increase their physical strength and endurance by 50 to 100%.
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the nurse is performing an assessment of a client who has experienced a traumatic event. in understanding the client’s ability to cope with the event, what question would the nurse ask first?
The nurse would ask first question is, How have you previously dealt with a stressful situation?
Stressful Situation- Being overburdened with labor or responsibilities. working a hard day. being poorly managed, having ambiguous job objectives, or not having any influence over how decisions are made. working under hazardous circumstances.
The adrenal medulla produces the hormone adrenaline when someone perceives a situation as stressful, preparing the body for just a response of flight or fight.
Adrenaline and cortisol, among other stress hormones, are released by the nervous system in response to a threat, rousing the body to take rapid action. Your breathing quickens, your pulse quickens, your muscles tense up, and your senses sharpen.
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a primary care physician is concerned with the course of a disease in an individual, while an epidemiologist is concerned with the course of disease in a population.
It is true that a primary care physician is concerned with the course of a disease in an individual, while an epidemiologist is concerned with the course of disease in a population.
A primary care physician (PCP), or primary care provider, is a health care skilled person who practices medicine. PCPs are our initial stop for treatment. Most PCPs ar doctors, however nurse practitioners and Dr. assistants will typically even be PCPs.
Epidemiologists collect and analyze information to research health problems. as an example, a medical scientist would possibly study demographic information to see teams at high risk for a specific sickness. They conjointly might analysis trends in populations of survivors of bound diseases, like cancer, to spot effective treatments.
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which nursing intervention has the highest priority during the first hour after the admission of a client with cholecystitis who is experiencing pain, nausea, and vomiting?
The nursing intervention that may represent the highest priority during the first hour after the admission of a client with cholecystitis experiencing pain, nausea, and vomiting is administering pain medication.
What is cholecystitis?The medical term cholecystitis makes reference to a condition in which the gallbladder organs is found to be inflamed. which is generally caused by particles called stones (gallstones).
Therefore, we can conclude that cholecystitis is an inflammation of the gallbladder that must be treated in a clinical setting and whose high-priority intervention is to avoid pain.
Complete question:
Which nursing intervention has the highest priority during the first hour after the admission of a client with cholecystitis who is experiencing pain, nausea, and vomiting?
a) teaching about planned diagnostic tests
b) administering pain medication.
c) maintaining hydration
d) completing the admission history
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when preparing to examine a client's sclera and conjunctiva during an eye examination, the nurse should instruct the client to move both eyes to look in which direction?
The nurse should instruct the client to move both eyes to look up when preparing to examine a client's sclera and conjunctiva during an eye examination.
What are sclera and conjunctiva?The conjunctiva can be defined as the eye membrane that covers the sclera, which plays a fundamental role in protecting the eye from the entry of foreign particles into the air. This membrane is located up to the cornea.
Therefore, we can conclude that the conjunctiva is found up to the cornea and therefore it can be visualized when moving both eyes to look up.
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a stroke patient can recognize the sound of his wife's voice but cannot recognize her face when she stands next to him. which brain region has most likely been damaged?
Answer:
Fusiform Gyrus
Explanation:
The fusiform gyrus is said to play a role in facial recognition. It is located on the inferior portion of the temporal lobe.
the nurse is caring for a client who has a gastrostomy tube feeding. upon initiating care, the nurse aspirates the gastrotomy tube for gastric residual volume (grv) and obtains 200 ml of gastric contents. what is the priority action by the nurse?
Answer: Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position with the head of the bed at 45 degrees.
a patient with left-sided heart failure is diagnosed with hepatomegaly. the nurse should conclude that which cause resulted in the change to patient’s liver?
D. The left-sided heart failure (HF) now has caused right-sided HF.
Heart failure (HF) on the right side can result from a variety of diseases, but left-sided HF is the most common cause. Because fluid backs up into to the body, hepatomegaly is a symptom of right-sided HF. Hepatomegaly is not the result of left-sided HF moving forward. In HF, the right-sided afterload is increased. The patient's HF was caused by left-sided HF rather than a pulmonary embolism.
Hepatomegaly- A disorder called hepatomegaly causes the liver to grow, usually to a measurement of more than 15 cm inside the midclavicular line. Normal hepatic size varies from individual to individual and is influenced by factors like sex, gender, height, weight, & body size.
The given question is incomplete, click on the below link,
Q. A patient with left-sided heart failure is diagnosed with hepatomegaly. The nurse should conclude that which cause resulted in the change to patient's liver?
A. The left side of the heart is pumping too much blood to the body.
B. The patient developed a pulmonary embolism, resulting in right-sided heart failure (HF).
C. The patient is now experiencing decreased right-sided afterload.
D. The left-sided heart failure (HF) now has caused right-sided HF.
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a nursing instructor is reviewing information on the organs of the immune system. the instructor asks a nursing student to name the location of kupffer cells. which organ identified by the nursing student indicates successful teaching?
A nursing instructor is reviewing information on the organs of the immune system. The instructor asks a nursing student to name the location of kupffer cells. The liver is identified by the nursing student indicates successful teaching.
Immune System- The body's defense against infection is provided by the immune system, a complicated network of organs, cells, and proteins that also safeguards the body's own cells. Every germ (microbe) that the immune system has ever eliminated is recorded, allowing it to promptly identify and eliminate the microbe if it re-enters the body.
Kupffer Cells- The resident liver macrophages known as kupffer cells are essential for sustaining healthy liver functions. They are the initial innate immune cells that guard the liver against bacterial infections under normal settings.
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if a pediatric vitamin contains 1,500 units of vitamin a per milliliter of solution, how many units of vitamin a would be administered to a child given 2 drops of the solution from a dropper calibrated to deliver 20 drops per milliliter of solution?
The number of units in 2 drops of vitamin A solution administered to the child by the pediatric is 150 units.
What is the vitamin A concentration in the drop of vitamin A solution?The concentration of vitamin A solution in the drop of the vitamin A solution is calculated as follows:
The solution's concentration of vitamin A per milliliter is expressed as several units.
The given vitamin contains 1,500 units of vitamin per milliliter of solution.
The dropper is calibrated to deliver 20 drops per milliliter of solution.
The number of units of vitamin A in a drop is:
1500 units are in 1 mL of solution
20 drops are in 1 mL of solution
Number of units in 1 drop = 1500 units /20
Number of units in 1 drop = 75 units per drop
The child is to be administered 2 drops of the solution by the pediatric.
The number of units given to the child = 2 * 75 units
The number of units given to the child = 150 units of vitamin A.
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When a patient is to begin lithium therapy, which laboratory results would the health care team be sure to check before administering the patient’s first dose?.
Answer: TSH BUN
Explanation: hope this helps!
the nurse is observing a client who is sitting alone in the day room and is intently focused on a nearby empty chair. suddenly the client begins laughing hysterically and making frantic hand gestures at the chair. when the nurse approaches the client, the client looks over at the chair, whispers something unintelligible, and shakes their head. how would the nurse best assess the client’s behavior in this situation?
Say "Tell me what's going on" as you calmly approach the client
This sort of fervently unpleasant impact is conveyed through exuberant scenes of laughing while also sobbing, or by other fervent performances. This results from a neurologic problem or brain injury as a byproduct. Some people may chuckle when they experience emotions other than amusement, such worry or scorn, even without a diagnosis. Unwanted laughing can also result from neurological conditions. A syndrome known as pseudobulbar affect (PBA) is characterized by bursts of uncontrolled and inappropriate sobbing or laughter. PBA is not regarded as a mental disorder; rather, it is a neurological defect.
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